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Practice Questions for KNPE 355

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355 Exam Lecture Questions

Question 1 of 86

1

Which one of the following is not a mode of Cardiometabolic Risk assessment?

Select one of the following:

  • Lab Test

  • Physical Exam

  • PISQ

  • Clinical Test

  • PAR-Q

Explanation

Question 2 of 86

1

The average resting heart rate of an individual is between

Select one of the following:

  • 65-85 bpm

  • 70-90 bpm

  • 50-70 bpm

  • 60-80 bpm

  • None of the Above

Explanation

Question 3 of 86

1

Pulse provides information on which of the following:

Select one of the following:

  • Speed and irregularities of heart rate

  • Level of arousal

  • Sleeping or Awake

  • How healthy an individual is

  • Whether or not there are blockages in the blood

Explanation

Question 4 of 86

1

Prior to taking BP via auscultation it is important to

Select one of the following:

  • Ask patient how much alcohol they have consumed in the past 12 hours

  • Let patient relax for at least 5 minutes in a comfortable environment

  • Sedate the patient so that they are in a relaxed state

Explanation

Question 5 of 86

1

Which of the following does correlate with the correct blood pressure category

Select one of the following:

  • Normal <120mmHg/<80mmHg

  • Prehypertension 120-135mmHg/80-89mmHg

  • Hypertension 136-159mmHg/90-100mmHg

  • Stage 2 Hypertension >160 mmHg/>101mmHg

  • Stage 3 Hypertension >180mmHg/>120mmHg

Explanation

Question 6 of 86

1

Cardiorespiratory Fitness is:

Select one of the following:

  • The ability of the cardiometabolic system to produce strong work by consuming oxygen

  • The ability of the cardiovascular system to deliver oxygen around the body and keep muscles healthy

  • The ability of the cardiometabolic system to deliver oxygen to working muscles and those muscles ability to use that oxygen to do work

  • The ability of the cardiovascular system to deliver oxygen to working muscles and do work using that oxygen

Explanation

Question 7 of 86

1

Active Recovery entails:

Select one of the following:

  • Continuing light intensity exercise for approximately 3 minutes

  • Recording HR at each minute

  • Additional two minutes if not below 100bpm

  • All of the above

  • A and B

Explanation

Question 8 of 86

1

Which of the following is a correct response if a patient feels uncomfortable or exhibits signs of distress during a test?

Select one of the following:

  • Reduce cadence and continue test

  • Pause test and give them a second before continuing test

  • Take steps to terminate test

  • Encourage them to keep going

Explanation

Question 9 of 86

1

These two tests are examples of Submaximal Tests

Select one of the following:

  • Constant duration Cycle & Constant Duration Treadmill

  • YMCA Cycle Ergometer & Ebling Treadmill Walking

  • YMCA Cycle Ergometer & Constant Duration Treadmill

  • Constant Duration cycle & Ebling Treadmill Test

Explanation

Question 10 of 86

1

All of the following are examples of Exercise Tolerance Tests except:

Select one of the following:

  • Constant Work (CWT)
    Participant completes set amount of work or a given distance as

  • Constant Duration (CDT)
    Participant completes as much work or covers as much distances as possible in a set time

  • Constant Power (CPT)
    Participant maintains a constant power until exhaustion

  • Constant Speed (CST)
    Participant maintains a constant speed until exhaustion

Explanation

Question 11 of 86

1

Which of the following best describes the advantages of Sub-maximal testing

Select one of the following:

  • Sub-maximal testing is relatively simple and thus can be performed by untrained individuals in a short period of time

  • This type of testing can be completed quickly due to its simple nature thus making it easier to apply to clinical populations

  • Sub-maximal testing is relatively simple and inexpensive making it easy to apply to clinical populations

  • Sub-maximal testing is easier to apply to non-clinical populations due to its timeliness and simplicity

Explanation

Question 12 of 86

1

The YMCA Cycle Ergometer test is:

Select one of the following:

  • Contains 3 or 4, 3 minute workloads

  • A constant cadence at 50 rpm

  • Aimed to raise heart rate between 110 bpm and 85% of age predicted HRmax

  • Work loads are determined by the heart rate during the last minute of the first workload

  • All of the Above

Explanation

Question 13 of 86

1

If a 25 year old male’s heart rate is 89 bpm during the first work load his subsequent 2nd, 3rd and 4th workloads would be which of the following respectively:

Select one of the following:

  • 450kpm/min, 600kpm/min, 700kpm/min

  • 600kpm/min, 750kpm/min, 900kpm/min

  • 600kpm/min, 700kpm/min, 800kpm/min

  • 450kpm/min, 600kpm/min, 750kpm/min

Explanation

Question 14 of 86

1

Exercise tolerance test determines _________ performance, whereas VO2 max determines max. oxygen consumption during exercise

Select one of the following:

  • Anaerobic

  • Aerobic

  • Athletic

  • Cardiometabolic

Explanation

Question 15 of 86

1

All of the following are aspects of the treadmill test except:

Select one of the following:

  • CDT

  • 3 minute warm up

  • Treadmill at 0%

  • 10 minutes at highest work-rate

  • A and B

  • B and D

Explanation

Question 16 of 86

1

The resistance for the Cycle CDT Exercise Tolerance test is:

Select one of the following:

  • 3.5 kp

  • kp as determined by the participants 85% age predicted HR

  • 3 kp

  • 2 kp

  • 5 kp

Explanation

Question 17 of 86

1

Functional fitness assessment is important because:

Select one of the following:

  • The main causes of injuries especially in aging populations are sedentary lifestyle and disease

  • The components testing in FFA impact an individuals ability to perform activities of daily living

  • Testing can help reduce the prominence of injuries like hip fractures which represent a high percentage of health care costs

  • All of the above are reasons as to why FFA is important

Explanation

Question 18 of 86

1

Which of the following test is matched with the correct area of assessment

Select one of the following:

  • 30 second arm curl/upper arm strength

  • 30 second chair stand /lower body and core strength

  • 8 foot up and go/Static balance

  • 2 minute step test/cardiorespiratory endurance

Explanation

Question 19 of 86

1

One of the following lists all possible ways to measure musculoskeletal fitness

Select one of the following:

  • Muscular, strength, muscular endurance, speed, flexibility

  • Muscular strength, muscular endurance, muscular power

  • Muscular strength, muscular endurance, muscular power and flexibility

Explanation

Question 20 of 86

1

Steps of the grip strength test include:

Select one of the following:

  • Held between fingers, palm of hand and base of thumb

  • Take two measures on one hand and then two on the other

  • Exhale while squeezing

  • Hold hand away from body and stare at focal point

  • A, C and D

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 86

1

Sit and Reach:

Select one of the following:

  • Tests the lower back and hamstring flexibility of an individual

  • Uses a flexometer

  • Uses a dynamometer

  • Repeated twice for accuracy

  • A, C and D

Explanation

Question 22 of 86

1

Subjective Measures of Physical Activity include:

Select one of the following:

  • Questionnaires

  • Interviews

  • Written tests

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 23 of 86

1

Typically subjective measures lack reliability and validity because:

Select one of the following:

  • The reference table may not be an accurate reflection of specific population

  • Seasonal variation

  • Human memory

  • Difficulty to objectively judge self

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 24 of 86

1

The accelerometer is a good example of an:

Select one of the following:

  • Subjective measure of cardiovascular endurance

  • Objective measure of physical activity

  • Objective measure of cardiovascular endurance

  • Subjective measure of physical activity

Explanation

Question 25 of 86

1

The accelerometer units of measurement are:

Select one of the following:

  • BPM

  • m/min

  • CPM

  • DPM

Explanation

Question 26 of 86

1

The gold standards of body composition assessment include:

Select one of the following:

  • MRI

  • CT

  • DEXA

  • X-Ray

  • Hydrostatic Weighing

  • All of the above

  • A, B, and D

Explanation

Question 27 of 86

1

The gold standards of body composition assessment include:

Select one of the following:

  • Weight (kg)/Height (cm2)

  • Weight (Kg)/Height (m2)

  • Height (m2)/Weight (kg)

  • Weight (lbs)/Height (m2)

Explanation

Question 28 of 86

1

An individual would be considered obese II if their BMI was between the following range:

Select one of the following:

  • 30-34.9

  • 31.-39.9

  • 35-39.9

  • 35-44.9

Explanation

Question 29 of 86

1

The two measurements of waist circumference are:

Select one of the following:

  • NHANE – Inguinal Crest, WHO – midpoint

  • NHANE – Iliac Crest, WHO – Midpoint

  • NHANE – Midpoint, WHO – Iliac Crest

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 30 of 86

1

Prior to taking a BIA measurement you should advise the participant to

Select one of the following:

  • Avoid alcohol consumption for 24 hours prior to test

  • Exercise lightly for 30 minutes in 8 hours prior to test

  • Avoid showering for 8 hours prior to test

  • Increase water consumption 12 hours prior to test

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 31 of 86

1

Which of the following is the correct thumb and index finger placement for obtaining consistent and accurate skin folds:

Select one of the following:

  • 12 cm apart and perpendicular to the long axis of the skin fold

  • 8 cm apart and parallel to the long axis of the skin fold

  • 10 cm apart and parallel to the long axis of the skin fold

  • 8 cm apart and perpendicular to the long axis of the skin fold

Explanation

Question 32 of 86

1

When acquiring a skin fold the head of the callipers should be placed at?

Select one of the following:

  • The crest of the skin fold

  • Halfway between the crest and base of the skin fold

  • The base of the skin fold

  • Beside the skin fold

Explanation

Question 33 of 86

1

Which of the following is not an accepted skin fold site

Select one of the following:

  • Biceps

  • Iliac Crest

  • Deltoid

  • Calf

Explanation

Question 34 of 86

1

Jaws of the caliber are placed 1cm below the the point where the skin fold is: True or False?

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 86

1

The tricep skin fold measurement requires marking the midpoint between:

Select one of the following:

  • Distal clavicle and acromion process

  • Distal clavicle and olecranon process

  • Acromion process and olecranon process

  • Inferior deltoid and proximal radius

Explanation

Question 36 of 86

1

Which of the following is correct regarding the order of skin fold measurement ?

Select one of the following:

  • Complete one full round of measurements at each site, then repeat cycle

  • Complete one measurement at all sites in order except sub scapular which requires two consecutive measurements for reliable values

  • The order in which measurements are taken is not important as long as 3 measures are obtained at each site

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 37 of 86

1

All skin fold measurements should be taken before how long after pressure is released?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 second

  • 2-3 seconds

  • 4 seconds

  • 6 seconds

Explanation

Question 38 of 86

1

A third measure at a site is only taken under which circumstances?

Select one of the following:

  • It is felt that another measure would yield a more accurate reading

  • The client requests it

  • The mean of the first 2 is greater than the corresponding intra-measure error

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 39 of 86

1

Which of the following is a limitation of taking skin folds

Select one of the following:

  • People may have sensitive skin

  • Intra- and inter- individual error

  • You need a lot of training to be competent

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 40 of 86

1

In which of the following situations would taking skin folds not be recommended?

Select one of the following:

  • Determining the effect of a weight loss intervention in individuals with a BMI >30kg/m2

  • Determining the effect of training in some elite level athletes (rowing or wrestling)

  • Determining the effects of a weight loss intervention in individuals who would be classified as overweight

  • Skin fold should never be recommended

Explanation

Question 41 of 86

1

The following is necessary to measure waist circumference correctly except:

Select one of the following:

  • The arms should be cross over the chest

  • The examiner should be positioned on one knee on the clients right side

  • The measurement should be taken at the inferior edge of the iliac crest

  • The measurement should be taken at the midline of the body

Explanation

Question 42 of 86

1

Which of the following is/are not true of proper technique for taking circumference measurements:

Select one of the following:

  • All measurements should be taken on the left side of the body

  • Take a minimum of two measurements at each site in rotational order

  • Apply tension to the tape so it fits snugly around the body without causing indentation to the skin

  • For waist, align the tape in a horizontal plane to the floor

Explanation

Question 43 of 86

1

Proper hip circumference measurement should be taken:

Select one of the following:

  • At the narrowest part of the torso

  • Distal to the gluteal fold

  • Around the buttocks at the furthest posterior protrusion

  • At the superior edge of the iliac crest

Explanation

Question 44 of 86

1

Of the following which is/are true about BMI?

Select one of the following:

  • It is a good measure of abdominal adiposity

  • It is an indirect measure of body fatness

  • It provides important information on the distribution of body fat

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 45 of 86

1

What are the current cut offs for abdominal obesity in men and women?

Select one of the following:

  • Women=88cm, Men=102cm

  • Women=88cm, Men=88cm

  • Women=102cm, Men=88cm

  • Women=102cm, Men=102cm

Explanation

Question 46 of 86

1

According to the Arden et al. reading which of the following is not an issue with the current abdominal obesity cut-offs for men and women?

Select one of the following:

  • The wait circumference thresholds were developed to be used in place of BMI rather than in addition to BMI

  • The thresholds were developed in a predominantly caucasian population

  • The waist circumference thresholds do not predict increased health risk within normal weight, over weight, and obese BMI categories

  • The thresholds were not developed based on the relationship between wait circumference and health risk

Explanation

Question 47 of 86

1

Based on Reading 1 which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The addition of BMI specific waist circumference cut off does not improve the classifications of risk

  • Women have a higher WC threshold than men

  • The thresholds were developed to measure absolute risk rather than relative risk

  • Waist circumference thresholds provide additional information on health risk versus using BMI alone to determine health risk

Explanation

Question 48 of 86

1

Which of the following is false regarding the importance of measuring waist circumference ****

Select one of the following:

  • Abdominal fatness is a more important determinant of health outcomes than overall body fatness

  • Individuals with increased waist circumference are more likely to have the metabolic syndrome

  • a high waist circumference even within obesity class II and III denotes a higher risk for coronary events

  • Individuals who have a BMI within the normal range are at increased risk if they have a higher waist circumference

Explanation

Question 49 of 86

1

What would the health risk of a female with a BMI of 28kg/m2 and a waist circumference of 97 cm be?

Select one of the following:

  • Low

  • Moderate

  • Very High

  • Extremely High

Explanation

Question 50 of 86

1

A participant has just completed the one-mile walk test and their active recovery. They have been sitting for 3 minutes. Under which of the following scenarios would you end the passive recovery?

Select one of the following:

  • The participant's HR reaches 110 bpm

  • The participant's blood pressure drops to 135 mmhg/90 mmhg

  • The participant informal you they feel recovered

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 51 of 86

1

Bob is an older adult who has been recommended by his physician to determine his aerobic fitness. He does not have any balance or coordination issues. Which of the sub maximal tests from the CSEP-PATH manual would be the most appropriate to assess his VO2 max?

Select one of the following:

  • The mCAFT

  • YMCA Cycle Ergometer

  • Treadmill walking test

  • One-Mile walk test

Explanation

Question 52 of 86

1

If doing a cycle ergometer exercise test and cycling at 50 rpm with 1kg of resistance (distance per revolution 6m) what is the equation you would use to calculate to the work rate (watts) at which the individual is cycling? 1 watt=6kgm/min

Select one of the following:

  • 1kg*(6m/50rpm)*6

  • 1kg*(6m/50rpm)/6

  • (1kg*6m*50rpm)*6

  • (1kg*6m*50rpm)/6

Explanation

Question 53 of 86

1

For relative VO2 peak what is the appropriate unit of measurement?

Select one of the following:

  • L/min

  • L/kgFFM/min

  • ml/kg/min

  • L/kg/min

Explanation

Question 54 of 86

1

Once a participant is seated during the recover process, at what time points do you measure HR and BP?
a) Minute 2
b) Minute 1
c) Minute 4
d) Minute 3

Select one of the following:

  • A and B

  • A, B, and D

  • B and D

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 55 of 86

1

What assumptions are made in considering sub maximal exercise tests?

Select one of the following:

  • HR will continue to rise consistently throughout each test

  • There is variability in HRmax for clients of a similar age

  • The mechanical efficiency during cycling or treadmill exercise is consistent for all individuals

  • An exponential relationship exists between Vo2 and HR within the range of 110-150 ppm

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 56 of 86

1

During the belying Treadmill Walking Test a steady state HR is achieved when the HR does not vary by more than:

Select one of the following:

  • 1 bpm

  • 10 bpm

  • 3 bpm

  • 5 bpm

Explanation

Question 57 of 86

1

In the Ebbing Single Stage Treadmill Walking Test, at which HR range should the client be exercising in within the first of walking?

Select one of the following:

  • 40-60%

  • 55-75%

  • 65-85%

  • 50-70%

Explanation

Question 58 of 86

1

Which of the following is not an advantage of sub maximal aerobic exercise testing?

Select one of the following:

  • More accurate

  • Less Costly

  • Quicker to carry out

  • All of the Above

Explanation

Question 59 of 86

1

When is the HR recorded during the YMCA test?

Select one of the following:

  • During the first 15 seconds of each minute

  • During the final 15 seconds of each minute

  • During the first 15 seconds of minute 1 and 3 of each workload

  • During the final 15 seconds of minute 1 and 3 of each workload

Explanation

Question 60 of 86

1

Tracy is cycling at 50 rpm with 2.5kp of resistance. At what power is she cycling?

Select one of the following:

  • 75 W

  • 125 W

  • 175 W

  • 750 W

Explanation

Question 61 of 86

1

The next workload of the YMCA Cycle test requires that the individual cycles at a power of 200 W. How much total weight must be on the weight basket to increase the resistance to this power?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 kg

  • 3.5 kg

  • 4 kg

  • 4.5 kg

Explanation

Question 62 of 86

1

A 65 kg female is using the treadmill walking test to estimate VO2 max. She is 52 years old. Her speed is initially 3.2 mph but adjusted to 3.5 mph after her first minute of warm up. She reaches steady state HR of 104 bpm. What is her estimated VO2 max?

Select one of the following:

  • 36.8 ml/kg/min

  • 3.2 L/min

  • 42.7 ml/kg/min

  • 34.3 ml/kg/min

Explanation

Question 63 of 86

1

You are performing the Ebbing Treadmill Test on a 48-year old male. After the first minute of warmup, the following HR should be maintained:

Select one of the following:

  • 85

  • 104

  • 125

  • None of the Above

Explanation

Question 64 of 86

1

What is the HR cut-off for sufficient recover after the Ebbing Treadmill?

Select one of the following:

  • 121

  • 120

  • 99

  • 100

Explanation

Question 65 of 86

1

Technically speaking, what is the most accurate determinant of max. oxygen consumption?

Select one of the following:

  • A non exercise model for prediction of VO2 max

  • A graded submaximal test

  • A graded maximal test with collected expired gases

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 66 of 86

1

During the Cycle Exercise Tolerance Test, which of the following is the only variable the participant can change at their will?

Select one of the following:

  • Cadence

  • Resistance

  • Duration

  • All are predetermined and constant

Explanation

Question 67 of 86

1

Badr has just completed the 10 minute cycle exercise tolerance test, he was able to maintain a cadence of 90 rpm throughout the test. What was his total power in kpm/min?

Select one of the following:

  • 270 kpm/min

  • 1620

  • 2700

  • 16200

Explanation

Question 68 of 86

1

What do Vollard et al. report happens when inactive participants undergo a period of aerobic training?

Select one of the following:

  • There is an equal increase in VO2 max and aerobic performance

  • Improvements of VO2 max and aerobic performance occur independent of one another

  • The improvement in VO2 max far outweighs the improvements in aerobic performance

  • There is not change in either

Explanation

Question 69 of 86

1

What did Vollard et al. Conclude?

Select one of the following:

  • Vo2 max is a good determinant of improvements in aerobic performance

  • Improvements in Vo2 max and metabolic control combine to explain enhanced aerobic performance

  • Individuals who are low responders to Vo2 max following aerobic exercise are also low responders to aerobic performance following aerobic exercise

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 70 of 86

1

In which of the following scenarios would you use an aerobic performance test in place of VO2 max?

Select one of the following:

  • To determine max. O2 consumption

  • To predict performance of 20km cycling time trial

  • To assess cardiovascular disease risk

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 71 of 86

1

Which of the following is not part of the protocol for exercise tolerance treadmill test?

Select one of the following:

  • Participants walk at 0% grade for warm up, then increase to 5% for duration of test

  • Participants self select speed throughout duration of test

  • Test measures total distance covered in 12 minutes

  • Speed is recorded every 20 seconds throughout test

Explanation

Question 72 of 86

1

Which of the following is part of the protocol for the exercise tolerance cycle test?

Select one of the following:

  • It is defined as a constant work test

  • Resistance is set at 5kp

  • Participant cycles at desired cadence

  • HR is recorded every 20 seconds throughout duration of test

Explanation

Question 73 of 86

1

What is the main reason for measuring exercise tolerance in addition to VO2 max in KNPE 355?

Select one of the following:

  • Athletes rely more on exercise tolerance as an indicator of performance

  • There are fewer technical errors associated with measuring exercise tolerance vs. VO2 max

  • Individuals can improve exercise tolerance without improving VO2 max

  • There is no point in measuring exercise tolerance

Explanation

Question 74 of 86

1

Which of the following is the best predictor of initial onset disability?

Select one of the following:

  • Upper body strength

  • Lower body strength

  • Balance/coordination

  • A and B

Explanation

Question 75 of 86

1

Enhanced musculoskeletal fitness is positively associated with all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Bone health

  • Glucose Homeostasis

  • Mobility

  • Aerobic Capacity

Explanation

Question 76 of 86

1

The push-up test is important for assessing which component of musculoskeletal fitness?

Select one of the following:

  • Flexibility

  • Endurance

  • Power

  • Strength

Explanation

Question 77 of 86

1

The sit and reach test assess the flexibility of what part of the body?

Select one of the following:

  • Upper Back

  • Hamstring

  • Hip

  • Calf Muscles

Explanation

Question 78 of 86

1

Termination for the push-up test includes all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • If the client feels pain and discomfort

  • When the client performs a maximum of 25 push ups in 1 minute

  • When client is unable to maintain proper push-up technique over 2 reps

  • All of the above are indications to terminate

Explanation

Question 79 of 86

1

The vertical jump test is used to assess which component of musculoskeletal fitness?

Select one of the following:

  • Flexibility

  • Endurance

  • Power

  • Strength

Explanation

Question 80 of 86

1

Termination criteria for the back extension test include all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Client experiences pain or discomfort

  • Maintained the test for 3 minutes (180 seconds)

  • Torso drops below the horizontal on one occasion

  • The client is fatigued and wants to stop

Explanation

Question 81 of 86

1

The one-leg stance is terminated after completing a maximum of

Select one of the following:

  • 1 minute

  • 30 seconds

  • 45 seconds

  • 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 82 of 86

1

Balancing on one leg requires all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Static Balance

  • Dynamic Balance

  • Leg Strength

  • Integration of visual and inner ear signals and receptors in the muscles and joints

Explanation

Question 83 of 86

1

The back extension test measures what component of musculoskeletal fitness

Select one of the following:

  • Back endurance

  • Core Endurance

  • Leg Endurance

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 84 of 86

1

In subjective physical activity questionnaires, an example of the floor effect is:

Select one of the following:

  • When activities that are less intense than brisk walking cannot be accounted for

  • When light PA is self-reported as a higher intensity

  • When resistance exercises cannot be accounted for

  • When sedentary behaviour is not self-recorded properly

Explanation

Question 85 of 86

1

In self-reported PA questionnaires what aspect of PA is the least reliably reported?

Select one of the following:

  • Frequency

  • Duration

  • Intensity

  • No aspect is less reliable than another

Explanation

Question 86 of 86

1

What type of validity is most ideal to measure on a PA questionnaire

Select one of the following:

  • Concurrent Validity

  • Predictive Validity

  • Criterion Validity

  • Construct Validity

Explanation

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