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Admin Final

Question 1 of 170

1

Why would you use multicasting for WDS?

Select one of the following:

  • It requires less space on the client system

  • It decreases deployment time

  • It supports IPv6 and DHCPv6

  • It minimizes network traffic

Explanation

Question 2 of 170

1

What two things should you check if a particular client is having problems downloading and installing software?

Select one of the following:

  • local policy and the update schedule

  • group policy and the update schedule

  • local policy and the Windows Update log

  • group policy and the Windows Update log

Explanation

Question 3 of 170

1

What single performance indicator can tell you if your CPU is over capacity and needs to be replaced?

Select one of the following:

  • Disk Queue Length

  • Paging File % Usage

  • Physical Disk Time

  • Processor Time

Explanation

Question 4 of 170

1

What is the primary difference between domain-based namespace and stand-alone namespace?

Select one of the following:

  • Where the namespaces are stored

  • The names given to namespaces

  • The number of servers participating in the namespace

  • The requirement for at least one Windows Server 2008 system

Explanation

Question 5 of 170

1

By default, where are storage reports saved?

Select one of the following:

  • C:\StorageReports\Scheduled

  • C:\StorageReports\Saved

  • C:\StorageReports\Queued

  • C:\StorageReports\Quotas

Explanation

Question 6 of 170

1

If you’re a command-line user, what command will encrypt files and folders?

Select one of the following:

  • encrypt.exe

  • compress.exe

  • cipher.exe

  • efs.exe

Explanation

Question 7 of 170

1

Which utility do you use to access advanced audit policy settings?

Select one of the following:

  • Local Policy Editor

  • Group Policy Editor

  • Domain Policy Editor

  • Schema Policy Editor

Explanation

Question 8 of 170

1

What is the major reason behind using a forwarder?

Select one of the following:

  • To decrease client DNS lookups outside your network

  • To improve the efficiency of name resolution for your computers

  • So that your servers only perform recursive queries

  • To justify the use of multiple DNS server layers

Explanation

Question 9 of 170

1

Before creating PTR records, what DNS objects should you create?

Select one of the following:

  • reverse lookup zones

  • CNAME records

  • SOA records

  • NS records

Explanation

Question 10 of 170

1

Which Windows Server 2012 R2 server role is useful to install the Web Application proxy for AD FS?

Select one of the following:

  • AD FS

  • Remote Access

  • Remote Desktop

  • Web Services

Explanation

Question 11 of 170

1

What does the netsh namespace show policy command do?

Select one of the following:

  • Shows the DNS search order

  • Displays the static routing table for a namespace

  • Shows the NRPT rules are configured on the policy

  • Displays local direct access security policy

Explanation

Question 12 of 170

1

What process determines what a user is permitted to do on a computer or on a network?

Select one of the following:

  • access

  • authorization

  • authentication

  • permission

Explanation

Question 13 of 170

1

Identify the correct NPS templates. Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Shared Secrets

  • NPS Filters

  • Health Policies

  • RADIUS Clients

Explanation

Question 14 of 170

1

Which computers are not affected by VPN enforcement?

Select one of the following:

  • Newly deployed computers

  • Computers that access the LAN remotely

  • Isolated computers

  • Locally connected computers

Explanation

Question 15 of 170

1

Identify another utility that you can use to add SPNs to an account.

Select one of the following:

  • setspn

  • spnedit

  • dnscmd

  • netsh

Explanation

Question 16 of 170

1

The global catalog stores a partial copy of all objects in the forest. What are the reasons for keeping that partial copy? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • logon

  • object searches

  • universal group memberships

  • schema integrity

Explanation

Question 17 of 170

1

Which of the following ntdsutil commands cleans up metadata?

Select one of the following:

  • metadata defrag

  • metadata cleanup

  • metadata restore

  • metadata repair

Explanation

Question 18 of 170

1

Which of the following ntdsutil commands cleans up metadata?

Select one of the following:

  • metadata defrag

  • metadata cleanup

  • metadata restore

  • metadata repair

Explanation

Question 19 of 170

1

What is the secpol.msc utility used for?

Select one of the following:

  • editing group policies

  • editing local security policies

  • editing global security policies

  • editing domain-level policies

Explanation

Question 20 of 170

1

If a site, domain or OU has multiple GPOs, how are the group policies processed?

Select one of the following:

  • by precedence

  • by importance

  • by administrative control

  • by GPO controller policy

Explanation

Question 21 of 170

1

What are MST files used for?

Select one of the following:

  • They deploy customized software installation files

  • They are template files for software packages

  • They are custom patch files

  • They specialize in software installation test files

Explanation

Question 22 of 170

1

GPP can be configured on domain controllers running which version of Windows Server? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2003

  • 2008

  • 2008 R2

  • 2012

Explanation

Question 23 of 170

1

What is a collection of files store in the SYSVOL (%SystemRood%\SYSVOL\<Domain>\Policies\<GPOCUID>) of each domain controller?

Select one of the following:

  • Group Policy Container (GPC)

  • Group Policy Template (GPT)

  • migration table

  • delegation

Explanation

Question 24 of 170

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

To give someone permission to manage a particular GPO, you use the ( Delegate, Permissions, Security, Settings ) tab of the individual GPO.

Explanation

Question 25 of 170

1

Which domain users are automatically granted permissions to perform Group Policy Management tasks?

Select one of the following:

  • local administrators

  • power users

  • domain administrators

  • domain users

Explanation

Question 26 of 170

1

Which Windows extension allows you to add, replace, or delete sections or properties in configuration settings or setup information files?

Select one of the following:

  • .ini

  • files

  • folders

  • environment

Explanation

Question 27 of 170

1

Which items can you configure shortcuts to in performing GPP deployments? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Windows Firewall applet

  • Documents folder

  • Microsoft Excel

  • Printer

Explanation

Question 28 of 170

1

Which utility do you use to create GPO preferences?

Select one of the following:

  • Group Policy Management Editor

  • Group Policy Preference Editor

  • Group Policy Editor

  • Group Policy Wizard

Explanation

Question 29 of 170

1

Which component allows you to create multiple Registry preference items based on registry settings that you select?

Select one of the following:

  • the Registry Scope

  • the Registry Extension

  • the Registry Configurator

  • the Registry Wizard

Explanation

Question 30 of 170

1

When working with Network Drive Mapping Preferences, which preference behaviours delete drive mappings? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Create

  • Replace

  • Update

  • Delete

Explanation

Question 31 of 170

1

To copy, replace, update, or delete files, you can use wildcard characters. Which wildcard characters can you use? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • ?

  • X

  • $

  • *

Explanation

Question 32 of 170

1

Why would you ever want or need to reset the domain policy and the domain controller policy to the default settings? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • If they've become corrupted

  • If someone deleted one of the policies

  • To refresh policy settings

  • As a regular part of domain maintenance and housekeeping

Explanation

Question 33 of 170

1

If you don't want a GPO to apply, which group policy permission do you apply to a user or group?

Select one of the following:

  • Disallow Apply

  • Disallow Read

  • Disallow Write

  • Disallow Modify

Explanation

Question 34 of 170

1

Which of the following is the most efficient method of using WDS on a very large network?

Select one of the following:

  • Unattended installation using bootable media

  • Bootable media using discover images

  • Unattended installation using PXE boot

  • Installation using PXE boot

Explanation

Question 35 of 170

1

What two things should you check if a particular client is having problems downloading and installing updates?

Select one of the following:

  • Local policy and update schedule

  • Group policy and update schedule

  • Local policy and the windows update log

  • Group policy and the windows update log

Explanation

Question 36 of 170

1

The event viewer is essentially what kind of tool?

Select one of the following:

  • Registry cleanup

  • Conflict resolver

  • Log viewer

  • Performance monitor

Explanation

Question 37 of 170

1

When should you increase the default quota size for the staging folder?

Select one of the following:

  • When the staging folder approaches 90% capacity

  • When bandwidth is available

  • When you have multiple large files that change frequently

  • When replication queues back up for more than two hours

Explanation

Question 38 of 170

1

What FSRM feature can you use to show the state of file server volumes, quotas, and disallowed files?

Select one of the following:

  • Storage reports

  • Storage Exceptions

  • Storage Quotas

  • Storage Assessment

Explanation

Question 39 of 170

1

Public-key cryptography uses how many keys?

Select one of the following:

  • Two

  • One

  • Two-pair

  • 256

Explanation

Question 40 of 170

1

Why are success audits as important as failure audits?

Select one of the following:

  • Successes are important to troubleshooting for establishing baselines of normal behaviour

  • Successes are included by default and can be filtered out

  • Successes can point to security breaches as well as normal behaviour

  • Successes allows you to track activity such as a new account creation

Explanation

Question 41 of 170

1

Why would you implement a caching-only DNS server on your network?

Select one of the following:

  • To speed DNS queries and decrease networking traffic

  • To avoid installing and configuring a full-blown DNS server

  • To reduce the amount of maintenance for administrators

  • To reduce complexity in a network environment

Explanation

Question 42 of 170

1

If you issue the command nslookup 192.168.1.50 and got no response, but then issue nslookup server1 and receive 192.168.1.50 ?

Select one of the following:

  • The CNAME record is incorrect

  • The PTR record doesn’t exist

  • The A record doesn’t exits

  • The SOA for the zone is malformed

Explanation

Question 43 of 170

1

What is the first thing to check when troubleshooting VPN problems?

Select one of the following:

  • Network connectivity

  • Usernames and passwords

  • DNS lookups

  • Firewall settings

Explanation

Question 44 of 170

1

Which one of the Remote Access Management interfaces gives you the most control?

Select one of the following:

  • The Run the Remote Access Setup Wizard

  • The Run the Getting Started Wizard

  • The Remote Access Management Console

  • The command line dnsmcd.exe command

Explanation

Question 45 of 170

1

What kind of RADIUS server is placed between the RADIUS server and RADIUS clients?

Select one of the following:

  • A RADIUS proxy server

  • A RADIUS engine server

  • A ARDIUS client server

  • A RADIUS relay server

Explanation

Question 46 of 170

1

RADIUS Access-Request message are processed and forwarded by NPS only if the settings of the incoming message match what on the NPS server?

Select one of the following:

  • One of the connection request policies

  • The time zone of the requestor

  • The client type of the requestor

  • The TCP/IP port of the requestor

Explanation

Question 47 of 170

1

Health policies are connected to what two policies?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Compliance policies

  • Network policies

  • Connection request policies

  • Performance policies

Explanation

Question 48 of 170

1

What type of account is an account under which operating system, process, and service runs?

Select one of the following:

  • User

  • System

  • Service

  • Network

Explanation

Question 49 of 170

1

What two things must you do to a Windows Server to convert it to a domain controller?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Install AD DS

  • Execute dcpromo from Server Manager

  • Install Server Manager

  • Install DNS

  • Install Server Manager Tools

Explanation

Question 50 of 170

1

Why can you not modify snapshots?

Select one of the following:

  • They are read-only

  • They are encrypted

  • They are compressed and zipped

  • They are binary files

Explanation

Question 51 of 170

1

By default, who has read/write capability to the Default Domain Policy?

Select one of the following:

  • Local administrators

  • Power users

  • Domain users

  • Domain administrators

Explanation

Question 52 of 170

1

GPO are processed on computer start up and after logon. Why is the user never aware of the processing?

Select one of the following:

  • Processing is hidden from the users

  • The user is too busy to be aware of to the processing

  • The processing occurs when the system is not being used

  • The user is aware of the only startup delays

Explanation

Question 53 of 170

1

What is the central Store?

Select one of the following:

  • An App store from which you can deploy GPO

  • A public share that allows users to place GPO request into a queue

  • A repository for Administrative Templates

  • An online App Store for Administrative Templates

Explanation

Question 54 of 170

1

Where do you place a discover image to ensure proper deployment?

Select one of the following:

  • In the PXE configuration parameters

  • In memory

  • On a network share

  • On bootable media

Explanation

Question 55 of 170

1

What two ways can you assign computers to groups in WSUS?

Select one of the following:

  • Client-side and Server-side targeting

  • Upstream and Downstream targeting

  • Client-side and Upstream targeting

  • Downstream and Distributed targeting

Explanation

Question 56 of 170

1

You have a centralized file server and a remote file server. You want to configure DFS replication between the two servers so that you can perform backups with the centralized file server. You started to perform DFS replication but determine that it will take weeks for the initial replication to occur. How can you speed up the initial replication?

Select one of the following:

  • Configure the replication to use full speed

  • Assign two NICs to the site server

  • Ship a disk with the files, preseed the files, clone the database from the remote file server, and import the database into the centralized file server

  • Copy the files manually from the site server to the centralized file server

Explanation

Question 57 of 170

1

Before Windows 2008 R2, only nine basic audit settings existed. Windows Server 2012 introduces a total of many audit subsettings?

Select one of the following:

  • 23

  • 53

  • 56

  • 64

Explanation

Question 58 of 170

1

Which one of the following is an example of an FQDN?

Select one of the following:

  • SERVER1

  • 192.168.50.1

  • sales.microsoft.com

  • C:\WINDOWS\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\ETC\HOSTS

Explanation

Question 59 of 170

1

A Start of Authority record specifies what kind of information about a zone?

Select one of the following:

  • A list of hosts or A names

  • A list of canonical (CNAME) records

  • The zone serial number

  • A reverse lookup record

Explanation

Question 60 of 170

1

Why are phone lines and ISDN not used today for remote access services (RAS)?

Select one of the following:

  • They no longer supply acceptable bandwidth

  • They create dedicated access

  • They’re not secure enough

  • They’re too expensive

Explanation

Question 61 of 170

1

Which one of the following operating systems may not act as a DirectAccess client?

Select one of the following:

  • Windows 7 Enterprise

  • Windows Server 2008

  • Windows Server 2008 R2

  • Windows 8

Explanation

Question 62 of 170

1

Using what feature can streamline the creation and setup of RADIUS servers?

Select one of the following:

  • build guidelines

  • documentation

  • templates

  • wizards

Explanation

Question 63 of 170

1

The default connection request policy uses NPS as what kind of server?

Select one of the following:

  • DNS

  • Active Domain controller

  • RADIUS

  • RRAS

Explanation

Question 64 of 170

1

What is the purpose of the System Health Agent (SHA)?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide feedback to the system for CPU, memory, and disk health

  • To provide feedback to the Security Health Validator (SHV)

  • To provide feedback on the status of system protection and updates

  • To provide feedback on overall critical performance to a central collector

Explanation

Question 65 of 170

1

NTLM uses a challenge-response mechanism for authentication without doing what?

Select one of the following:

  • Revealing the client’s operating system to the server

  • Revealing the protocol to the server

  • Sending a password to the server

  • Sending an encrypt/decrypt message to the server

Explanation

Question 66 of 170

1

When you add attributes to an Active Directory object, what part of the domain database are you actually changing?

Select one of the following:

  • FSMO

  • Schema

  • Directory Structure

  • Organizational Units

Explanation

Question 67 of 170

1

If a single domain controller’s AD database becomes corrupt, which types of restore should you perform on it?

Select one of the following:

  • authoritative

  • nonauthoritative

  • explicit

  • full

Explanation

Question 68 of 170

1

The default maximum password age is how long?

Select one of the following:

  • 12 days

  • 36 days

  • 42 days

  • 86 days

Explanation

Question 69 of 170

1

Which utility do you use to set up loopback policies?

Select one of the following:

  • Group Policy Management Editor

  • Server Manager

  • Active Directory Users and Groups

  • PowerShell

Explanation

Question 70 of 170

1

What is an Active Directory object stored in the Group Policy Objects container with the domain naming content of the directory that defines basic attributes of the GPO but does not contain any of the settings?

Select one of the following:

  • Group Policy Container (GPC)

  • Group Policy Template (GPT)

  • migration table

  • delegation

Explanation

Question 71 of 170

1

What object can you create to organize Registry preference items?

Select one of the following:

  • A Collection

  • A file system folder

  • A Control Panel applet

  • An OU

Explanation

Question 72 of 170

1

To convert a discover image to a bootable ISO image, what non-included component do you need to download and install?

Select one of the following:

  • Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK)

  • Windows Application Programming Interface (API)

  • Windows Public Key Infrastructure(PKI)

  • Windows Software Development Kit(SDK)

Explanation

Question 73 of 170

1

You work for an organization that has a mix of Windows 7,Windows 8, and Windows 8.1 computers. You will be using WSUS to deploy Microsoft updates to those computers. What is the number of computer groups required for the updates?

Select one of the following:

  • One

  • None

  • Two

  • Three

Explanation

Question 74 of 170

1

What can Task Manager tell you about performance?

Select one of the following:

  • That you might have a bottleneck

  • That you need to reboot the system

  • That you need a larger hard drive

  • That your system needs to be replaced

Explanation

Question 75 of 170

1

If you want to save on CPU and disk I/0 but consume more network bandwidth for replication, which DFS feature can you disable?

Select one of the following:

  • Remote differential compression (RDC)

  • Collective compression technology (CCT)

  • Shortest path replication (SPR)

  • Server-to-server replication compression (S2SRC)

Explanation

Question 76 of 170

1

What effect does using quotas in File Server Resource Manager have?

Select one of the following:

  • It limits the number of files allocated to a user

  • It limits the number of access licenses allotted to a server

  • It limits the number of drive mappings to a shared resource

  • It limits the number of gigabytes allocated to a volume or folder

Explanation

Question 77 of 170

1

An encrypted file can be converted back to its original format by a process known as what?

Select one of the following:

  • Encryption

  • Digitization

  • Decryption

  • Encapsulation

Explanation

Question 78 of 170

1

What command do you use to manage auditing at the command prompt?

Select one of the following:

  • Auditpol.exe

  • Adpolicy.exe

  • Audit.exe

  • Policy.exe

Explanation

Question 79 of 170

1

What is the first and most important step in installing and deploying DNS in your network?

Select one of the following:

  • Planning the infrastructure and service requirements

  • Setting up an AD so that DNS can be integrated into it

  • Configuring the forward and reverse lookup zones correctly

  • Splitting the network into subdomains

Explanation

Question 80 of 170

1

If you have a server named server1.blah.com, want to use it as your web server, and have requests point to www.blah.com, what kind of DNS record would you create?

Select one of the following:

  • A CNAME record

  • An A record

  • A PTR record

  • An NS record

Explanation

Question 81 of 170

1

Why would you set verify Caller ID on a remote dial-up connection for a user?

Select one of the following:

  • For enhanced security

  • Because you don’t trust the user

  • Because you want users to call in only from specific numbers

  • Because it’s the default setting

Explanation

Question 82 of 170

1

What is the best reason for deploying DirectAccess connectivity for remote users?

Select one of the following:

  • Remote users computers can be easily managed and kept up to date

  • Remote users computers connect automatically

  • Remote computers connect via encrypted links over the internet

  • Remote users can access corporate resources

Explanation

Question 83 of 170

1

What is the final step in the authentication, authorization and accounting scenario between an access client and the RADIUS server?

Select one of the following:

  • An accounting-response to the access server

  • A log entry that the connection is established

  • An access-reject message to the access server

  • A final credential check with the domain controller

Explanation

Question 84 of 170

1

To what type of file do you export an NPS configuration?

Select one of the following:

  • TXT

  • XML

  • DOC

  • NPS

Explanation

Question 85 of 170

1

What happens to a computer that isn’t running Windows Firewall?

Select one of the following:

  • The computer is isolated

  • The computer is powered off

  • A server message is sent off the computer

  • An event is logged

Explanation

Question 86 of 170

1

What are the two restrictions for adding SPNs to an account?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Domain Administrators privileges

  • Full control permissions for the folder

  • Local administrator privileges

  • The editor runs from the domain controller

Explanation

Question 87 of 170

1

Which command-line command do you use to allow Windows Server 2003 domain controllers to replicate to RODCs?

Select one of the following:

  • ADPrep /RODCPrep

  • Netdom /RODCPrep

  • Netsh /RODCPrep

  • Ntdsutil /RODCPrep

Explanation

Question 88 of 170

1

What utility first appeared in Windows Server 2008 R2 that allows you to undelete Active Directory controllers and objects?

Select one of the following:

  • The Active Directory Recycling Bin

  • The Active Directory Lost and Found Folder

  • The Active Directory Undelete utility

  • Active Directory Snapshots

Explanation

Question 89 of 170

1

How should you assign Password Settings Object(PSOs) to users?

Select one of the following:

  • Assign the PSOs to a global security group and add users to the group

  • Assign the PSOs to a new group and add the users to the new group

  • Assign the PSOs directly to individual users

  • Assign the PSOs to various Active Directory groups as needed

Explanation

Question 90 of 170

1

What is the default timeout value for GPOs to process on system startup?

Select one of the following:

  • 600 seconds

  • 300 seconds

  • 120 seconds

  • 60 seconds

Explanation

Question 91 of 170

1

Which of the following are legitimate Administrative Template Property Filters? Select all that apply?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Keyword Filters

  • Requirements Filters

  • Security Filters

  • Operating System Filters

Explanation

Question 92 of 170

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

21. To give someone permission to manage to particular GPO, you use the ( Delegation, Security, Settings, Permissions ) tab of the individual GPO?

Explanation

Question 93 of 170

1

To copy, replace, upload, or delete files, you can use wildcard characters. Which wildcard characters can you use?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ?

  • X

  • $

  • *

Explanation

Question 94 of 170

1

Which feature allows you to add driver packages to WDS and then deploy them?

Select one of the following:

  • dynamic driver provisioning

  • dynamic image provisioning

  • dynamic package provisioning

  • dynamic service provisioning

Explanation

Question 95 of 170

1

Other than the default computer group, how many other groups may a computer be assigned to in WSUS?

Select one of the following:

  • One

  • Two

  • Four

  • Sixteen

Explanation

Question 96 of 170

1

Resource Monitor is a powerful tool for understanding how your system resources are used by what two system consumers?

Select one of the following:

  • services and processes

  • handles and services

  • files and processes

  • processes and handles

Explanation

Question 97 of 170

1

Which replication topology is more efficient than the default replication topology and allows you to set bandwidth, timing, and directionality to your configuration?

Select one of the following:

  • meshless

  • hub/spoke

  • token ring

  • collective mesh

Explanation

Question 98 of 170

1

When using File System Resource Manager, which group must you be a member of to enable SMTP?

Select one of the following:

  • Administrators

  • Domain Users

  • Schema Admins

  • Power Users

Explanation

Question 99 of 170

1

Where can you view audit events?

Select one of the following:

  • In security logs in Event Viewer

  • In the C:\Temp\Logs folder as text file

  • In System logs in Event Viewer

  • By using audit /logs at the command line

Explanation

Question 100 of 170

1

What is one of the primary advantages to using Active Directory to store DNS information?

Select one of the following:

  • Fault tolerance

  • Zero configuration

  • Low maintenance

  • Reverse zone lookups

Explanation

Question 101 of 170

1

Which command do you use to verify local DNS settings?

Select one of the following:

  • ipconfig /all

  • ping localhost

  • tracert <dns_servername>

  • nslookup <dns_servername>

Explanation

Question 102 of 170

1

Of the four VPN tunneling protocols, which has the weakest encryption?

Select one of the following:

  • PPTP

  • SSTP

  • IKEv2

  • L2TP

Explanation

Question 103 of 170

1

What does the acronym ISATAP stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Intra-Site Automatic Tunneling Address Protocol

  • Industry Standard Architecture Tunnel Access Protocol

  • Industry Standard Architecture Tunnel Addressing Protocol

  • Inter-Site Automated Tunnel Addressing Protocol

Explanation

Question 104 of 170

1

Which system is the destination for Accounting-Start messages?

Select one of the following:

  • The RADIUS accounting server

  • The RADIUS relay server

  • The RADIUS proxy server

  • The RADIUS web server

Explanation

Question 105 of 170

1

Which two of the following are Routing and Remote Access IP settings?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Client May Request an IP Address

  • Server Must Supply an IP Address

  • Server Must Request an IP address

  • Client Must Supply an IP address

Explanation

Question 106 of 170

1

Which of the following is the format for a virtual account used with Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012, and Windows Server 2012 R2?

Select one of the following:

  • NT Service\servicename

  • Domainname\servicename

  • Computername\servicename

  • NT Servie\servicename$

Explanation

Question 107 of 170

1

What utility must you run on a cloned system to ensure that the clone receives its own SID?

Select one of the following:

  • sysprep

  • adprep /renew

  • dcpromo

  • ntconfig

Explanation

Question 108 of 170

1

What is a GUID?

Select one of the following:

  • A unique identifier for a snapshot

  • A special file permission

  • An Active Directory object ID

  • A group-user ID in Active Directory

Explanation

Question 109 of 170

1

By default, who has read/write capability to the Default Domain Policy?

Select one of the following:

  • Domain administrators

  • Domain users

  • Power users

  • Local administrators

Explanation

Question 110 of 170

1

The downward flow of group policies is known as what feature of GPOs?

Select one of the following:

  • Cumulative processing

  • Inherent processing

  • Inheritance

  • Control

Explanation

Question 111 of 170

1

Where is the default location for ADMX files?

Select one of the following:

  • C:\Windows\PolicyDefinitions

  • C:\Windows\Inf

  • C:\Windows\System32\XML\ADMX

  • C:\Windows\SYSVOL\ADMX

Explanation

Question 112 of 170

1

How do you stop processing a preference if an error occurs?

Select one of the following:

  • Select the Stop processing items option on the Common tab

  • Select the Remove this item option on the Common tab

  • Select the Stop on any error option in the CPP Wizard

  • Select the Stop on all errors option in the GPP Wizard

Explanation

Question 113 of 170

1

Where in a system do you configure PXE?

Select one of the following:

  • BIOS

  • Windows PE

  • Dism

  • Sysprep

Explanation

Question 114 of 170

1

What critical steps you should perform before applying patches or updates?

Select one of the following:

  • Select all critical updates for installation

  • Be sure that you have a good backup

Explanation

Question 115 of 170

1

If you install SQL Server and third-party backup service on the same system, what rule should you follow when creating service accounts?

Select one of the following:

  • Use separate accounts for both services

  • create difficult-to-guess usernames and passwords

  • add the service accounts to the local administrator groups

  • Use a single account for both services

Explanation

Question 116 of 170

1

What type of special cache folder does each replication folder use to hold files ready to be replicated?

Select one of the following:

  • Staging folder

  • Replication folder

  • Upload folder

  • Cache folder

Explanation

Question 117 of 170

1

What is the purpose of setting soft quotas?

Select one of the following:

  • To notify users when they have reached the quota limits

  • To list files that need to be deleted

  • To identify users who violate quotas

  • To determine where hard quotas need to be set

Explanation

Question 118 of 170

1

Encryption is the process of converting data into what kind of format?

Select one of the following:

  • Unreadable

  • Compiled

  • Hidden

  • Non-functional

Explanation

Question 119 of 170

1

Why should you avoid using basic audit policy settings and advanced audit policy settings together?

Select one of the following:

  • Audit policies might cause conflicts or erratic behaviour

  • Setting too many policies can put your system in an “out of compliance” state

  • The two audit settings ranges have too much redundancy or overlap between them

  • The amount of auditing will fill up event logs to quickly

Explanation

Question 120 of 170

1

A specific, individual computer or other network device in a domain is known as what?

Select one of the following:

  • Host

  • Top-level system

  • Entity

  • Server

Explanation

Question 121 of 170

1

You can use the dnscmd command to create zones. What other tasks can you perform with it?

Select one of the following:

  • Delete resource records

  • start/stop the DNS service

  • perform name service queries

  • install DNS services

Explanation

Question 122 of 170

1

You would create a RADIUS template so that you can do what with it?

Select one of the following:

  • Easily create multiple RADIUS servers from it

  • Consistently create multiple RADIUS servers from it

  • Create RADIUS servers without affecting the functionality of NPS

  • Apply it to the select servers

Explanation

Question 123 of 170

1

What is the last setting in the Routing and Remote Access IP Settings?

Select one of the following:

  • How IP addresses are assigned

  • The number of assigned IP Addresses

  • Which DHCP server will supply the requests

  • Which NPS server to connect to

Explanation

Question 124 of 170

1

What type of protocol is Kerberos?

Select one of the following:

  • A secure network authentication protocol

  • A simple Microsoft-only protocol

  • A uni-directional authentication protocol

  • A certification-based authentication protocol

Explanation

Question 125 of 170

1

What version of Windows Server introduced incremental universal group membership replication?

Select one of the following:

  • 2003

  • 2000

  • 2008

  • 2012

Explanation

Question 126 of 170

1

What is the purpose procedure for removing a domain controller from active directory?

Select one of the following:

  • Shut down the domain controller and manually remove it from AD

  • Uninstall Active Directory Domain Services

  • Use dcpromo to demote the domain controller

  • Enter the DSRM and delete Active Directory

Explanation

Question 127 of 170

1

Account Policies contain various subnets. Which one of the following are legitimate subnet of account policies. Choose all that apply?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Password Policy

  • Account Lockout Policy

  • Kerberos Policy

  • Username Policy

Explanation

Question 128 of 170

1

What is the best method of dealing with slow-link processing?

Select one of the following:

  • Changing the slow-link policy processing behaviour

  • Placing a read-only domain controller at the slow-link site

  • Disabling GPO processing for slow-link systems

  • Increasing the link bandwidth above 5000 kbps

Explanation

Question 129 of 170

1

The security template allows you to configure which of the following settings? Choose all that apply

Select one or more of the following:

  • System Services

  • Registry Permissions

  • File System Permissions

  • Registry Entries

Explanation

Question 130 of 170

1

If you don’t want a GPO to apply, which group policy permission do you apply to a group or user?

Select one of the following:

  • Disallow Apply

  • Disallow Modify

  • Disallow Write

  • Disallow Read

Explanation

Question 131 of 170

1

Windows Settings has multiple preference extensions. Identify all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Registry

  • Shortcuts

  • Folders

  • Storage

Explanation

Question 132 of 170

1

What Microsoft tool do you use to create and manage Windows setup answer files?

Select one of the following:

  • System Image Manager (SIM)

  • Deployment Image Servicing and Managing (Dism.exe)

  • System Preparation utility (Sysprep.exe)

  • Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE)

Explanation

Question 133 of 170

1

Which of the following is the proper method of starting the Windows Update service?

Select one of the following:

  • net start wuauserv

  • net start wsusrv

  • service start suauserv

  • service start wsusrv

Explanation

Question 134 of 170

1

When you set a service to start automatically with delayed start, how long is the delay?

Select one of the following:

  • Two minutes

  • One minute

  • Five minutes

  • Delayed until all other services start

Explanation

Question 135 of 170

1

What technology did Microsoft develop to combat the storage of storage-using and potentially illegal files on corporate servers?

Select one of the following:

  • File Screening

  • Windows Defender

  • Quotas

  • Windows Firewall

Explanation

Question 136 of 170

1

From a security standpoint, which BitLocker operational mode is most secure?

Select one of the following:

  • TPM + startup key

  • TPM + startup PIN

  • Startup key only

  • TPM only

Explanation

Question 137 of 170

1

Auditing is used for what purpose?

Select one of the following:

  • Recording user's actions

  • Authenticating users

  • Authorizing users

  • Assessing a user’s permissions

Explanation

Question 138 of 170

1

What type of structure does DNS have?

Select one of the following:

  • Hierarchical distributed

  • Flat distributed

  • Top-down distributed

  • Wheel-spoke distributed

Explanation

Question 139 of 170

1

What does Time to Live (TTL) mean in DNS parlance?

Select one of the following:

  • The length of time a record remains in DNS cache

  • The length of time it takes a DNS query to process

  • The length of time required to process an iterative query

  • The length of time between zone updates

Explanation

Question 140 of 170

1

DirectAccess was introduced with which workstation/server pair?

Select one of the following:

  • Windows 7/Windows Server 2008 R2

  • Windows XP/Windows Server 2003

  • Windows Vista/Windows Server 2008

  • Windows 8/Windows Server 2012

Explanation

Question 141 of 170

1

Which parameter specifies the order of importance of the RADIUS server to the NPS proxy server?

Select one of the following:

  • Priority

  • Relay link number

  • Weight

  • Precedence

Explanation

Question 142 of 170

1

To which type of file do you export an NPS configuration?

Select one of the following:

  • XML

  • TXT

  • DOC

  • NPS

Explanation

Question 143 of 170

1

Which two components must a NAP client have enabled in order to use NAP?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Security Centre

  • NAP Agent

  • Windows Update

  • DHCP client

Explanation

Question 144 of 170

1

What is the name by which a client uniquely identifies an instance of a service?

Select one of the following:

  • service principal name

  • service instance name

  • service account name

  • service provider name

Explanation

Question 145 of 170

1

Where are you most likely to see a Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?

Select one of the following:

  • In a remote site

  • In a small network instead of an enterprise

  • In an enterprise network

  • In the place of a standard domain controller

Explanation

Question 146 of 170

1

By default, how often does Active Directory “garbage collection” occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Every 12 hours

  • Every 45 mins

  • Every 2 hours

  • Every 6 hours

Explanation

Question 147 of 170

1

What is an easy method of creating a strong password?

Select one of the following:

  • Start with a sentence and then add numbers and special characters

  • As a friend for some ideas for good passwords and then add your own number and characters

  • Use your favorite football team name with numbers and special characters

  • Use your username and add numbers and special characters.

Explanation

Question 148 of 170

1

What is the primary purpose of running the Group Policy Results Wizard? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • To analyze the cumulative effect of GPOs

  • For GPO troubleshooting

  • To guarantee that GPOs are enforced in full

  • To ensure that you have administrative rights to the client computer

Explanation

Question 149 of 170

1

Which of the following are legitimate Administrative Template Property Filters? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Keyword Filters

  • Requirements Filters

  • Security Filters

  • Operating System Files

Explanation

Question 150 of 170

1

GPPs are divided into which two sections?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Windows and Control Panel

  • Applications and Control Panel

  • Applications and Registry

  • Windows and Registry

Explanation

Question 151 of 170

1

Why would you use multicasting for WDS?

Select one of the following:

  • It minimizes network traffic

  • It requires less space on the client system

  • It decrease deployment time

  • It supports IPV6 and DHCPv6

Explanation

Question 152 of 170

1

WSUS can retrieve updates directly from Microsoft or from what other sources?

Select one of the following:

  • Another WSUS server on your network

  • a secondary Microsoft Windows Update location

  • the original Windows installation media

  • a public FTP site

Explanation

Question 153 of 170

1

When troubleshooting services on your system, why might you want you want to start up in Safe mode?

Select one of the following:

  • Because the system starts only the core services

  • Because the system gives you limited rights

  • Because the system loads a minimal set of drivers

  • Because the system boots with a lower screen resolution

Explanation

Question 154 of 170

1

What is the default quota size of the conflict and deleted folder?

Select one of the following:

  • 660 MB

  • 500 MB

  • 800 MB

  • 1250(1.25 GB)

Explanation

Question 155 of 170

1

When storage space is at a premium, what should you do to ensure that everyone has enough space?

Select one of the following:

  • Set up hard quota limits with email notification

  • Set up very restricted soft quota for users with email notification

  • Set up file groups so that users can’t save very large files

  • Set up a soft quota limits with no notification

Explanation

Question 156 of 170

1

What key length is considered to be minimally strong for encryption algorithms?

Select one of the following:

  • 80

  • 56

  • 120

  • 256

Explanation

Question 157 of 170

1

By using what type of policy can you track, limit or deny a user’s ability to use removable storage devices such as a USB in Windows 2012?

Select one of the following:

  • Removable Device Access

  • Storage Device Audit

  • Removable Storage Access

  • USB Storage Access

Explanation

Question 158 of 170

1

Which TCP/UPD port does the DNS Server use to communicate?

Select one of the following:

  • 25

  • 53

  • 80

  • 443

Explanation

Question 159 of 170

1

What term is defined as private data placed in a packet with a header containing routing information that allows the data to traverse a transit network, such as the Internet?

Select one of the following:

  • Encapsulation

  • Routing

  • VPN

  • Tunneling

Explanation

Question 160 of 170

1

What utility do you use to configure DirectAccess?

Select one of the following:

  • Remote Access Management Console

  • DNS Console

  • Active Directory Console

  • DirectAccess Console

Explanation

Question 161 of 170

1

What information does the Accounting-Start message contain?

Select one of the following:

  • The type of service and the users it is delivered to

  • The RADIUS server name and IP address

  • The list of permissions granted to the user

  • The list of service provided to RADIUS access servers

Explanation

Question 162 of 170

1

What command-line utility is used to import and export NPS templates?

Select one of the following:

  • Netsh

  • Dnscmd

  • Msconfig

  • Net

Explanation

Question 163 of 170

1

Why do you need a web server as part of your NAP remediation infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide internet access to users who fail compliance

  • To provide user information in case of a compliance failure

  • To redirect user request for restored network access

  • To further access how far out of compliance a user system is

Explanation

Question 164 of 170

1

When creating accounts for operating systems, processes, and services, you should always configure them with?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Using strong passwords

  • Grand the least rights possible

  • Using cryptic user names

  • Using built-in accounts

Explanation

Question 165 of 170

1

How many global catalogs are recommended for every organization?

Select one of the following:

  • At least two

  • At least one

  • At least three

  • No fewer than four

Explanation

Question 166 of 170

1

Windows Server 2012 introduces a new time-saving feature when performing tasks such as AD defragmentation. What is that feature?

Select one of the following:

  • Restartable AD DS

  • The DSRM console

  • The ntdsutil comman0line utility

  • Active Directory Maintenance Mode

Explanation

Question 167 of 170

1

Which aspect of passwords is a key component of their strength?

Select one of the following:

  • Number of characters

  • Easy to remember

  • Dictionary basis

  • Keyboard complexity

Explanation

Question 168 of 170

1

What is an ADMX file?

Select one of the following:

  • An ADM file translator

  • The ADM format for newer operating systems

  • A template buffer

  • The protocol that deploys ADM files across networks

Explanation

Question 169 of 170

1

When you’re about to reset domain policy and domain controllers policy back to default with the dcgpofix.exe command, what final warning are you given before you accept the chance?

Select one of the following:

  • That all User Rights Assignments will be replaced

  • That you’re about to reset policies to their defaults

  • That all security for all the domain will be overwritten

  • That you’re about to restore all security to the default

Explanation

Question 170 of 170

1

Which Windows extension allows you to copy registry settings and apply them to other computers create, replace, or delete registry settings?

Select one of the following:

  • Registry

  • Applications

  • Environment

  • Files

Explanation

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