Raquel Lindsay-M
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Raquel Lindsay-M
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GROUP DYNAMICS YO

GROUP DYNAMICS YO

Question 1 of 92

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1. Which of the following is NOT one of the three essential conditions for team success as presented in the text?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Trust

  • b. Time management

  • c. Group identity

  • d. Group efficacy

Explanation

Question 2 of 92

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2. When team members are willing to rely upon each other, they have established:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Trust

  • b. Group identity

  • c. Team coordination

  • d. Task integration

Explanation

Question 3 of 92

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3. Which of the following characteristics of members is NOT related to their trustworthiness?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Competence

  • b. Benevolence

  • c. Integrity

  • d. Competitiveness

Explanation

Question 4 of 92

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4. What is the most important factor that determines whether a group will have high group efficacy for a given task?

Select one of the following:

  • a. The leader must feel the group is capable of success.

  • b. Group members must feel they have what it takes to succeed in the task.

  • c. Group members must be generally optimistic.

  • d. Members must form interpersonal bonds outside of the task group.

Explanation

Question 5 of 92

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5. As the team leader, Janice used meeting agendas and made sure each member knew what was expected of them. In addition, she created a list of all the major tasks for the project and assigned roles to each of her team members. What aspect of creating an ideal team climate best describes Janice's actions?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Shared vision

  • b. Task orientation

  • c. Open communication

  • d. Support for innovation

Explanation

Question 6 of 92

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6. Teams that are committed to the effective use of meeting time are demonstrating which of the characteristics of an ideal team climate?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Open communication

  • b. Task orientation

  • c. Shared vision

  • d. Support for innovation

Explanation

Question 7 of 92

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7. Which of the following aspects of team climate is related to participative safety?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Members feel free to participate in group discussions & decisions.

  • b. Team members are not afraid of being fired from the group

  • c. The room that the team meets is locked and secure.

  • d. The leader shares power with the team.

Explanation

Question 8 of 92

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8. Group norms such as the way meetings are run, how people perform their task roles, and how members communicate with each other are refined during the __________ stage of development.

Select one of the following:

  • a. Forming

  • b. Storming

  • c. Norming

  • d. Performing

Explanation

Question 9 of 92

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9. According to Tuckman's stages of group development, the beginning stage of a group is known as ________ and the ending stage is ________.

Select one of the following:

  • a. Forming and norming

  • b. Adjourning and storming

  • c. Norming and performing

  • d. Forming and adjourning

Explanation

Question 10 of 92

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10. Mackenzie's team is meeting after a pretty bad fight between two team members. Since then, the two team members have apologized to one another, made amends, and a few compromises have been made to adjust the team structure and reorient the team in the direction of team goals. Mackenzie's team is in the :

Select one of the following:

  • a. Norming

  • b. Storming

  • c. Forming

  • d. Performing

Explanation

Question 11 of 92

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11. Diane's team is starting to experience tension and conflict and the members are starting question her leadership. The team is most likely in which stage of group development?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Storming

  • b. Norming

  • c. Conforming

  • d. Performing

Explanation

Question 12 of 92

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12. According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the threats to effective collaboration?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Age of the members

  • b. Size of the team

  • c. Amount of diversity

  • d. Education level

Explanation

Question 13 of 92

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14. Every team needs advice from the outside on key points in the progress of a group. According to Hackman, this team needs:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Expert coaching

  • b. Effective leadership

  • c. Clear and concise chain of command

  • d. None of the above

Explanation

Question 14 of 92

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15. Teams with a task orientation:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Commit to performance standards

  • b. Have higher forms of education

  • c. Have difficulty resolving conflict

  • d. All of the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 92

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16. Collaboration can be improved by all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Creating teams out of members that have worked together before

  • b. Organizing a team retreat during the first few weeks of group development

  • c. Leaders who model collaborative behaviors and attitudes

  • d. Rewarding and coaching collaboration

Explanation

Question 16 of 92

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17. Researchers who study teams have identified two important trends that are radically changing the way people participate in teams. They are:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Facebook and education

  • b. Globalization and technology

  • c. Technology and education

  • d. Diversity and globalization

Explanation

Question 17 of 92

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18. Which of the following is true concerning roles?

Select one of the following:

  • a. A given role can change the role carrier's behavior

  • b. Roles are formally given and defined

  • c. Roles are primarily task-oriented

  • d. Roles are focused on group success

Explanation

Question 18 of 92

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19. It's almost the end of the semester and Ariel's team is putting the final touches on its project. Throughout the semester, they have shown a strong sense of team identity by wearing matching team t-shirts to each meeting, recognizing small victories, and giving each member an important role in the group. These are all demonstrations of what?

Select one of the following:

  • a. A task focused leader

  • b. Strong team coaching

  • c. A strong team culture

  • d. Weak collective efficacy

Explanation

Question 19 of 92

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20. Which of the following are NOT important in establishing a team or group culture?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Myths, folklore, or stories

  • b. Company logos and team names

  • c. Rituals and ceremonies

  • d. Roles and responsibilities

Explanation

Question 20 of 92

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21. Social Identity Theory has two major components. First, it explains how we categorize various groups of people. What is the second major component of the theory?

Select one of the following:

  • a. It explains how we become integrated into specific groups.

  • b. It explains why we experience dissonance in various groups.

  • c. It explains how we develop interpersonal skills by observing other.

  • d. It explains why some people choose not to affiliate with various groups.

Explanation

Question 21 of 92

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22. James has an overly optimistic view of his own fraternity and is very critical and demeaning towards other fraternities. What is he most likely experiencing?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Dismissive attribution

  • b. Ingroup/outgroup bias

  • c. Misallocation attributes

  • d. Ego-centric tendencies

Explanation

Question 22 of 92

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23. What is one of the negative consequences of a strong team culture that produces a lot of member cohesion?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Task confusion

  • b. Passive aggressive conflict

  • c. Groupthink

  • d. Disempowered leadership

Explanation

Question 23 of 92

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24. Ingroup/outgroup bias is a possible consequence of:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Large team sizes

  • b. Cross-functional teams

  • c. Strong team culture

  • d. Diverse teams

Explanation

Question 24 of 92

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25. Sara's study group has decided to divide up business cases and present them to each other to prepare for an upcoming exam. She wasn't able to make it to the planning meeting and doesn't have strong opinions about the best way to prepare but told her teammates that she is willing to do whatever they want her to do. Sara's level of

Select one of the following:

  • a. Committed

  • b. Compliant

  • c. Resistant

  • d. Disengaged

Explanation

Question 25 of 92

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26. What type of commitment best describes a team member who does NOT agree with most of the group's norms, roles, and decisions and voices his or her opinion often?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Compliant

  • b. Disengaged

  • c. Resistant

  • d. None of the above

Explanation

Question 26 of 92

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27. Dan and his team are creating a marketing campaign for a student organization. Some of the members are working on a video while others are designing a brochure. A third group is creating a social media webpage. All three groups work independently but have the same deadline to complete their work. What type of interdependence is taking place on this team?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Reciprocal

  • b. Pooled

  • c. Sequential

  • d. Descriptive

Explanation

Question 27 of 92

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28. Ted works at a local soup kitchen on the weekends. Each of the patrons comes in, and Ted's job is to spoon chili into each patron's bowl before they move on to one of the other volunteers to receive the rest of their meal. The soup kitchen is an example of:
a. Reciprocal interdependence

Select one of the following:

  • a. Reciprocal interdependence

  • b. Pooled interdependence

  • c. Sequential interdependence

  • d. Descriptive interdependence

Explanation

Question 28 of 92

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29. Team design begins with:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Finding a diverse set of skilled team members

  • b. Finding a problem

  • c. Reducing task complexity

  • d. Understanding a problem

Explanation

Question 29 of 92

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30. BioCorp, a local pharmaceutical company, has been losing market share and needs to create a strategic plan for growth so the CEO convened a team with directors from each department in the company to address this issue. Due to the ambiguity of the assignment, many team members did NOT understand exactly what was being asked of them. According to the textbook, which important step in the launch of a new group did NOT happen?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Delegating roles and tasks

  • b. Establishing a vision and purpose

  • c. Choosing a deviant

  • d. Executing a plan

Explanation

Question 30 of 92

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31. Which of the following is one of the five specific areas associated with participation in groups, as defined by Stevens and Campion (1999)?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Communication

  • b. Emotional Intelligence

  • c. Intrinsic Motivation

  • d. Interpersonal Skills

Explanation

Question 31 of 92

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32. All of the following increase task complexity except:

Select one of the following:

  • a. The number of alternatives available in reaching the desired outcome

  • b. Task unfamiliarity

  • c. The number of members on the team

  • d. The number of subordinate tasks to be defined and coordinated

Explanation

Question 32 of 92

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33. The ideal group size is approximately _____ members.

Select one of the following:

  • a. 4-8

  • b. 5-10

  • c. 6-12

  • d. Impossible to determine an ideal size

Explanation

Question 33 of 92

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34. Which of the following is a useful and practical strategy for a leader to use in a group's first meeting?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Introduce members instead of allowing members to introduce themselves, so that individual members will not attempt to promote themselves to the team

  • b. Recognize and discuss implicit norms

  • c. Prepare a statement to convey a shared vision

  • d. Have each member sign an agreement of commitment to the group's goals and members

Explanation

Question 34 of 92

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35. Jesse is the new hire at a consulting company in Boston. She was hired straight out of college, and is unsure of exactly what the environment of the firm is like. She has previous internships under her belt, but being in a full-time salary position just feels different. She uses her breaks to observe group interactions and ask employees about the do's and don'ts of the workplace. She is discovering group norms through:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Initial group patterns

  • b. Explicit behavior or statements

  • c. A critical event

  • d. Past group experiences

Explanation

Question 35 of 92

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36. Hackman (author discussed in textbook) argues which that which of the following group norms are absolutely necessary?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Ethical standards of behavior

  • b. Ongoing self-evaluation

  • c. Punctuality

  • d. Both a and b

Explanation

Question 36 of 92

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37. Groups often experience conflict. About 40% of the time, it stems from:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Different approaches to completing the task

  • b. A driver social style

  • c. Interpersonal problems

  • d. An avoiding conflict management style

Explanation

Question 37 of 92

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38. The keys to interpersonal success are which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Assertiveness, Emotiveness, Sociability.

  • b. Sociability, Sensitivity, Emotiveness.

  • c. Assertiveness, Cohesiveness, Sensitivity.

  • d. Assertiveness, Sociability, Sensitivity.

Explanation

Question 38 of 92

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39. Ellie likes to trade stories about the weekend with her coworkers whenever she goes on lunch break. Ellie is:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Asking

  • b. Telling

  • c. Expressive

  • d. Emotive

Explanation

Question 39 of 92

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40. According to the interpersonal complex, interpersonal success hinged on the balance of three dimensions, which are:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Assertiveness, Emotiveness, Sociability

  • b. Sociability, Emotiveness, Assertiveness

  • c. Sociability, Assertiveness, Sensibility

  • d. Emotiveness, Assertiveness, Sensibility

Explanation

Question 40 of 92

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41. Someone categorized as domineering, friendly, and oversensitive by interpersonal complex theory would be most closely classified with what social style?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Analytic

  • b. Expressive

  • c. Driver

  • d. Amiable

Explanation

Question 41 of 92

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42. Which of the following is always unhealthy for a team?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Emotional contagion

  • b. Passive leadership

  • c. conflict

  • d. None of the above

Explanation

Question 42 of 92

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43. Taylor was elected president of his pledge class and wants to increase group cohesion. Which of the following strategies will be least effective?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Have pledges interview each other to find similarities between them.

  • b. Challenge the active brothers to a friendly competition.

  • c. Make a presentation to the pledges on the benefits of Greek life.

  • d. Have regular meals together.

Explanation

Question 43 of 92

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44. Conflict is most difficult to resolve when it concerns:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Goals or purposes

  • b. Facts or data

  • c. Processes or methods

  • d. Values or beliefs

Explanation

Question 44 of 92

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45. Your team is meeting for the first time to discuss a group presentation for your philosophy class. Jeremy is frustrated because Lawrence has NOT gotten him the numbers he needs to complete his work for the week. Lawrence, on the other hand, is upset because he has had significantly more work than everyone else, and although many other tasks on dependent on his completion of his part, he wishes that the rest of the team was more willing to take on some of the work. As team leader, what style of conflict management is best to approach this situation?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Collaboration

  • b. Experimentation

  • c. Compromise

  • d. Accomodating

Explanation

Question 45 of 92

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46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five conflict management styles described by Thomas and Kilmann?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Competing

  • b. Collaborating

  • c. Avoiding

  • d. Disengaging

Explanation

Question 46 of 92

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47. The natural course of a conflict can be described as moving from:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Confrontation -> escalation -> resolution

  • b. Instigation -> escalation -> improvement

  • c. Instigation -> development -> improvement

  • d. Initiation -> confrontation -> resolution

Explanation

Question 47 of 92

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48. Effective teams seek to:

Select one of the following:

  • a. engage in affective conflict and minimize task conflict

  • b. avoid any conflict

  • c. engage in both task conflict and affective conflict

  • d. engage in task conflict and minimize affective conflict

Explanation

Question 48 of 92

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48. Effective teams seek to:

Select one of the following:

  • a. engage in affective conflict and minimize task conflict

  • b. avoid any conflict

  • c. engage in both task conflict and affective conflict

  • d. engage in task conflict and minimize affective conflict

Explanation

Question 49 of 92

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49. Which of the following is NOT an example of Barsade's four emotional states?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Cheerful Enthusiasm

  • b. Serene Warmth

  • c. Depressed Sluggishness

  • d. Irritable Frustration

Explanation

Question 50 of 92

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50. Principled negotiation involves:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Incorporating subjective opinions

  • b. Separating people from the problem

  • c. Focusing on positions, not interests

  • d. a and c

Explanation

Question 51 of 92

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51. Which of the following would be the most difficult conflict to resolve?

Select one of the following:

  • a. A disagreement over a financial calculation

  • b. A conflict over setting a deadline

  • c. A disagreement over ethical experimentation with animals

  • d. A conflict over the importance of a marketing campaign

Explanation

Question 52 of 92

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52. As a consultant, you have been assigned to a team that has failed to come together as a single unit. Which of the following could be reasonably recommended to increase team cohesion?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Early Conflict

  • b. Competition

  • c. New leadership

  • d. Reestablishment of group culture and norms

Explanation

Question 53 of 92

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53. Sam is out to dinner with his friends. He just made a big bonus at work, and treats himself with a $30 steak plate. Everyone else has a ticket of about $15, except for Tim, who is on a tight budget and pays $10 for his meal. The waiter brings only one check to the table. What is the best way for the group to split the ticket?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Power Method

  • b. Responsibility Method

  • c. Equality Method

  • d. Equity Method

Explanation

Question 54 of 92

1

54. Cherniss and Goleman (2001) conclude that the most effective team members are the ones who:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Regularly challenge group processes

  • b. Offer constructive feedback and present creative solutions

  • c. Regularly recognize and regulate emotions in themselves and others

  • d. Have an accommodating conflict style

Explanation

Question 55 of 92

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55. Primal Leadership:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Emphasizes the ability to recognize and manage emotions

  • b. Focuses on intentional leadership development

  • c. Prioritizes social maturity

  • d. All of the above

Explanation

Question 56 of 92

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56. Goldman and his associates believe that leadership can be developed by:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Knowing strengths and weaknesses

  • b. Promoting from within

  • c. Rewarding desired outcomes

  • d. Committing to being a resonant leader

Explanation

Question 57 of 92

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57. The difference between Primal and Resonant Leadership can be best described as:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Primal leadership focuses on intrinsic motivation while resonant leadership relies on extrinsic motivators

  • b. Primal leadership focuses on skilled structural managers while Resonant leadership focuses more on interpersonal skills.

  • c. Resonant leadership focuses on social awareness while Primal leadership focuses on self-awareness

  • d. Primal leadership emphasizes emotional intelligence while Resonant leadership focuses more on relationships with direct reports.

Explanation

Question 58 of 92

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58. What is the most common, ongoing challenge for leaders?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Developing clear goals

  • b. Developing and sustaining high motivation

  • c. Fostering creativity and innovation

  • d. Minimizing confusion and coordination problems

Explanation

Question 59 of 92

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59. Which of the following is not a practice of exemplary leadership according to Kouzes and Posner?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Model the way

  • b. Maximize efficiency

  • c. Challenge the process

  • d. Encourage the heart

Explanation

Question 60 of 92

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60. David was selected to become a member of a five person team because of his knowledge and experience with three dimensional computer modeling. When he is not present, the group is unable to discuss the technical aspects of their project. Which of the five bases of power does David hold?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Coercive Power

  • b. Legitimate Power

  • c. Expert Power

  • d. Referent Power

Explanation

Question 61 of 92

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61. According to the situational leadership model, the best leaders move from:

Select one of the following:

  • a. delegation to supportive to coaching to directive

  • b. coaching to directive to supportive to delegation

  • c. supportive to coaching to directive to delegation

  • d. directive to coaching to supportive to delegation

Explanation

Question 62 of 92

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62. Olivia believes that management is often about the little things. One of the little things she does at every team meeting is that she asks everyone individually, "How was your weekend?" "What are you looking forward to this week?" and "What is one way that I or the team can make this week less burdensome?" In doing so, Olivia is:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Inspiring a shared vision

  • b. Encouraging the heart

  • c. Enabling others to act

  • d. Modeling the way

Explanation

Question 63 of 92

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63. Kouzes and Posner (2007) concluded from survey on leadership that the most admired trait of a leader is:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Forward-Looking

  • b. Honesty

  • c. Competency

  • d. Inspiration

Explanation

Question 64 of 92

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64. Anna is a part of a self-managed team at a small software company in Seattle. She is well-liked, charismatic, and generally she if the go-to if anyone has a problem regarding product development. Anna could be best described as having:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Expert Power

  • b. Referent Power

  • c. Legitimate Power

  • d. Both a and b

Explanation

Question 65 of 92

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65. Kelsey has just been promoted to Senior Manager of Marketing for the Atlanta branch of a successful retail company. Her newly acquired position could be best described as:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Expert Power

  • b. Referent Power

  • c. Reward Power

  • d. Legitimate Power

Explanation

Question 66 of 92

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66. Al works in a wealth management firm in Boston. He has a really good idea to pitch to his boss. He knows that the boss really values Jeff's input, so if he can get Jeff to support his pitch, there is a good chance the boss will go through with the idea. This is an example of which influence tactic?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Consultation

  • b. Legitimating

  • c. Personal Appeal

  • d. Coalition

Explanation

Question 67 of 92

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67. In the study conducted by Falbe and Yukl (1992), managers found which influence tactic to be most successful?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Personal Appeal

  • b. Legitimating

  • c. Inspirational Appeal

  • d. Collaboration

Explanation

Question 68 of 92

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68. Dan takes his boss out for a round on him after work. At the bar, Dan brings up how hard he has worked the past six months and respectfully asks the boss about the possibility of a promotion. The following scenario is an example of which of the following influence tactics?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Pressure

  • b. Ingratiation

  • c. Apprising

  • d. Inspirational Appeal

Explanation

Question 69 of 92

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69. Elliot is participating in a brainstorming session for a new ad campaign. Last year, Elliot's idea was the contribution that became the new campaign. In what ways has Elliot's contribution to the group affected his persuasive power in the group?

Select one of the following:

  • a. He has provided evidence of his capabilities through past performance.

  • b. He has established credibility by being active and productive in group meetings.

  • c. He has demonstrated intellectual competence through a previous contribution to the group.

  • d. Both b and c

Explanation

Question 70 of 92

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70. According to Conger (1998), which of the following is NOT one of the four components of successful persuasion

Select one of the following:

  • a. finding common ground

  • b. making an emotional connection

  • c. providing evidence

  • d. being the deviant

Explanation

Question 71 of 92

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71. Which of the following is not a means of making meetings more effective, as identified by Whetton and Cameron (2007)?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Providing incentives for meeting participation and performance

  • b. Keeping attendance

  • c. Having an explicit purpose to the meeting

  • d. Begin the meeting with introductions to create a comfortable setting and encourage participation

Explanation

Question 72 of 92

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72. Which of the following is true about transformational leadership?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Transformational leaders chiefly use referent legitimate power to lead

  • b. Transformational leaders use inspirational and rational appeal as their chief influence tactics

  • c. Transformation leaders rely on structure, accountability, and reward systems to get work done

  • d. Transformational leaders usually prefer team or group members to volunteer for tasks

Explanation

Question 73 of 92

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73. Gary asks Macy how her weekend was. Macy responds by saying, "Fine. I was able to rest adequately and now I am prepared for another productive week." Macy has just made a:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Counterdependency statement

  • b. Counterpairing statement

  • c. Flight statement

  • d. Robotic statement

Explanation

Question 74 of 92

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74. Sally attempts to delegate work to Travis for a group project in their class on organizational theory, but Travis says, "I am coming off a really hard week, and if someone else can do it, then I need some time off." Travis has just made a:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Pairing statement

  • b. Unscorable statement

  • c. Dependency statement

  • d. Flight Statement

Explanation

Question 75 of 92

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75. Alice just finished her first day on the job, and Cindy, the woman in the cubicle next to her says, "Some of us are going to try a new Thai place on Main street if you want to come!" Cindy's statement is an example of a:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Flight statement

  • b. Fashion statement

  • c. Dependency statement

  • d. Pairing statement

Explanation

Question 76 of 92

1

76. Which of the following nonverbal cues could be used to interject a comment?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Leaning forward

  • b. Clearing the throat

  • c. Making direct eye contact

  • d. All of the above

Explanation

Question 77 of 92

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77. Pertaining to the Group Development Observation System, which of the following is not true about teams?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Although a statement could be placed in multiple categories, statements made by a team member can be classified as one of eight statement 95% of the time

  • b. Pairing statements remain relatively stable throughout the life of a team

  • c. Early groups commonly make use of fight, flight, and counterdependency statements

  • d. Established groups use twice as many task-related statements, compared to newly formed groups

Explanation

Question 78 of 92

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78. Which of the following is NOT an Identity Marker as stated by Polzer (2003)?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Physical gestures

  • b. Physical appearance

  • c. Body posture

  • d. Demeanor

Explanation

Question 79 of 92

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79. Identity markers are primarily driven by the motive for____

Select one of the following:

  • a. Power

  • b. Self-enhancement

  • c. Relationships

  • d. Self-esteem

Explanation

Question 80 of 92

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80. As a listener, when asked a leading question, the best response is to:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Politely ask the questioner to rephrase the question

  • b. Rephrase the question yourself to make the question more open-ended

  • c. Begin your response with a brief overview to soften the question before answering

  • d. Divert the conversation by asking the questioner if he can talk privately later

Explanation

Question 81 of 92

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81. Rachel knows that Alex has had a hard day. When Alex comes in to talk, Rachel sits facing Alex and occasionally nods to show interest. She sits back with her arms and legs crossed to reflect a relaxed posture. She does her best to maintain eye contact, but occasionally looks away to not make Alex feel uncomfortable. What should Rachel do to improve her active listening?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Maintain constant eye contact with Alex to demonstrate focus and

  • b. Lean forward to increase engagement

  • c. Uncross her arms and legs to open her posture

  • d. Both b and c

Explanation

Question 82 of 92

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82. What is an example of an identity marker?

Select one of the following:

  • a. A loud voice

  • b. A tailored suit

  • c. Reference to past accomplishments

  • d. All of the above

Explanation

Question 83 of 92

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83. Dominic sees Harry walking out of their boss' office with a dejected face. He brings Harry over to his desk to talk. As Harry begins, to talk what can Dominic do to best show Harry that he is listening?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Sit back in his chair to create a relaxed environment

  • b. Maintain eye contact with Harry to demonstrate attentiveness

  • c. Fill silence to keep Harry talking

  • d. Both a and b

Explanation

Question 84 of 92

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84. Which of the following is true concerning forced-choice questions and leading questions?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Forced-choice question are manipulative, while leading questions are more conducive to active listening.

  • b. Force-choice questions and leading questions should both be avoided in place of open questions.

  • c. Force-choice questions effectively limit options to help a respondent make a choice while leading questions are often accusatory and inflammatory.

  • d. Both a and b

Explanation

Question 85 of 92

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85. Randy is having difficulty with one of his employees, Albert, who is constantly late on deadlines, forcing others to pick up his slack. Other members of his team are beginning to notice, and Randy decides he needs to confront Albert before the issue becomes a major source of division among the team. What is the best statement Randy could make?

Select one of the following:

  • a. "Albert, I am concerned that other people are noticing your lack of performance."

  • b. "Albert, you are putting a burden on this team with your lack of motivation."

  • c. "I am frustrated by your inability to meet deadlines, and I am asking you on behalf of the team to step up."

  • d. "I've noticed that you have missed some deadlines this quarter."

Explanation

Question 86 of 92

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86. Intel is organizing a group to work on a new chip processor that can be put in home appliances to alert consumers of potential problems in the machine. The group spans 18 members from America, Canada, France, Japan, and India, and the project is estimated to cost approximately $30 million dollars for the initial design and testing process alone. The group should adopt what kind of group structure?

Select one of the following:

  • a. A centralized structure to ensure a clear chain of command and concise communication

  • b. A centralized structure to bridge diverse people and integrate isolated processes

  • c. A decentralized structure to accommodate a more complex task that requires adaptation and innovation

  • d. A decentralized structure to direct discussion and coordinate efforts across diverse people

Explanation

Question 87 of 92

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87. Of the following, which is not a characteristic of virtual teams?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Efficiency of communication

  • b. Development of intellectual capital

  • c. Greater productivity in team meetings

  • d. Easier scheduling and attendance

Explanation

Question 88 of 92

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88. Which of the following is true with respect to virtual teams and face-to-face teams?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Trust is more easily gained in virtual teams

  • b. Virtual teams are more diverse

  • c. Face to face teams have more difficulty developing shared vision

  • d. Face-to-face teams are not as efficient

Explanation

Question 89 of 92

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89. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a virtual team?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Efficient communication

  • b. Development of intellectual capital

  • c. Maximized outcomes from skilled and diverse team members

  • d. Lack of departmental competition breeds trust

Explanation

Question 90 of 92

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90. Virtual teams:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Allow problems to be identified more quickly than in F2F meetings

  • b. Find it easier to trust one another when members are not in departmental competition

  • c. Are a financial burden with the amount of technology required to connect members

  • d. Amplify dysfunction and dilute leadership

Explanation

Question 91 of 92

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91. Ted and Bailey are in a debate concerning what the best strategy would be to advertise for their team'a fundraiser. If Drew wanted to intervene, how could he bring the two to a mutual understanding?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Engaged posture

  • b. Probing questions

  • c. Paraphrasing

  • d. All of the above

Explanation

Question 92 of 92

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92. A large multinational corporation wanted to look into how to best reduce its carbon footprint. A team was assembled with some of the best minds in the company from the United Kingdom, Italy, Japan, the United States, and Brazil. Even though they never met face to face, the team had a solid plan that would reduce carbon emissions by 20% within a month. What was the primary reason this virtual team was so successful?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Being able to fully understand each other's views

  • b. Having a lack of formal leadership

  • c. Having the best group composition possible

  • d. Being able to see important nonverbal cues

Explanation

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