Kegen Sullivan
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

1st and 2nd quiz with 1 previous given test

330
0
0
Kegen Sullivan
Created by Kegen Sullivan almost 9 years ago
Close

BIO 210 Test 1 Review

Question 1 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT a part of the study of anatomy?

Select one of the following:

  • Microscopic organization

  • The structure of body parts

  • Predicting the body's responses to stimuli

  • The relationship between structure and function

Explanation

Question 2 of 116

1

The study of the processes and functions of living things is

Select one of the following:

  • Histology

  • Physiology

  • Imaging

  • Anatomy

Explanation

Question 3 of 116

1

A group of similar cells and the surrounding materials that work together to perform a specific function are

Select one of the following:

  • Organelles

  • Tissues

  • Molecules

  • Organs

Explanation

Question 4 of 116

1

List the levels of organization of the body from simple to complex.
1. organ system 2. chemical 3. organism 4.tissue 5. organ 6.cell

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2,3,4,5,6

  • 2,4,6,1,3,5

  • 6,2,1,5,3,4

  • 2,6,4,5,1,3

Explanation

Question 5 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT true of a negative-feedback mechanism?

Select one of the following:

  • The change from the set point is made smaller

  • Most control mechanisms in the body are of this type

  • The deviation from normal is made larger

  • Blood pressure maintenance is an example of negative-feedback

Explanation

Question 6 of 116

1

Which of the following is an example of positive-feedback?

Select one of the following:

  • Heart rate regulation

  • Birth of a baby

  • Blood pressure regulation

  • Temperature regulation

Explanation

Question 7 of 116

1

Which body system produces blood cells?

Select one of the following:

  • Lymphatic

  • Skeletal

  • Muscular

  • Cardiovascular

Explanation

Question 8 of 116

1

Which body system and it's organs are INCORRECTLY matched?

Select one of the following:

  • Reproductive- ovaries, testes, urterus

  • Endocrine- mouth, lungs, pituitary

  • Digestive- mouth, stomach, intestines

  • Lymphatic - thymus, vessels, nodes

Explanation

Question 9 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT true of anatomical position?

Select one of the following:

  • Arms at sides

  • Palms of the hands facing medially

  • Face forward

  • Standing erect

Explanation

Question 10 of 116

1

The ears are _________ to the nose.

Select one of the following:

  • Proximal

  • Medial

  • Lateral

  • Ventral

Explanation

Question 11 of 116

1

The hand is _______ to the elbow.

Select one of the following:

  • Anterior

  • Proximal

  • Distal

  • Superficial

Explanation

Question 12 of 116

1

The kidneys are __________ to the intestines.

Select one of the following:

  • Ventral

  • Dorsal

  • Posterior

  • Both dorsal and posterior are correct

Explanation

Question 13 of 116

1

The knee is ________ to the foot.

Select one of the following:

  • Distal

  • Proximal

  • Anterior

  • Superficial

Explanation

Question 14 of 116

1

The plane that separates a body structure to give right and left parts is a

Select one of the following:

  • Frontal plane

  • Horizontal plane

  • Sagittal plane

  • Coronal plane

Explanation

Question 15 of 116

1

Which plane divides the body or part into anterior and posterior parts?

Select one of the following:

  • Median Plane

  • Sagittal Plane

  • Frontal Plane

  • Transverse Plane

Explanation

Question 16 of 116

1

Which plane would be used to give equal right and left halves.

Select one of the following:

  • Transverse plane

  • Frontal plane

  • Median plane

  • Sagittal plane

Explanation

Question 17 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT a trunk cavity?

Select one of the following:

  • Thoracic

  • Nasal

  • Abdominal

  • Pelvic

Explanation

Question 18 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT found in the thoracic cavity?

Select one of the following:

  • Lungs

  • Urinary bladder

  • Thymus

  • Trachea

Explanation

Question 19 of 116

1

What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

Select one of the following:

  • The rib cage

  • The diaphragm

  • The mediastinum

  • The abdominal muscles

Explanation

Question 20 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT found in the abdominal cavity?

Select one of the following:

  • Stomach

  • Liver

  • Urinary Bladder

  • Pancreas

Explanation

Question 21 of 116

1

Which membrane covers the lungs?

Select one of the following:

  • Parietal pleura

  • Parietal pericardium

  • Visceral pleura

  • Visceral peritoneum

Explanation

Question 22 of 116

1

Which membrane lines the abdominal cavity wall?

Select one of the following:

  • Visceral peritoneum

  • Visceral pericardium

  • Parietal pleura

  • Parietal peritoneum

Explanation

Question 23 of 116

1

What is the purpose of serous fluid?

Select one of the following:

  • Moisturize the mouth

  • Reduce friction between organs

  • Protect the brain

  • All of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 24 of 116

1

Inflammation of the membrane of the heart is

Select one of the following:

  • peritonitis

  • pericarditis

  • pleurisy

  • pleuritis

Explanation

Question 25 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?

Select one of the following:

  • water

  • air

  • heat

  • A brick

Explanation

Question 26 of 116

1

Which of the following particles is NOT found in the nucleus of an atom?

Select one of the following:

  • Neutron

  • Electron

  • Proton

  • All of the choices are found in the nucleus of an atom

Explanation

Question 27 of 116

1

Which subatomic particle is positively charged?

Select one of the following:

  • Proton

  • Neutron

  • Electron

  • Protons and electrons

Explanation

Question 28 of 116

1

By definition, the atomic number is equal to the number of ______ an atom has.

Select one of the following:

  • Neutrons

  • Positrons

  • Electrons

  • Protons

Explanation

Question 29 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT true about isotopes?

Select one of the following:

  • Isotopes are two or more forms of the same element

  • Isotopes have different atomic numbers

  • Isotopes have different mass numbers

  • Some isotopes are radioactive

Explanation

Question 30 of 116

1

A particle formed from the gain of electrons is called a(an)

Select one of the following:

  • Cation

  • Anion

  • Isotope

  • Molecule

Explanation

Question 31 of 116

1

An ionic bond is formed by the

Select one of the following:

  • Sharing of electrons between two atoms

  • Gain of electrons from two atoms

  • Loss of electrons from two atoms

  • Attraction between cations and anions

Explanation

Question 32 of 116

1

When electron pairs are unequally shared between two atoms, what type of bond is formed?

Select one of the following:

  • Hydrogen bond

  • Polar covalent bond

  • Nonpolar covalent bond

  • Ionic bond

Explanation

Question 33 of 116

1

Two or more different atoms that are chemically combined form a(an)

Select one of the following:

  • Mixture

  • Molecule

  • Compound

  • Ion

Explanation

Question 34 of 116

1

What type of reaction occurs when water is added to break down a large reactant into smaller products?

Select one of the following:

  • Reversible

  • Synthesis

  • Dehydration

  • Hydrolysis

Explanation

Question 35 of 116

1

A substance that will accept a proton is a(an)

Select one of the following:

  • Catalyst

  • Salt

  • Acid

  • Base

Explanation

Question 36 of 116

1

As the hydrogen ion concentration increases, the pH

Select one of the following:

  • Increases

  • Decreases

  • Remains the same

Explanation

Question 37 of 116

1

What is the normal pH range for human blood?

Select one of the following:

  • 7.0

  • 4.0 to 7.0

  • 7.35 to 7.45

  • 6.8 to 8.0

Explanation

Question 38 of 116

1

What is the function of oxygen in living cells?

Select one of the following:

  • To transport nutrients in the blood

  • A medium for chemical reactions

  • To maintain the pH of the blood

  • To take energy from the food we eat to make ATP

Explanation

Question 39 of 116

1

The building blocks of proteins are

Select one of the following:

  • Fatty acids

  • Linolenic acids

  • Amino acids

  • Nucleic acids

Explanation

Question 40 of 116

1

The folding or bending of the polypeptide chain into an alpha-helix or beta-pleated sheet held by hydrogen bonds is the ______ structure of a protein.

Select one of the following:

  • Primary

  • Secondary

  • Tertiary

  • Quaternary

Explanation

Question 41 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT true about DNA?

Select one of the following:

  • Is a double helix

  • Has the bases adenine, guanine, uracil and thymine

  • Two bases join to form the "rungs" of the double helix

  • Has the sugar deoxyribose

Explanation

Question 42 of 116

1

The sequence of organic bases in DNA that codes for a protein is call a(an)

Select one of the following:

  • Gene

  • Enzyme

  • Polypeptide

  • Dipeptide

Explanation

Question 43 of 116

1

Anything that occupies space and has mass is called

Select one of the following:

  • Matter

  • Atomic

  • Weight

  • Volume

Explanation

Question 44 of 116

1

The simplest type of matter with unique physical and chemical properties is a(an)?

Select one of the following:

  • Compound

  • Element

  • Proton

  • Molecule

Explanation

Question 45 of 116

1

Which subatomic particle is negatively charged?

Select one of the following:

  • Neutron

  • Electron

  • Proton

  • Protons and electrons

Explanation

Question 46 of 116

1

An atom that has more protons than electrons is call a(an)?

Select one of the following:

  • Cation

  • Anion

  • Isotope

  • Molecule

Explanation

Question 47 of 116

1

In a covalent bond, electrons are

Select one of the following:

  • Gained from two atoms

  • Transferred between two atoms

  • Lost from two atoms

  • Shared between two atoms

Explanation

Question 48 of 116

1

Compounds that have the ability to conducts an electric current in solution are called

Select one of the following:

  • Electrolytes

  • nonelectrolytes

  • Isotopes

  • Molecules

Explanation

Question 49 of 116

1

What type of reactions occurs when water is removed to add reactants together?

Select one of the following:

  • Hydrolysis

  • Reversible

  • Dehydration

  • Decomposition

Explanation

Question 50 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT a structural component of the nucleus:

Select one of the following:

  • nucleolus

  • Golgi apparatus

  • chromatin

Explanation

Question 51 of 116

1

Which of the following is NOT considered a cytoplasmic organelle:

Select one of the following:

  • mitochondria

  • Golgi apparatus

  • cytoplasm

  • rough endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

Question 52 of 116

1

Ribosomes are found:

Select one of the following:

  • in the cytoplasm

  • in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum

  • on the rough endoplasmic reticulum

  • on smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

Question 53 of 116

1

The movement of molecules through the cell membrane from a high concentrated area to a lower concentrated area is called:

Select one of the following:

  • filtration

  • diffusion

  • osmosis

  • active transport

Explanation

Question 54 of 116

1

Osmosis transports water across membranes using:

Select one of the following:

  • vesicles

  • ATP

  • solute pumping

  • aquaporins

Explanation

Question 55 of 116

1

What assists the movement of substances by facilitated diffusion:

Select one of the following:

  • lysosomes

  • ATP

  • aquaporins

  • protein carrier or channel

Explanation

Question 56 of 116

1

Which of the following can move molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration:

Select one of the following:

  • simple diffusion

  • active transport

  • osmosis

  • facilitated diffusion

Explanation

Question 57 of 116

1

Two types of endocytosis are:

Select one of the following:

  • pinocytosis and passive transport

  • active transport and phagocytosis

  • phagocytosis and pinocytosis

  • cellular secretion and solute pumping

Explanation

Question 58 of 116

1

A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is:

Select one of the following:

  • hypotonic

  • hypertonic

  • isotonic

Explanation

Question 59 of 116

1

A cell would plump with water and possibly lyse in which of the following solutions:

Select one of the following:

  • isotonic

  • hypotonic

  • hypertonic

Explanation

Question 60 of 116

1

The molecule that carries an amino acid to the ribosome for incorporation into a protein is:

Select one of the following:

  • messenger RNA (mRNA)

  • ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

  • transfer RNA (tRNA)

Explanation

Question 61 of 116

1

The correct order of phases of the mitosis is:

Select one of the following:

  • prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

  • prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase

  • metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase

  • prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Explanation

Question 62 of 116

1

The process of transcription:

Select one of the following:

  • produces ATP from glucose and oxygen

  • transfers information from DNA into mRNA

  • occurs in the cytoplasm of one cell

  • creates proteins from mRNA

Explanation

Question 63 of 116

1

Sequences of three bases found in messenger RNA (mRNA) are called:

Select one of the following:

  • amino acids

  • codons

  • anticodons

Explanation

Question 64 of 116

1

The molecule that contains an anticodon is:

Select one of the following:

  • ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

  • transfer RNA (tRNA)

  • messenger RNA (mRNA)

Explanation

Question 65 of 116

1

Which of the following does NOT represent a segment of DNA:

Select one of the following:

  • TGCGTT

  • AUGUCA

  • CTGTGG

  • ATGCTA

Explanation

Question 66 of 116

1

DNA replication takes place during:

Select one of the following:

  • prophase

  • metaphase

  • anaphase

  • interphase

Explanation

Question 67 of 116

1

What are the correct base-pairing rules for DNA:

Select one of the following:

  • adenine bonds to thymine and guanine bonds to cytosine

  • adenine bonds to guanine and thymine bonds to cytosine

  • adenine bonds to cytosine and thymine bonds to guanine

  • adenine bonds to uracil and guanine bonds to cytosine

Explanation

Question 68 of 116

1

If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA is CTA-CGA, the sequence of bases on its complementary DNA strand would be:

Select one of the following:

  • CAT-CGT

  • GAT-GCT

  • CAU-CGU

  • GAU-GCU

Explanation

Question 69 of 116

1

A study of the function of the body and body parts is called:

Select one of the following:

  • anatomy

  • physiology

  • homeostasis

  • negative feedback

Explanation

Question 70 of 116

1

Which of the following activities does NOT represent an anatomical study:

Select one of the following:

  • observing the parts of a reproducing cell

  • examining the surface of a bone

  • viewing muscle tissue through a microscope

  • studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

Explanation

Question 71 of 116

1

Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body:

Select one of the following:

  • chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

  • chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organismal level

  • cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

  • cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

Explanation

Question 72 of 116

1

The bulding blocks of ALL matter are known as:

Select one of the following:

  • organs

  • atoms

  • cells

  • tissues

Explanation

Question 73 of 116

1

Hematopoiesis, or blood cell formation, is a function of the:

Select one of the following:

  • skeletal system

  • muscular system

  • nervous system

  • respiratory system

Explanation

Question 74 of 116

1

The main function of the respiratory system is:

Select one of the following:

  • produce sperm and eggs

  • supply the body with oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

  • transport oxygen, nutrients, and wastes to and from body cells and tissues

  • control body activities through hormones released into the blood

Explanation

Question 75 of 116

1

The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the:

Select one of the following:

  • integumentary system

  • skeletal system

  • nervous system

  • endocrine system

Explanation

Question 76 of 116

1

The muscular system consists of the:

Select one of the following:

  • skeletal muscles

  • muscles of the heart

  • muscles in the walls of hollow organs

  • skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart

Explanation

Question 77 of 116

1

Which two organ systems include the pancreas?

Select one of the following:

  • digestive and respiratory systems

  • urinary and respiratory systems

  • digestive and endocrine systems

  • reproductive and endocrine

Explanation

Question 78 of 116

1

Which system covers the external surface of the body and protects deeper tissues:

Select one of the following:

  • lymphatic system

  • endocrine system

  • nervous system

  • integumentary system

Explanation

Question 79 of 116

1

What is the major function of the urinary system:

Select one of the following:

  • produce offspring

  • eliminate nitrogen-containing metabolic wastes from the body

  • return leaked fluids back to the cardiovascular system

  • break down food into absorbable units

Explanation

Question 80 of 116

1

Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system:

Select one of the following:

  • stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

  • receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

  • effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response

  • stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector response

Explanation

Question 81 of 116

1

Which of the following elements of a control system interprets a change:

Select one of the following:

  • control center

  • simulus

  • effector

  • receptor

Explanation

Question 82 of 116

1

Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans):

Select one of the following:

  • superior and caudal

  • inferior and cranial

  • anterior and dorsal

  • anterior and ventral

Explanation

Question 83 of 116

1

Mandy pulled a muscle in the femoral region. Where is this region:

Select one of the following:

  • groin

  • buttock

  • leg

  • thigh

Explanation

Question 84 of 116

1

In describing the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions:

Select one of the following:

  • the patellar region is superior to the popliteal region

  • the patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region

  • the patellar region is distal to the popliteal region

  • the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region

Explanation

Question 85 of 116

1

The gallbladder and appendix are situated in the __________ body cavity.

Select one of the following:

  • dorsal

  • spinal

  • thoracic

  • abdominopelvic

Explanation

Question 86 of 116

1

Which of these body regions is located on the anterior side of the body:

Select one of the following:

  • lumbar

  • gluteal

  • popliteal

  • sternal

Explanation

Question 87 of 116

1

The region that refers to the fingers and toes is the:

Select one of the following:

  • carpal region

  • digital region

  • antebrachial region

  • brachial region

Explanation

Question 88 of 116

1

The dorsal body cavity houses the:

Select one of the following:

  • urinary and reproductive organs

  • heart and lungs

  • digestive and reproductive organs

  • spinal cord and brain

Explanation

Question 89 of 116

1

Which of these regions are associated with the parts of the arm:

Select one of the following:

  • femoral, popliteal, patellar

  • brachial, antecubital, carpal

  • nasal, oral, occipital

  • acromial, sacral, gluteal

Explanation

Question 90 of 116

1

Which of these regions is NOT associated with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head:

Select one of the following:

  • oral

  • occipital

  • buccal

  • orbital

Explanation

Question 91 of 116

1

Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the spinal cavity:

Select one of the following:

  • sagittal

  • oblique

  • coronal

  • transverse

Explanation

Question 92 of 116

1

Which set of regions in the abdominopelvic cavity is medial:

Select one of the following:

  • umbilical, right lumbar, and left lumbar regions

  • epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions

  • iliac (inguinal), lumbar, and hypogastric regions

  • epigastric, right, and left hypochondriac regions

Explanation

Question 93 of 116

1

The ribs are located in the:

Select one of the following:

  • right and left iliac regions

  • right and left lumbar regions

  • right and left pubic regions

  • right and left hypochondriac regions

Explanation

Question 94 of 116

1

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the stomach:

Select one of the following:

  • the stomach is located in the left upper quadrant

  • the stomach is located in the right upper quadrant

  • the stomach is located medially

  • the stomach is located in the left lower quadrant

Explanation

Question 95 of 116

1

An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 12 electrons is a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • molecule

  • anion

  • cation

  • isotope

Explanation

Question 96 of 116

1

Which of the following is classified as an inorganic compound:

Select one of the following:

  • glucose

  • triglyceride

  • water

  • protein

Explanation

Question 97 of 116

1

An atom with an atomic number of 14 will have __________ electrons in its valence shell.

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 4

  • 8

  • 10

Explanation

Question 98 of 116

1

An atom with 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons shares four pairs of electrons with four other atoms. This atom is now considered to be:

Select one of the following:

  • stable

  • an anion

  • a cation

  • an ion

Explanation

Question 99 of 116

1

If an atom has 10 protons, 8 neutrons, and 10 electrons. Which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Needs to gain an electron

  • The atom is electrically neutral

  • The atom is inert

  • The atom is stable

Explanation

Question 100 of 116

1

Isotopes have different numbers of _________; thus they also have different__________.

Select one of the following:

  • protons; atomic numbers

  • neutrons; atomic masses

  • neutrons; atomic numbers

  • protons; atomic masses

Explanation

Question 101 of 116

1

An atom that has lost two electrons is called a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • radioisotope

  • isotope

  • anion

  • cation

Explanation

Question 102 of 116

1

The subatomic particles that are responsible for chemical bonds of atoms are the:

Select one of the following:

  • isotopes

  • protons

  • neutrons

  • electrons

Explanation

Question 103 of 116

1

When a pair of electrons is shared equally between two atoms, the bond formed is called a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • ionic bond

  • hydrogen bond

  • nonpolar covalent bond

  • polar covalent bond

Explanation

Question 104 of 116

1

The reaction sucrose + water ----> glucose + fructose is an example of a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • synthesis reaction

  • decomposition reaction

  • neutralization reaction

  • double replacement reaction

Explanation

Question 105 of 116

1

Monomers are joined together to form more complex molecules through:

Select one of the following:

  • synthesis reactions

  • exchange reactions

  • decomposition reactions

  • hydrolysis reactions

Explanation

Question 106 of 116

1

Which of the following solutions is the weakest acid:

Select one of the following:

  • a solution with a pH of 2.4

  • a solution with a pH of 5.2

  • a solution with a pH of 6.4

  • a solution with a pH of 8.6

Explanation

Question 107 of 116

1

Which of the following DNA base pairs is NOT complementary:

Select one of the following:

  • adenine and thymine

  • guanine and adenine

  • cytosine and guanine

Explanation

Question 108 of 116

1

Which of the following statements about enzymes is true:

Select one of the following:

  • they are carbohydrates

  • they are not reuseable

  • they are biological catalysts

Explanation

Question 109 of 116

1

Which of the following substances below is matched with its correct organic group:

Select one of the following:

  • monosaccharides - nucleic acids

  • DNA - lipids

  • enzymes - proteins

Explanation

Question 110 of 116

1

Which of the following statements about RNA is true:

Select one of the following:

  • RNA is found only in the nucleus of the cell

  • RNA is composed of cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine

  • RNA is single stranded

Explanation

Question 111 of 116

1

The nucleotide chains of DNA are held together by:

Select one of the following:

  • ionic bonds

  • hydrogen bonds

  • nonpolar covalent bonds

Explanation

Question 112 of 116

1

____________ are simple sugars containing between 3 and 7 carbon atoms.

Select one of the following:

  • Polysaccharides

  • Proteins

  • Monosaccharides

Explanation

Question 113 of 116

1

Shell 1 of an atom can hold a maximum of ________ electron(s).

Select one of the following:

  • 8

  • 2

  • 4

Explanation

Question 114 of 116

1

The sugar found in DNA is:

Select one of the following:

  • ribose

  • sucrose

  • deoxyribose

Explanation

Question 115 of 116

1

Which of these substances is an enzyme:

Select one of the following:

  • glucose

  • oxidase

  • triglyceride

Explanation

Question 116 of 116

1

Which one of the following is NOT true about the plasma membrane:

Select one of the following:

  • it contains proteins for specialized functions

  • it consists of single phospholipid layer

  • its lipid componenets are primarily phospholipids and cholesterol

Explanation

Previous
Check answer
Next