Final Exam (Objective): CH 1-9

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You have 30 minutes to complete the 90 questions in this quiz.

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Question 1 of 90

Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

Select one of the following:

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

Select one or more of the following:

port ID
IP address
extended system ID
MAC address
bridge priority
cost

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

failover capabilities
collapsed core
redundant power supplies
failure domains
services module

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

Select one of the following:

the use of a collapsed core design
the use of the building switch block approach
the installation of redundant power supplies
the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Select one of the following:

Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

increased flexibility
decreased number of critical points of failure
reduced costs
increased bandwidth availability
increased network management options

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

Select one of the following:

to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

Select one of the following:

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
They are best used as distribution layer switches.
They are modular switches
New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

Select one of the following:

to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

Select one of the following:

It uses a terminal emulation client.
It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable
It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

static default routes
implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
redundant links between Layer 2 switches
link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?

Select one of the following:

FHRP
GLBP
HSRP
VRRP

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

Select one of the following:

Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

Select one of the following:

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

Select one of the following:

MAC address
VLAN ID
IP address
port ID

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

STP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MSTP
RSTP

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

What is an advantage of PVST+?

Select one of the following:

PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network
PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

Select one of the following:

listening
learning
forwarding
blocking

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The root bridge BID
The role of the ports in all VLANs
The status of native VLAN ports
The number of broadcasts received on each root port
The IP address of the management VLAN interface

Explanation

Question 21 of 90

What is the purpose of HSRP?

Select one of the following:

It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

Explanation

Question 22 of 90

When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?

Select one of the following:

bounded updates
partial updates
EIGRP authentication
Diffusing Update Algorithm
Reliable Transport Protocol

Explanation

Question 23 of 90

What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?

Select one of the following:

to describe different routing processes
to identify different application layer protocols
to use different transport protocols for different packets
to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols

Explanation

Question 24 of 90

Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?

Select one of the following:

EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.

Explanation

Question 25 of 90

Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?

Select one of the following:

01-00-5E-00-00-09
01-00-5E-00-00-10
01-00-5E-00-00-0A
01-00-5E-00-00-0B

Explanation

Question 26 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?

Select one of the following:

network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63
network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128

Explanation

Question 27 of 90

Which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?

Select one of the following:

a summary route
an internal route
an external route that is redistributed from RIP
an external route that is redistributed from OSPF

Explanation

Question 28 of 90

Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?

Select one of the following:

only in the routing table
only in the neighbor table
in the routing table and the topology table
in the routing table and the neighbor table

Explanation

Question 29 of 90

Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?

Select one of the following:

the routing table
the neighbor table
the topology table
the adjacency table

Explanation

Question 30 of 90

How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

Select one of the following:

by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to information received in updates
by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

Explanation

Question 31 of 90

Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?

Select one of the following:

bandwidth 1500
shutdown
no shutdown
copy running-config startup-config
reload
no bandwidth

Explanation

Question 32 of 90

Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 33 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?

Select one of the following:

a reported distance less than 3523840
a reported distance greater than 41024000
a feasible distance greater than 41024000
an administrative distance less than 170

Explanation

Question 34 of 90

What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?

Select one of the following:

The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
There is no activity on the route to that network.
The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

Explanation

Question 35 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

192.168.71.0
192.168.51.0
10.44.100.252
10.44.104.253
10.44.101.252

Explanation

Question 36 of 90

What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?

Select one of the following:

increase uplink speed
add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains
aggregate ports by using EtherChannel
insert a router between the switches

Explanation

Question 37 of 90

Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

Select one of the following:

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

Explanation

Question 38 of 90

Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

802.3ad
PAgP
STP
EtherChannel
RSTP

Explanation

Question 39 of 90

Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

Select one of the following:

switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable
switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on

Explanation

Question 40 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?

Select one of the following:

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.
Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.
Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.

Explanation

Question 41 of 90

Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?

Select one of the following:

FCC
IEEE
ITU-R
Wi-Fi Alliance

Explanation

Question 42 of 90

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

Select one of the following:

active
auto
desirable
passive

Explanation

Question 43 of 90

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

Select one of the following:

active
auto
desirable
passive

Explanation

Question 44 of 90

As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

Select one of the following:

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

Explanation

Question 45 of 90

Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?

Select one of the following:

channel-group group-identifier
interface port-channel interface-identifier
interface interface-identifier
interface range interface-identifier

Explanation

Question 46 of 90

A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?

Select one of the following:

Upgrade the firmware on the AP
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band
Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender
Change to WPA2 authentication

Explanation

Question 47 of 90

What is an advantage of using LACP?

Select one of the following:

increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel

Explanation

Question 48 of 90

An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?

Select one of the following:

S1-on and S2-passive
S1-passive and S2-passive
S1-on and S2-active
S1-passive and S2-active

Explanation

Question 49 of 90

Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

repeater
access point
WLAN controller
Ethernet switch
RADIUS authentication server

Explanation

Question 50 of 90

Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?

Select one of the following:

beacon
probe request
authentication
probe response

Explanation

Question 51 of 90

A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?

Select one of the following:

beacon frame
control frame
data frame
management frame

Explanation

Question 52 of 90

During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?

Select one of the following:

discovery
probing
association
encryption
authentication

Explanation

Question 53 of 90

What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an IEEE 802.11 WLAN environment?

Select one of the following:

It allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to transmission
It is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions
It is used to send data over a half-duplex connection
It allows the client to change transmission channels

Explanation

Question 54 of 90

What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?

Select one of the following:

It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.
Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.
SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them
It is the best way to secure a wireless network

Explanation

Question 55 of 90

If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 56 of 90

Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?

Select one of the following:

WPA
WPA2
WEP
WPA2-Personal

Explanation

Question 57 of 90

An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?

Select one of the following:

cracking
denial of service
rogue access point
spoofing

Explanation

Question 58 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be advertised to the neighbors? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

192.168.1.0/30
192.168.10.0/30
192.168.10.0/24
172.16.3.0/24
172.16.0.0/16

Explanation

Question 59 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of summarization in this network?

Select one of the following:

Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.
Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.
Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers.
Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis

Explanation

Question 60 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?

Select one of the following:

A static default route has been manually configured on this router
Summarization of routes has been manually configured
A default route is being learned through an external process
The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface

Explanation

Question 61 of 90

Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table
It increases the size of routing updates
It reduces the frequency of routing updates
It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork
It improves reachability in discontiguous networks
It decreases the number of entries in the routing table

Explanation

Question 62 of 90

Which address best summarizes the IPv6 addresses 2001:DB8:ACAD::/48, 2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?

Select one of the following:

2001:DB8:8000::/34
2001:DB8:8000::/36
2001:DB8:8000::/47
2001:DB8:8000::/48

Explanation

Question 63 of 90

What is a characteristic of manual route summarization?

Select one of the following:

requires high bandwidth utilization for the routing updates
reduces total number of routes in routing tables
cannot include supernet routes
has to be configured globally on the router

Explanation

Question 64 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?

Select one of the following:

A static default route was configured on this router
A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates
The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command
The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0

Explanation

Question 65 of 90

In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?

Select one of the following:

global configuration mode
interface configuration mode
privileged mode
router configuration mode

Explanation

Question 66 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the shown commands. The EIGRP routing domain has completely converged and a network administrator is planning on configuring EIGRP authentication throughout the complete network. On which two interfaces should EIGRP authentication be configured between R2 and R3? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

serial 0/0/1 of R2
serial 0/1/0 of R2
gig 0/0 of R3
serial 0/0/1 of R3
serial 0/1/0 of R4

Explanation

Question 67 of 90

Two routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this problem?

Select one of the following:

an authentication mismatch
an access list that is blocking advertisements from other networks
automatic summarization that is disabled on both routers
a process ID mismatch

Explanation

Question 68 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?

Select one of the following:

The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.
The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process
The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.

Explanation

Question 69 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

Select one of the following:

The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.
The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor relationship from forming.
The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial 0/1/0.
The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.
The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are overlapping.

Explanation

Question 70 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.

What action should be taken to solve this problem?

Select one of the following:

Enable the serial interfaces of both routers
Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates
Configure the same hello interval between the routers
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID

Explanation

Question 71 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?

Select one of the following:

because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP
because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1

Explanation

Question 72 of 90

In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause inconsistent routing in a network?

Select one of the following:

when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers
when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers
when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS numbers
when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled

Explanation

Question 73 of 90

Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?

Select one of the following:

show ip eigrp interfaces
show ip protocols
show ip interface brief
show ip eigrp neighbors

Explanation

Question 74 of 90

Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?

Select one of the following:

show ip ospf neighbor
show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0
show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1

Explanation

Question 75 of 90

A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Select one of the following:

Configure the network statements.
Change the interface priority
Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command
Change the OSPFv2 process ID

Explanation

Question 76 of 90

Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF updates?

Select one of the following:

MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router
MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long
MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor
MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted

Explanation

Question 77 of 90

A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

no ipv6 ospf hello-interval
no ipv6 ospf dead-interval
ip ospf hello-interval 10
ip ospf dead-interval 40
no ipv6 ospf cost 10
no ipv6 router ospf 10

Explanation

Question 78 of 90

Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?

Select one of the following:

OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table
Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value
All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s
Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link

Explanation

Question 79 of 90

Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

secret key
OSPF message
OSPF router ID
router hostname
interface IP address

Explanation

Question 80 of 90

A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?

Select one of the following:

C
O
O E2
O IA

Explanation

Question 81 of 90

A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to be verified? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and the other passive
Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother
Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same subnet
Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same area.
Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID

Explanation

Question 82 of 90

Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?

Select one of the following:

show ip protocols
show ip ospf interface
show ip interface brief
show ip route ospf

Explanation

Question 83 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface
The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.
To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
The routing table contains two intra-area routes
To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface

Explanation

Question 84 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

Select one of the following:

The routers have the same priority
The routers have both been elected as the DR
The routers are configured with the same router ID.
The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.

Explanation

Question 85 of 90

Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries
Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation
Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system
Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries
Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas

Explanation

Question 86 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?

Select one of the following:

The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2
The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR
The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks

Explanation

Question 87 of 90

Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Verify OSPF
Configure OSPF
Define the OSPF parameters.
Gather the required parameters
Troubleshoot the configurations
Define the network requirements

Explanation

Question 88 of 90

The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?

Select one of the following:

area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

Explanation

Question 89 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?

Select one of the following:

The route was manually configured
The route was learned from within the area
The route was learned from outside the internetwork
The route was learned from another area

Explanation

Question 90 of 90

Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?

Select one of the following:

show ip ospf database
show ip ospf interface
show ip ospf neighbor
show ip route ospf

Explanation

Check answer

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	Created by Anthony Schulmeister over 8 years ago

CCNA 3 Final Exam (Objective): CH 1-9

Final Exam (Objective): CH 1-9

Question 1 of 90

Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

What is an advantage of PVST+?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)