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quiz to prep for final microbiology exam for nursing

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MICROBIO quiz for final exam

Question 1 of 97

1

Hand hygiene promotion and flu clinics are examples of which kind of prevention undertaken by a public health nurse?

Select one of the following:

  • Primary prevention

  • Secondary prevention

  • Tertiary prevention

  • Community-based prevention

Explanation

Question 2 of 97

1

Screening and outbreak investigations are examples of which kind of prevention undertaken by a public health nurse?

Select one of the following:

  • Primary prevention

  • Secondary prevention

  • Tertiary prevention

  • Detection

Explanation

Question 3 of 97

1

Tertiary prevention of infectious diseases in the work of a public health nurse would include...

Select one of the following:

  • Restoration and rehabilitation, preventing complications from illnesses

  • Early detection and treatment of illnesses

  • Preventing infections from happening

  • Identifying different pathogens common in community settings

Explanation

Question 4 of 97

1

The Provincial Public Health Acts aid in infectious disease control in part because they...

Select one of the following:

  • Protect the health of the community at large and give the Medical Officer of Health the power to act in public health emergencies

  • Detail which neighbourhoods of a municipality should be treated by which facility

  • Prevent the Medical Officer of Health from impeding efforts undertaken by frontline workers in emergencies related to infectious diseases

Explanation

Question 5 of 97

1

Direct Observed Therapy (DOT) for treatment of TB is an example of tertiary prevention in public health nursing.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 97

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Hantavirus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • RNA virus

  • DNA virus

  • Deer mouse are the reservoir

  • Bats are the reservoir

  • It can be spread via person-to-person transmission

  • The average incubation period is 14-30 days (can be 3-60 days)

  • The key messages in public education include ventilating the area for 30 minutes before cleaning

Explanation

Question 7 of 97

1

A child presents to the community clinic where you work. She is 10 years old and her mother is concerned because she was playing outside and a dog scratched her. What would you be most concerned about with regards to infectious diseases?

Select one of the following:

  • Rabies

  • Hantavirus

  • Mumps

  • TB

Explanation

Question 8 of 97

1

Rabies is a RNA virus, is transmitted through infected saliva, and usually takes 20-60 days to incubate (though it can take years!).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 9 of 97

1

Once a person is ill with rabies, there is no treatment available.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 97

1

You hear of a daycare where six children have fallen ill in 3 days. These children are presenting with severe diarrhea and the stools are green and watery with blood streaking and mucous. They also have fevers and abdominal pain. You suspect the infectious pathogen is...

Select one of the following:

  • Shigellosis

  • Hantavirus

  • Measles

  • Mumps

Explanation

Question 11 of 97

1

Shigellosis is a gram negative bacteria that has an incubation period of 1-7 days.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 97

1

Which of the following pathogens can survive outside of the body for up to 2 months and can be shed in feces of carriers for months?

Select one of the following:

  • Shigellosis

  • Hantavirus

  • Rabies

  • Staph aureus

Explanation

Question 13 of 97

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning mumps?

Select one of the following:

  • You are most contagious 2 days before onset of symptoms until 5 days after

  • The incubation period is 2-5 days

  • The classic presentation of symptoms (parotiditis - unilateral or bilateral) are present in 2/3 of cases.

  • Meningitis, oophoritis, orchitis are complications that can occur with measles, not mumps

Explanation

Question 14 of 97

1

Measles is much more serious than mumps and treatment is supportive.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 97

1

Koplik's spots (clustered white lesions on buccal mucosa) are indicative of...

Select one of the following:

  • Measles

  • Mumps

  • Rubella

  • Shigellosis

Explanation

Question 16 of 97

1

Only those with active pulmonary TB or laryngeal TB are contagious.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 97

1

Mode of transmission for TB is air droplet.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 97

1

70% of people exposed to TB will never progress to active disease.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 97

1

Fever and night sweats associated with TB infection will more likely be present in the very young or elderly.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 97

1

Select from the following factors that increase the probability of transmission of TB.

Select one or more of the following:

  • smear positive sputum

  • short exposure time (very easily transmitted)

  • severity of cough

  • overcrowded housing and poor ventilation

  • delays in diagnosis

Explanation

Question 21 of 97

1

Select all the correct signs and symptoms of active TB disease.

Select one or more of the following:

  • dry cough lasting more than 2-3 weeks

  • anorexia

  • fever or chills

  • night sweats

  • hemoptysis

  • fatigue

  • local symptoms (e.g. bone pain, swollen lymph nodes, dysuria)

Explanation

Question 22 of 97

1

Why is Direct Observed Therapy so important? Select the best answer.

Select one of the following:

  • It helps prevent the development of drug resistant strains of TB

  • It is a pain in the ass for the patient

  • It helps patients feel that nurses really care about them

  • It makes sure that there is emotional follow up

Explanation

Question 23 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the detection of TB?

Select one of the following:

  • A TB skin test is a diagnostic test that involves an intradermal injection that is read within 48-72 hours of administration.

  • The size of a TB skin test induration plus the clinical picture helps determine whether a client needs a chest xray and sputum collection or not.

  • An induration following a TB skin test does not mean that someone has active TB disease. It only means they've been exposed at some point.

  • If a close contact of an active TB case has an initial TB skin test that is 0 mm, and a repeat test in 3 months is 20 mm, this is highly suggestive that the contact has developed active TB.

Explanation

Question 24 of 97

1

Someone with a latent TB infection is still contagious.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 97

1

Extrapulmonary TB can occur in any organ in the body.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

( Epidemiology, Microbiology, Mycobacteriology ) is the study of the distribution and determinants of disease, mainly infectious.

Explanation

Question 27 of 97

1

Lyme disease is continually present in the Canadian population. Therefore, this is an example of a disease that is...

Select one of the following:

  • endemic

  • pandemic

  • nosocomial

  • infectious

Explanation

Question 28 of 97

1

An increase of cases (more than would be expected) of cholera in Haiti in 2010 or microcephaly in Brazil in 2015 are examples of what kind of disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Endemic

  • Pandemic

  • Epidemic

  • Nosocomial

Explanation

Question 29 of 97

1

H1N1 in 2009 spread around the world. This is an example of...

Select one of the following:

  • an endemic disease

  • an epidemic

  • a pandemic

  • a nosocomial infection

Explanation

Question 30 of 97

1

Nosocomial infections are those that a patient developed purely as a result of their stay in hospital.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 97

1

There are a certain number of new cases of HIV infection in Canada every year. These new cases pertain to the...

Select one of the following:

  • incidence of HIV

  • prevalence of HIV

  • infectious nature of HIV

  • poor public health campaigns

Explanation

Question 32 of 97

1

A patient develops c diff as a direct result of a healthcare worker not performing proper hand hygiene. This is an example of...

Select one of the following:

  • contact transmission

  • vehicle transmission

  • vector transmission

  • traditional transmission

Explanation

Question 33 of 97

1

An 82-year-old female patient living in a nursing home develops complications from salmonella poisoning. This is an example of...

Select one of the following:

  • contact transmission

  • vehicle transmission

  • vector transmission

  • atypical transmission

Explanation

Question 34 of 97

1

Heater-cooler devices in the OR causing MOT infections and aspergillus infections in oncology patients are both examples of...

Select one of the following:

  • contact transmission

  • vector transmission

  • vehicle transmission

  • bad healthcare

Explanation

Question 35 of 97

1

What is a fomite?

Select one of the following:

  • A non-living object on which microbes live that can harm human health

  • A device used to sterilize stationary objects in the OR

  • An instrument used on oncology floors that are a major source of HAIs

  • A type of infectious vector

Explanation

Question 36 of 97

1

Which of the following patients are at risk for a hospital acquired infection?

Select one or more of the following:

  • patient in ICU or requiring extensive hands-on care

  • patient that has had invasive procedures or devices

  • patient with non-intact skin

  • debilitated patient with severe underlying disease

  • middle aged patients

  • patients who have recently had antibiotics

  • patients who are immunosuppressed

  • patients who have not been appropriately immunized

  • patients being cared for by inadequately trained staff

Explanation

Question 37 of 97

1

The work of an infection control nurse is varied and diverse and can include conducting surveillance, investigating outbreaks, analyzing data, and contributing to research.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 97

1

Over half (53%) of the work of an infection prevention and control nurse will be collecting and analyzing data.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 97

1

What is the proper order of PPE doffing?

Select one of the following:

  • remove gloves; remove goggles or face shield; remove gown; remove mask or respirator

  • remove mask or respirator; remove goggles or face shield; remove gown, remove gloves

  • remove gloves; remove gown; remove goggles or face shield; remove mask or respirator

  • remove goggles or face shield; remove gloves; remove gown; remove mask

Explanation

Question 40 of 97

1

You should perform hand hygiene between all steps in the process of doffing PPE.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 41 of 97

1

What do the following four things have in common? Catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI), catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI), ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), and surgical site infections (SSI).

Select one of the following:

  • they are all common hospital acquired infections

  • none of them can be prevented

  • they are all very difficult to define

  • they are types of infections that occur in the community setting

Explanation

Question 42 of 97

1

What is being pushed for as a new way to prevent catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI - "CL" central line)?

Select one of the following:

  • using full-barrier precautions during central venous catheter insertion (e.g. surgical attire)

  • having the patient wear a mask during catheter insertion

  • using alcohol to prep skin

  • keeping in CVCs as long as possible

Explanation

Question 43 of 97

1

Urinary catheters are associated with higher rates of serious complications than most HCPs think.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 97

1

Urinary catheters should be inserted using sterile technique.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 97

1

Routine mouth care with dilute chlorhexidine solution can lead to a 40% reduction in ventilator associated pneumonias.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 97

1

Surgical sites should be shaved prior to surgery to keep the site cleaner afterwards to prevent a surgical site infection.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 47 of 97

1

With most antibiotics, they should be administered within 1 hour of cut time to prevent surgical site infections.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

When ( basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, neutrophils ) are in tissues, they are called mast cells.

Explanation

Question 49 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

( Neutrophils and monocytes, Neutrophils and eosinophils, Natural killer cells and lymphocytes ) both circulate and live in tissues, engulf and destroy pathogens (phagocytosis), and remove dead cells and debris.

Explanation

Question 50 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • Neutrophils and monocytes (phagocytes) don't recognize specific bacteria - they only recognize anything that is "not self"

  • Eosinophils release histamine and are responsible for fighting helminths

  • Basophils contain histamine and are called mast cells when inside tissues

  • Macrophages are called monocytes when they are present in tissues

Explanation

Question 51 of 97

1

Which of the following is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • Lymphocytes and monocytes are granulocytes

  • Natural Killer cells are the first line of defence against viruses

  • Dendritic cells are responsible for forming immune tolerance against good bacteria in the gut

  • Eosinophils are called mast cells when in tissues

Explanation

Question 52 of 97

1

Leukocytes (WBCs) mature in either the thymus or in bone marrow.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding phagocytosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Some bacteria resist digestion, such as M. tuberculosis

  • Some bacteria produce toxins that cause phagocytes to self-digest, such as staphylococci and streptococci

  • Some bacteria are "slippery" (especially CAPSULES) and don't attach easily to the neutrophil or monocyte (aka macrophages in tissues)

  • Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytic and can recognize specific bacteria

Explanation

Question 54 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding tissue trauma?

Select one of the following:

  • Redness, heat, and swelling occur mainly because basophils/mast cells release histamine, which causes capillaries to dilate and become more permeable

  • Redness, heat, and swelling occur mainly because macrophages/monocytes release histamine, which causes capillaries to dilate and become more permable

  • Damaged cells release cytokines, which triggers leukocytosis and chemotaxis (aka calls other cells to come help)

Explanation

Question 55 of 97

1

We should permit fever within reason (fever due to infection RARELY exceeds 40 degrees Celcius) because there are many benefits to fever. Select all of the patients from the list below who should NOT be allowed to remain febrile.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Patients with severe heart disease

  • Patients with fluid and electrolyte imbalances

  • Patients with a history of febrile convulsions (especially infants)

  • Patients in the ICU with a neurological injury

  • Patients who have an infection

Explanation

Question 56 of 97

1

How do alpha and beta interferons help limit the spread of viruses?

Select one of the following:

  • They prompt surrounding cells to produce anti-viral proteins to block viral replication

  • They initiate phagocytosis

  • They release histamines

  • They initiate the complement cascade

Explanation

Question 57 of 97

1

The complement cascade involves large proteins produced in the liver, which is in part why patients with liver disease are immunocompromised.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 58 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

An ( antigen, hapten, antibody ) is a substance the body identifies as foreign and ( epitopes, haptens, antigens ) are the part of it that our bodies recognize. ( Haptens, Epitopes, Antigens, Antibodies ) are only antigenic if combined with a carrier molecule.

Explanation

Question 59 of 97

1

An antibody is a protein made to match ONE antigen specifically - like a lock and key. The numbers of antibodies counted in a sample of blood is referred to as someone's "titer."

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Maternal antibodies passed to an infant in utero or through breastmilk is an example of ( passive, active ) ( natural, artificial ) immunity. Immunization is an example of ( active, passive ) ( artificial, natural ) immunity.

Explanation

Question 61 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding cell-mediated versus humoral immunity?

Select one of the following:

  • Humoral immunity involves B lymphocytes forming antibodies

  • Cell-mediated immunity involves T lymphocytes killing cells directly

  • Cell-mediated immunity is active against agents inside cells

  • Humoral immunity is active against substances inside cells

Explanation

Question 62 of 97

1

Humoral (B cells) immunity targets substances OUTSIDE of cells (e.g. bacteria, viruses before they enter), whereas cell-medicated (T cells) immunity targets agents INSIDE of cells (e.g. viruses, transplanted organs, parasites, etc.).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 63 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding B cells and humoral immunity?

Select one of the following:

  • B cells, along with macrophages and dendritic cells, can present antigens (thus becoming "antigen presenting cells")

  • Antigen presenting cells activate T helper cells, which secrete cytokines

  • The production of cytokines by T helper cells are necessary to begin the process of memory B cell production

  • Antigen presenting cells activate macrophages, which engulf viruses and kill them directly

Explanation

Question 64 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding antibody classes?

Select one of the following:

  • IgG crosses the placenta and is the most abundant (80%) antibody in serum

  • IgA makes up about 10% of the antibodies in a serum sample and is found mostly in tears, saliva, colostrum, and mucous

  • IgM makes up about 5-10% of serum antibodies and indicates a RECENT infection because it is the first antibody in an encounter with a new antigen

  • IgE is about less than 0.005% of serum antibodies and is mostly related to allergy symptoms or helminth infection

  • IgD is elevated in some cancers

Explanation

Question 65 of 97

1

You are caring for a 45yo male in an ICU setting. He has had a neurological injury and is febrile at 39 degrees celcius. His IgM is elevated and he is on a ventilator. Select all of the following TRUE statements from the list below.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Due to the elevated IgM, we can say that this infection is very likely an OLD infection

  • We can let his fever run, unless he has contraindications, such as a pre-existing heart condiiton

  • We should be worried about him either having or developing ventilator associated pneumonia, as this is one of the most common and concerning hospital acquired infections

  • If he does not already have a ventilator associated pneumonia, we should be using a dilated alcohol solution to perform regular oral care

Explanation

Question 66 of 97

1

You are caring for a 25yo female who recently returned from a trip touring multiple countries in Western Africa. Her serum antibody results show an elevation in IgE. What might you suspect?

Select one of the following:

  • A worm infection

  • A new infection

  • A bacterial infection in her GI tract

  • An autoimmune disorder

Explanation

Question 67 of 97

1

One main difference in the pattern of antibody concentration during a primary versus a secondary response to an invasive pathogen is that during the SECOND infection, there will be more IgG sooner.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 68 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Neutralization, Opsonization, Presentation ) of bacterial toxins is accomplished by IgG or IgA. ( Opsonization, Neutralization, Packaging of antigens ) (antibodies coating bacteria) is accomplished mainly by IgG. ( Cell lysis, Cell integration, Opsonization ) is accomplished by complement proteins, which is activated by IgG or IgM, or is accomplished directly by IgM.

Explanation

Question 69 of 97

1

You are caring for a 32yo male, who has recently been told that he is HIV positive. He asks you about the role of T cells in cell-mediated immunity, as he wants to know more about his immune system in general. You explain that...

Select one of the following:

  • T cells are like "divas" - they don't produce antibodies so they interact only with antigens *presented* directly to them

  • T cells are like "divas" - they only produce antibodies for very few kinds of viruses

  • T cells are made in the thymus and mature in bone marrow

  • The three main kinds of T cells are helper, cytotoxic, and complement

Explanation

Question 70 of 97

1

Select all of the following CORRECT statements about factors that modify immune responses.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Our immune systems mature by age 2-3 years

  • T cells are at their nadir (lowest) in winter

  • After running a marathon, you are at 6x the risk for an upper respiratory infection

  • One missed night of sleep drops NK cells by less than 1%

  • T cell immunity decreases during pregnancy

Explanation

Question 71 of 97

1

Passive immunization only lasts for as long as the cells last, whereas active immunizations can confer lifelong immunity (e.g. oral polio live attenuated vaccine).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 72 of 97

1

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding HIV?

Select one of the following:

  • Reverse transcriptase makes errors 1 in every 10,000 copies, which is why resistant strains develop so easily and why we usually combine multiple medications

  • Ontario's priority populations, according to the AIDS Bureau, include heterosexual men, Western European immigrants, and Aboriginal men and women

  • Someone's viral load does not significantly impact their chances of transmitting HIV to a sexual partner

  • Male circumcision increases the risk of HIV transmission

Explanation

Question 73 of 97

1

Rectal mucosa is most susceptible as a site of transmission for HIV.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 74 of 97

1

Select all of the following appropriate strategies to prevent the vertical transmission of HIV from mother to baby at time of delivery.

Select one or more of the following:

  • C-section reduces risk by about 60%

  • Initiating HIV treatment for mother prior to birth

  • Treating other STIs before birth

  • Vaginal delivery reduces risk of transmission

Explanation

Question 75 of 97

1

You are caring for a 28yo male. During your intake interview, you take a full sexual history and find that this client identifies as a gay man, takes PrEP but often misses doses, does not use condoms regularly, and has multiple sexual partners. You offer to get him tested for HIV. He asks, "If my test is negative, that means I'm in the clear, right?" Which is the most appropriate response of the options below?

Select one of the following:

  • "If your ELISA (antibody) test results are negative, this might mean that you are in the first stage of HIV infection and your body hasn't produced antibodies yet."

  • "If your ELISA (antibody) test results are negative, you are in the clear. However, you might want to consider whether you want to modify some of your risk factors by taking your PrEP regularly, for example."

  • "If you are in the first stage of HIV infection, called "acute HIV syndrome," your ELISA test will be positive but your RNA/molecular test will be negative, so we would recommend you get retested in six months."

  • "You should always use a condom."

Explanation

Question 76 of 97

1

You are caring for an 50yo male who was diagnosed as HIV positive in the early 1990's. He has never received any treatment for his HIV infection. His ELISA test is positive, however, he does not have any symptoms and his viral load is low. Which stage of infection is he in?

Select one of the following:

  • Acute HIV syndrome

  • Latent stage

  • Advanced HIV infection (AIDS)

  • Initial stage

Explanation

Question 77 of 97

1

You are caring for a 34yo female who is HIV positive and is receiving antiretroviral therapy (ART). She recently lost her job, her partner of 10 years left her, and she is feeling very depressed. She confides in you that she has recently stopped taking her medications regularly. She says, "What's the point anymore, there's nothing to live for." In addition to providing emotional support, which of the following might you consider telling her?

Select one of the following:

  • "If you are not taking your drugs regularly, you might develop a drug resistant strain of HIV, which could really limit your treatment options in the future."

  • "It's ok to have regular periods of not taking your ART drugs."

  • "Taking some medication breaks can actually help your body heal."

Explanation

Question 78 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding percutaneous exposure and risk of transmission of viruses?

Select one of the following:

  • You are much more likely to become infected with Hep B than HIV following a needle stick injury

  • Your risk of contracting HIV from a workplace incident is greatly impacted by the type of body fluid you are exposed to (e.g very low risk from urine or saliva)

  • There are a number of documented cases of nurses contracting HIV after a skin splash

  • Your risk of contracting HIV is increased by increased gauge of needle, hollow bore needles versus suture needles, and the viral load of the patient

Explanation

Question 79 of 97

1

Your coworker comes to you and tells you that five days ago she got a needle stick injury while caring for a patient who is HIV positive. The patient is on ART, their viral load is very low, and the nurse was wearing a glove when she had the needle stick injury. What is your most appropriate response to your coworker?

Select one of the following:

  • "You need to go to the emergency department downstairs right away so you can get post exposure prophylactic treatment."

  • "It's been more than three days since your possible exposure so you might be told that it's too late to take post exposure prophylaxis."

  • "You're an idiot."

  • "We should pray."

Explanation

Question 80 of 97

1

If you have experienced a possible exposure to HIV in your workplace, you should first clean the area thoroughly and then go to ASAP to the occ health office or ER department to receive PEP.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 97

1

Being infected with other STIs, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, trichomoniasis, or candidiasis, increases your risk of becoming infected with HIV.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 82 of 97

1

A client presents to your clinic. He reports urethral discharge that is quite purulent, dysuria, and pelvic floor pain that radiates to his back. The discomfort comes and goes. You suspect he might have...

Select one of the following:

  • gonorrhea

  • chlamydia

  • HIV

  • HPV

Explanation

Question 83 of 97

1

Which of the following are CORRECT regarding urethritis? You may select more than one statement.

Select one or more of the following:

  • General symptoms include urethral discharge, dysuria (especially if drinking alcohol), and deep pelvic pain, possibly radiating to the back (might mean involvement of other structures)

  • A wide range of symptom severity, often asymptomatic

  • Gonorrhea infections may lead to other clinical manifestations, such as arthritis, dermatitis, and endocarditis

  • Taking cultures is not necessary - might as well go to NAAT directly because it has better sensitivity to diagnose both gonorrhea and chlamydia

Explanation

Question 84 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

( Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Herpes, HPV, HIV ) is a non-culturable spirochete. It is called the "great mimicker."

Explanation

Question 85 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Painless, Painful ) chancres are usually due to syphillis, whereas ( painful, painless ) chancres are usually due to herpes.

Explanation

Question 86 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding syphilis?

Select one of the following:

  • Secondary syphilis can have numerous manifestations, including fever, malaise, rashes on palms and soles of feet, alopecia, hepatitis, and meningitis

  • Primary syphilis usually presents with a painful chancre on genitals

  • Latent syphilis will very likely be asymptomatic

  • Tertiary syphilis can present with cardiovascular, neurologic, or gummatous symptoms. The incubation period for tertiary syphilis can be between 1-46 years.

Explanation

Question 87 of 97

1

Neurosyphilis can present at any stage of syphilis infection.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 88 of 97

1

You are about to administer a dose of IM penicillin to a patient who has been diagnosed with syphilis. Before administering the injection, which is the most important thing to tell the patient?

Select one of the following:

  • "You may develop malaise and fever within hours of this first dose, which is called a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction and is due to the immune response to killed treponemes, not the penicillin itself."

  • "You may develop malaise and fever within hours of this first dose, which is a sign that you are having a serious allergic reaction to penicillin. Take yourself to an emergency department and tell them you've been given an IM dose of penicillin."

  • "What did you do that ended up with you having syphilis?"

  • "Did you know you can die of syphilis?"

Explanation

Question 89 of 97

1

A patient reports recurrent painful blisters on their genitals. You suspect that they might be infected with herpes simplex virus. What should you do FIRST?

Select one of the following:

  • Take a thorough sexual history, as this is often enough to diagnose clinically

  • Swab the blister for culture

  • Tell the patient that they should be practicing safer sex

  • Inform the patient that they will need to contact all their sexual partners and tell them they might have herpes

Explanation

Question 90 of 97

1

You are counselling a patient who was just diagnosed with HPV. She asks you, "doesn't this mean I'm going to develop cervical cancer?" What is the best response?

Select one of the following:

  • "Some types of HPV are oncogenic, meaning they can increase your risk of developing cancer. Would you be interested in getting tested to see if you carry an oncogenic strain?"

  • "Yes, you will likely develop cervical cancer, so we should increase the frequency of your Pap smears to every six months."

  • "No, HPV does not have any connection to increased risk of developing cancer."

  • "Google it."

Explanation

Question 91 of 97

1

Gonorrhea, chalmydia, chancroid, syphilis, and HIV are notifiable diseases, meaning there is a public health requirement for sexual partners to be contacted. Notification can be done by the MD, public health, or by the patient.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 92 of 97

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding travel vaccinations?

Select one of the following:

  • Yellow Fever and Meningococcus vaccines are usually "required" vaccines

  • "Recommended" vaccines include MMR, chicken pox, DPT, Polio, and Tetanus

  • N Meningitidis vaccine should be given not only to the traveller but also their family members because the vaccine does NOT prevent the person from being a carrier

  • Children handle Hep A well but adults do not

Explanation

Question 93 of 97

1

You are caring for a client who just returned from a trip and thinks she might have been exposed to Hep B. The potential exposure occurred 10 days ago. What should you NOT say to her regarding treatment?

Select one of the following:

  • "Unfortunately, since you're past 7 days, there would be no benefit to you receiving Hep B Immune Globulin."

  • "We should test your blood right away to see if you've been infected and we should get you some Hep B Immune Globulin asap."

  • "Did you get vaccinated before you left?"

  • "If you are infected, there are a few treatment options, including immunotherapy (e.g. interferon) and antiretrovirals (same medications that were used to treat HIV)."

Explanation

Question 94 of 97

1

Hep D virus replicates only in the presence of Hep B - coinfection or superinfection. Therefore, the Hep B vaccine protects against Hep D.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 95 of 97

1

Which of the following situations would warrant immediate vaccination against rabies, washing and flushing of any wound, and administration of rabies immune globulin?

Select one of the following:

  • A child who was touching and feeding animals at the family farm in Eastern Europe

  • A young woman who had a minor scratch from a potentially rabid dog - the scratch did not bleed

  • An elderly man who was licked by a potentially rabid dog on broken skin

  • A young child who had multiple transdermal bites and scratches from a dog in Bangkok

Explanation

Question 96 of 97

1

A fever from the tropics should be assumed to be malaria until proven otherwise. Quick treatment can be the difference between life and fast deterioration.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 97 of 97

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Vivax, Falciparum ) specie of malaria is rarely lethal but incapacitates the host and can stay dormant in the liver for years. ( Falciparum, Vivax ) specie leads to life threatening complications such as coma, wet lung, jaundice, anemia, and renal failure.

Explanation

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