Brennan Brow
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SAIT 4th Class Power Eng Part A II

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4th Class Part A II

Question 1 of 142

1

Electrical circuit insulation:

Select one of the following:

  • Will never break down or deteriorate

  • Requires replacement after 10 years

  • Will deteriorate due to high temperatures

  • Will not burn

Explanation

Question 2 of 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains dust in the air, under normal operation conditions, in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, the electrical equipment must be designed safe for use in an area classification of:

Select one of the following:

  • Class I, Division I

  • Class I, Division II

  • Class II, Division I

  • Class II, Division II

Explanation

Question 3 of 142

1

A common cause of an electrical fire is:

Select one of the following:

  • Allowing motors or conductors to stay dry, unless designed for wet locations

  • Prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring

  • Following too closely to the Electrical Code when installing electrical equipment

  • Replacing burned fuses with ones of a higher rating

Explanation

Question 4 of 142

1

Which one of the following maintenance procedures is not a concern with preventing fires in electrical equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • Allowing the accumulation of dust on a motor since this buildup will prevent heat from escaping, thus keeping the motor warm in cold ambient conditions

  • Keeping electrical equipment dry unless designed for wet locations

  • Using the equipment designed for the application

  • Checking any aluminum connections frequently for tightness and presence of corrosion

Explanation

Question 5 of 142

1

Electrical connections:

Select one of the following:

  • need only make contact, they need not be tight

  • will create large amounts of heat if not tight

  • can cause an arc if too tight

  • may operate on overload for specified duration

Explanation

Question 6 of 142

1

When an electrical fire is discovered:

Select one of the following:

  • the equipment may be left running if the fire is put out with a C type fire extinguisher

  • the equipment should be de-energized as quickly as possible

  • the equipment should be left running until a backup power supply is available

  • the equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire is extinguished

Explanation

Question 7 of 142

1

The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live electrical fire is a:

Select one of the following:

  • pressurized water extinguisher

  • dry chemical extinguisher

  • purple K extinguisher

  • carbon dioxide extinguisher

Explanation

Question 8 of 142

1

The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the extinguisher horn can be as low as:

Select one of the following:

  • 0 degrees C

  • -30 degrees C

  • -60 degrees C

  • -80 degrees C

Explanation

Question 9 of 142

1

During annual turnaround of a facility it is highly recommended that:

Select one of the following:

  • all fuses in the electrical system be replaced

  • aluminium wiring be replaced

  • all electrical panels be checked for tightness and corrosion

  • all circuit breakers be disassembled and cleaned

Explanation

Question 10 of 142

1

According to the Canadian Electrical Code, hazardous locations, for electrical equipment, are divided into three classes, depending on:

Select one of the following:

  • the type of hazardous material involved.

  • the capacity of electrical equipment involved.

  • the type of fire extinguishers available

  • pressure

Explanation

Question 11 of 142

1

Dry chemical can form a conducting path to ground if:

Select one of the following:

  • the air is dry.

  • any moisture is present.

  • it is directed at the base of the flame.

  • it is non-conductive.

Explanation

Question 12 of 142

1

Switches and circuit breakers which are to be installed in an atmosphere where flammable vapours may continually exist shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • installed in a sealed compartment.

  • be explosion proof.

  • electrically insulated.

  • of an ABSA approved design.

Explanation

Question 13 of 142

1

A fire may be caused by an electrical arc, which may originate due to:

Select one of the following:

  • Closing an electrical breaker.

  • Shutting down a motor too quickly.

  • Low voltage at a generator.

  • A loose electrical connection.

Explanation

Question 14 of 142

1

According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, capable of producing combustible flyings, are handled or manufactured is designated as:

Select one of the following:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explanation

Question 15 of 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under normal operating conditions, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:

Select one of the following:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explanation

Question 16 of 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:

Select one of the following:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 2, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explanation

Question 17 of 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours but are normally confined in containers, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:

Select one of the following:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 2

Explanation

Question 18 of 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust not normally in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:

Select one of the following:

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explanation

Question 19 of 142

1

According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, are stored or handled, but are not processed is designated as:

Select one of the following:

  • Class 3, Division 1

  • Class 3, Division 2

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

Explanation

Question 20 of 142

1

Heat produced by a current is calculated by:

Select one of the following:

  • I*R

  • R^2*I

  • I^2*R

  • I^2*R^2

Explanation

Question 21 of 142

1

When the power has been cut off from an electrical fire, it becomes what class?

Select one of the following:

  • Class A

  • Class B

  • Class C

  • Class A, B or a combination of both

Explanation

Question 22 of 142

1

Hand held models of carbon dioxide extinguishers range from __ to __ kg

Select one of the following:

  • 2.2 to 9

  • 2.1 to 9

  • 2.2 to 10

  • 2.1 to 10

Explanation

Question 23 of 142

1

When did Alberta enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Select one of the following:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explanation

Question 24 of 142

1

When did Saskatchewan enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Select one of the following:

  • 1898

  • 1952

  • 1941

  • 1899

Explanation

Question 25 of 142

1

When did Northwest Territories enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Select one of the following:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explanation

Question 26 of 142

1

When did Nova Scotia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Select one of the following:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explanation

Question 27 of 142

1

When did British Columbia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Select one of the following:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explanation

Question 28 of 142

1

The equivalent of 103 kPa in psi is ____.

Select one of the following:

  • 15

  • 30

  • 60

  • 22

Explanation

Question 29 of 142

1

A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is generated at a pressure greater than ____.

Select one of the following:

  • 103 kpa

  • 30 psi

  • 1034 kpa

  • 121 psi

Explanation

Question 30 of 142

1

A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers containing liquid at a working pressure greater than ____ and/or a temperature exceeding ____.

Select one of the following:

  • 1100 kPa, 121 degrees C

  • 103 kPa, 121 degrees C

  • 1034 kPa, 130 degrees C

  • 103 kPa, 230 degrees C

Explanation

Question 31 of 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 kW

  • 100 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

Explanation

Question 32 of 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 500 kW

Explanation

Question 33 of 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 100 kW

Explanation

Question 34 of 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 200 kW

Explanation

Question 35 of 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as assistant engineer, under supervision of the shift engineer, in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 500 kW

Explanation

Question 36 of 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than ________ and operating at a pressure not more than _______.

Select one of the following:

  • 5000 kW, 140 kPa

  • 1000 kW, 103 kPa

  • 10,000 kW, 30 psi

  • 500 kW, 15 psi

Explanation

Question 37 of 142

1

Which code regulates mechanical refrigeration?

Select one of the following:

  • CSA B52

  • CSA B51

  • ASME Section II

  • ASME Section VI

Explanation

Question 38 of 142

1

Which CSA code is entitled Boiler, Pressure Vessel and Pressure Piping Code?

Select one of the following:

  • CSA B52

  • CSA B51

  • ASME Section III

  • ASME Section VI

Explanation

Question 39 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to power boilers?

Select one of the following:

  • Section I

  • Section IV

  • Section VI

  • Section II

Explanation

Question 40 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to materials?

Select one of the following:

  • Section II

  • Section I

  • Section III

  • Section V

Explanation

Question 41 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to construction of nuclear power components?

Select one of the following:

  • Section VI

  • Section III

  • Section IV

  • Section I

Explanation

Question 42 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to construction of heating boilers?

Select one of the following:

  • Section V

  • Section VII

  • Section IV

  • Section I

Explanation

Question 43 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to nondestructive examination?

Select one of the following:

  • Section V

  • Section III

  • Section II

  • Section VI

Explanation

Question 44 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to care and operation of heating boilers?

Select one of the following:

  • Section VII

  • Section II

  • Section IV

  • Section VI

Explanation

Question 45 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to care of power boilers?

Select one of the following:

  • Section VII

  • Section XI

  • Section VIII

  • Section V

Explanation

Question 46 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to construction of pressure vessels?

Select one of the following:

  • Section V

  • Section III

  • Section VIII

  • Section I

Explanation

Question 47 of 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to welding and brazing qualifications?

Select one of the following:

  • Section IX

  • Section X

  • Section II

  • Section VI

Explanation

Question 48 of 142

1

This committee was formed in 1911.

Select one of the following:

  • Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee

  • ASME

  • ABSA

  • CRN

Explanation

Question 49 of 142

1

This organization was responsible for forming the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee.

Select one of the following:

  • ASME

  • ABSA

  • CSA

  • CRN

Explanation

Question 50 of 142

1

This body was formed in 1919.

Select one of the following:

  • The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors.

  • ASME

  • CRN

  • ISO

Explanation

Question 51 of 142

1

The first province to pass laws relating to boilers and pressure vessels was _________.

Select one of the following:

  • Quebec

  • Alberta

  • Ontario

  • Newfoundland

Explanation

Question 52 of 142

1

What are the different grades of Pressure Welder's Certificates of Competency?

Select one of the following:

  • A, B and C

  • 1, 2 and 3

  • L, A, J

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 53 of 142

1

This critical temperature is the cutoff for a class A compressed gas under WHMIS.

Select one of the following:

  • 50 Deg C

  • 100 Deg C

  • 0 Deg C

  • -40 Deg C

Explanation

Question 54 of 142

1

Class A substances in WHMIS are ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • compressed gas

  • flammable gas

  • flammable liquid

  • combustible liquid

Explanation

Question 55 of 142

1

Class B substances in WHMIS are ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • flammable

  • toxic

  • oxidizing

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 56 of 142

1

In WHMIS, this is a Class C substance

Select one of the following:

  • oxidizing

  • flammable

  • toxic

  • compressed gas

Explanation

Question 57 of 142

1

In WHMIS, this is a Class D substance is

Select one of the following:

  • Oxidizing

  • Toxic

  • flammable

  • compressed gas

Explanation

Question 58 of 142

1

A liquid is flammable under WHMIS if its flash point is

Select one of the following:

  • <37.8 Deg C

  • >37.8 Deg C

  • between 37.8 & 93.3 Deg C

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 59 of 142

1

A liquid is combustible under WHMIS if its flash point is

Select one of the following:

  • <37.8 Deg C

  • > 37.8 Deg C

  • between 37.8 and 93.3 Deg C

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 60 of 142

1

In WHMIS, a Class E substance is ________.

Select one of the following:

  • corrosive

  • toxic

  • flammable

  • oxidizing

Explanation

Question 61 of 142

1

In WHMIS, a Class F substance is _______.

Select one of the following:

  • hazardously reactive

  • oxidizing

  • flammable

  • compressed gas

Explanation

Question 62 of 142

1

What is the purpose of HMIRA?

Select one of the following:

  • to protect the secrecy of a manufacturer's formula

  • safety for workers and employers

  • to set legal precedent on hazardous materials

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 63 of 142

1

How long does an exemption under HMIRA last?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 years

  • 2 years

  • 1 year

  • 10 years

Explanation

Question 64 of 142

1

The "fire tetrahedron" includes the four requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.

Select one of the following:

  • flaming

  • combustion

  • flameless

  • spontaneous

Explanation

Question 65 of 142

1

The "fire triangle" includes the three requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.

Select one of the following:

  • flameless

  • flaming

  • oxidizing

  • spontaneous

Explanation

Question 66 of 142

1

For hydrocarbon gases, flaming combustion will cease if oxygen concentration is lowered to less than _______.

Select one of the following:

  • 10%

  • 5%

  • 20%

  • 15%

Explanation

Question 67 of 142

1

Wood may continue to burn in the flameless (glowing) mode, even if oxygen levels drop as low as ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • 5%

  • 15%

  • 25%

  • 10%

Explanation

Question 68 of 142

1

The oxygen concentration in air is ________.

Select one of the following:

  • 21%

  • 20%

  • 10%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 69 of 142

1

At an oxygen concentration of 17%, a person will experience ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • impaired motor coordination

  • death

  • possible unconsiousness

  • difficulty breathing

Explanation

Question 70 of 142

1

At oxygen concentrations of 10-14%, a person will experience _____________ and ___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • impaired judgement, fatigue

  • impaired motor coordination, difficulty breathing

  • loss of consciousness, death

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 71 of 142

1

At oxygen concentration less than 10%, and individual will __________________.

Select one of the following:

  • lose consciousness

  • die

  • become sick

  • lose sight

Explanation

Question 72 of 142

1

How is the vapour density of a product determined?

Select one of the following:

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the weight of air.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the specifc gravity.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the molar mass.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to oxygen.

Explanation

Question 73 of 142

1

How is the rate of evaporation of a product determined?

Select one of the following:

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal air.

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of hydrogen.

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal Butyl acetate.

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of isopropol alcohol.

Explanation

Question 74 of 142

1

How is the specific gravity of a product determined?

Select one of the following:

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of air at a specified temperature.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of hydrogen at a specified temperature.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of oxygen at a specified temperature.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of air at a specified temperature.

Explanation

Question 75 of 142

1

What is the vapour density of propane?

Select one of the following:

  • 1.6 (it falls in air)

  • 1.6 (it rises in air)

  • 0.8 (it falls in air)

  • 0.8 (it rises in air)

Explanation

Question 76 of 142

1

What is the specific gravity of iron?

Select one of the following:

  • 7.5 (it will sink in water)

  • 10 (it will sink in water)

  • 0.75 (it will rise in water)

  • 75 (it will sink in water)

Explanation

Question 77 of 142

1

What is the specific gravity of gasoline?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.8 (it will float on water)

  • 8 (it will float on water)

  • 80 (it will sink on water)

  • 8 (it will sink on water)

Explanation

Question 78 of 142

1

A self-contained breathing apparatus has a cylinder charged to a pressure of _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • 31.03 MPa

  • 5 MPa

  • 103 MPa

  • 62.06 MPa

Explanation

Question 79 of 142

1

Early government involvement in certification of power engineers became more important for the following reasons
except:

Select one of the following:

  • efficiency

  • labour mobility

  • safety

  • pollution

Explanation

Question 80 of 142

1

When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect

Select one of the following:

  • foaming

  • filming

  • an interface

  • scaling

Explanation

Question 81 of 142

1

Committees which establish standards are composed primarily
of which of the following elements?

Select one of the following:

  • experts from the industry, professional and insurance
    groups and all levels of government

  • only multi-National power corporations

  • one independent safety and standardisation board

  • only experts from the industry and government

Explanation

Question 82 of 142

1

Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class
Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to
perform?

Select one of the following:

  • Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
    plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.

  • Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity
    of MORE than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer.

  • Take charge of the general care and operation of a powerplant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as
    chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant.

  • Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.

Explanation

Question 83 of 142

1

Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous intensity?

Select one of the following:

  • au

  • lux

  • cd

  • lumen

Explanation

Question 84 of 142

1

A pascal is equal to

Select one of the following:

  • 1 joule

  • 1 N/ m^2

  • 1 kg/ cm^2

  • 1 kg/ m^2

Explanation

Question 85 of 142

1

One watt is equal to

Select one of the following:

  • 1 pascal/m2

  • 1 N/m2

  • 1 joule/second

  • 1 kilojoule/minute

Explanation

Question 86 of 142

1

A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second
gear?

Select one of the following:

  • 172.06 r/min

  • 344 r/min

  • 294 r/min

  • 1.1 r/min

Explanation

Question 87 of 142

1

Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so as to

Select one of the following:

  • prevent injury to the worker

  • prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank

  • flush the tank gradually

  • reduce the risk of static electricity spark

Explanation

Question 88 of 142

1

The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to the

Select one of the following:

  • pyrophoric effect

  • static electric charge buildup

  • catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface

  • temperature of the mixture

Explanation

Question 89 of 142

1

What is Methane's lower and upper flammable limits?

Select one of the following:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explanation

Question 90 of 142

1

What is Propane's lower and upper flammable limits?

Select one of the following:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explanation

Question 91 of 142

1

What is Butane's lower and upper flammable limits?

Select one of the following:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explanation

Question 92 of 142

1

What is Gasoline's lower and upper flammable limits?

Select one of the following:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explanation

Question 93 of 142

1

What is Kerosene's lower and upper flammable limits?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.7 to 5.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explanation

Question 94 of 142

1

What is Hydrogen Sulphide's lower and upper flammable limits?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.7 to 5.0 %

  • 4.3 to 45.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explanation

Question 95 of 142

1

What is butane's flash point?

Select one of the following:

  • -60 Deg

  • -45 Deg

  • 58 Deg

  • 49 Deg

Explanation

Question 96 of 142

1

What is gasoline's flash point?

Select one of the following:

  • -60 Deg C

  • -45 Deg C

  • 54 Deg C

  • 49 Deg C

Explanation

Question 97 of 142

1

What is 2-D diesel fuel's flash point?

Select one of the following:

  • -60 Deg C

  • -45 Deg C

  • 58 Deg C

  • 49 Deg C

Explanation

Question 98 of 142

1

What is Denatured alcohol's flash point?

Select one of the following:

  • -60 Deg C

  • -45 Deg C

  • 58 Deg C

  • 49 Deg C

Explanation

Question 99 of 142

1

What is Methane's Ignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explanation

Question 100 of 142

1

What is Propane's Ignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explanation

Question 101 of 142

1

What is Natural gasoline's Ignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explanation

Question 102 of 142

1

What is Kerosene's Ignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explanation

Question 103 of 142

1

What is Fuel oil's Ignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 340 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explanation

Question 104 of 142

1

What is Hydrogen Sulphide's Ignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 260 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explanation

Question 105 of 142

1

What is Gasoline's Autoignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explanation

Question 106 of 142

1

What is Diesel's Autoignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explanation

Question 107 of 142

1

What is Jet Fuel's Autoignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explanation

Question 108 of 142

1

What is Hydrogen's Autoignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explanation

Question 109 of 142

1

What is Butane's Autoignition Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explanation

Question 110 of 142

1

Before pouring a flammable liquid from a dispensing container into a receiving container, the containers must be?

Select one of the following:

  • At equal temperatures

  • Bonded together

  • The same size

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 111 of 142

1

Loading a product having a high flash point after a load of a product having a low flash point is called?

Select one of the following:

  • High to low loading

  • Flash point loading

  • Switch loading

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 112 of 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?

Select one of the following:

  • Hand brake and wheels must be chocked on the railway car

  • Washing steam should enter the tank slowly to reduce the risk

  • Grounding connections must be in good condition

  • Trucks don't need to be grounded when the loading spout is inserted.

Explanation

Question 113 of 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?

Select one of the following:

  • Compartments don't need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load

  • To prevent switch loading compartments should be purged with carbon dioxide

  • Deflector should be installed on a loading spout

  • One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.

Explanation

Question 114 of 142

1

One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.

Select one of the following:

  • Deflector should be installed on a loading spout

  • At least five minutes after loading samples must not be obtained

  • One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.

  • Compartments need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load

Explanation

Question 115 of 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?

Select one of the following:

  • Truck or Tank car must contain air before being loaded

  • Containers must be designed for the right type of LPG product being transported

  • Before loading a check should be made to ensure liquids from a previous load are not present

  • LPG containers should never be filled completely.

Explanation

Question 116 of 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?

Select one of the following:

  • Outages left in LPG containers must conform to local regulations.

  • Loading hoses must be hydro statically tested every two years.

  • Container must be not over pressured

  • Before loading LPG the correct type of product must be verified

Explanation

Question 117 of 142

1

Transport tanks carrying LPG should be level before loading and unloading because?

Select one of the following:

  • It is easier to load and unload the LPG

  • Ensure relief valve connection is not flooded

  • Both of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 118 of 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of Tank Gaugers?

Select one of the following:

  • If hydrogen sulphide might be present, three workers should be assigned to the job

  • Tanks should not be gauged when thunderstorms are approaching

  • Defects in ladders and stairways should be reported

  • Thief ropes or cords, may be allowed in some situations

Explanation

Question 119 of 142

1

In gauging procedures allow how much time for the static charge to be reduced after a tank has been filled?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 minutes

  • 20 minutes

  • 30 minutes

  • 40 minutes

Explanation

Question 120 of 142

1

In gauging procedures how much should you open the hatch to allow pressurized vapour to escape?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 cm

  • 1.5 cm

  • 2 cm

  • 2.5 cm

Explanation

Question 121 of 142

1

In mobile storage tanks, a vapour space must be left because?

Select one of the following:

  • Liquid expands due to a temperature increase

  • Liquid explodes due to a temperature increase

  • Both of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 122 of 142

1

What method is used to determine the quantity loaded into the transport?

Select one of the following:

  • Read the rotary gauge on the side of the tank

  • Weighing the unit before and after filling

  • Using temperature - corrected meters

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 123 of 142

1

What is an outage in reference to LPG?

Select one of the following:

  • Space left above the surface of the liquid

  • Amount of liquid left

  • Temperature of the liquid

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 124 of 142

1

The term LD50 refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • lethal dose which results in death of 50% of the test population

  • lethal concentration which resulted in death of 50% of the test population

  • lethal concentration diluted to half strength and supplied to the test population

  • legal exposure in which 50% of the test population survived

Explanation

Question 125 of 142

1

The CEL of H2S is

Select one of the following:

  • 100 ppm

  • 20 ppm

  • 10 ppm

  • 15 ppm

Explanation

Question 126 of 142

1

A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's post accident recovery is

Select one of the following:

  • pre-accident safety record

  • attitude before and after the accident

  • lifestyle off the job

  • support received from the immediate family

Explanation

Question 127 of 142

1

Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be borne by

Select one of the following:

  • management only

  • employees only

  • owners only

  • all persons in the workplace

Explanation

Question 128 of 142

1

The highest proportion of injuries are reported by employees in the age group of

Select one of the following:

  • 26 to 35 years

  • 16 to 25 years

  • 36 to 45 years

  • 46 to 55 years

Explanation

Question 129 of 142

1

When contractors are involved at the site of an incident the contractor with the most control is called the

Select one of the following:

  • principle contractor

  • general contractor

  • sub-contractor

  • building contractor

Explanation

Question 130 of 142

1

During an injury related investigation by an Occupational Health and Safety officer, work being done at the site may be suspended:

Select one of the following:

  • indefinitely

  • until the officer arrives at the scene

  • for a maximum of 48 hours

  • until any serious safety hazards are corrected

Explanation

Question 131 of 142

1

The maximum penalty for an OH&S offence is

Select one of the following:

  • $150,000.00 fine

  • one year in jail

  • 500,000.00 fine and/or one year in jail

  • $300,000.00 fine and one year in jail

Explanation

Question 132 of 142

1

Confined space entry rules apply where the work in progress may cause

Select one of the following:

  • too much noise to withstand

  • equipment being used to become a hazard

  • the worker to refuse to perform his job

  • moisture vapours to be released in the atmosphere

Explanation

Question 133 of 142

1

A confined space may easily become a

Select one of the following:

  • difficult place in which to maneuver

  • breeding ground for biohazardous infectious substances

  • life threatening environment

  • healthy environment

Explanation

Question 134 of 142

1

Before entering any confined space, it is good practice to

Select one of the following:

  • verify the operator's isolation points though the Plant Safety Committee

  • estimate how long you will be there

  • inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts

  • plan the entry using a confounded entry space check list

Explanation

Question 135 of 142

1

Which of the following is not an item that must be considered when vessel entry permits are prepared?

Select one of the following:

  • Is the required oxygen level measured and assured (minimum level of 20% O2 by volume)?

  • Is the temperature in the space within tolerable working limits?

  • Is the confined space structurally safe to enter?

  • Has the head of the plant safety department been notified?

Explanation

Question 136 of 142

1

Confined space means any enclosed or partially enclosed space having:

Select one of the following:

  • harmful gases, vapours, mist, or dust

  • no way out

  • limited room for tools and equipment

  • restricted entry and exit

Explanation

Question 137 of 142

1

Confined space entry will apply to areas which lack:

Select one of the following:

  • ambient air temperatures

  • proper lighting

  • proper air ventilation

  • a simple means of entry

Explanation

Question 138 of 142

1

The minimum level of oxygen in a confined space area is:

Select one of the following:

  • 8%

  • 10%

  • 15%

  • 20%

Explanation

Question 139 of 142

1

Requirements for entry into confined spaces is governed by the:

Select one of the following:

  • Occupational Health and Safety Act

  • Boiler and Pressure Vessels Regulation

  • Workers' Compensation Act

  • Provincial Firemans Regulation

Explanation

Question 140 of 142

1

A worker in a confined space that is being ventilated also requires:

Select one of the following:

  • a self-contained breathing apparatus

  • an approved fire extinguisher

  • permission from OH&S to be there

  • to be in communication with another worker nearby

Explanation

Question 141 of 142

1

A person attending to a worker in a confined space may leave his or her station:

Select one of the following:

  • to retrieve tools or equipment for the worker

  • only long enough to go to the washroom

  • only when properly relieved by another qualified person

  • for ten minutes every hour

Explanation

Question 142 of 142

1

When tests indicate harmful gases are present in a confined space where a worker must enter, he or she must:

Select one of the following:

  • wear approved respiratory protective equipment

  • wait until the gases dissipate

  • receive special permission from OH&S before entering

  • wear a safety belt and lifeline

Explanation

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