Practice ATP Interview #3

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Question 1 of 48

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?

Select one of the following:

Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course
Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach
Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further insturction

Explanation

Question 2 of 48

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?

Select one of the following:

A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization
A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot
Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach

Explanation

Question 3 of 48

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a tubrine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?

Select one of the following:

200 knots
210 knots
250 knots

Explanation

Question 4 of 48

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?

Select one of the following:

188 knots
210 knots
230 knots

Explanation

Question 5 of 48

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?

Select one of the following:

Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible
Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC
Advice ATC of the airspeed that will be used

Explanation

Question 6 of 48

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?

Select one of the following:

At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible
When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible
At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost

Explanation

Question 7 of 48

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon?

Select one of the following:

Arrival at the DH on the glide slope
Arrival at the visual descent point
Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach

Explanation

Question 8 of 48

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descent below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?

Select one of the following:

Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA
Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen
The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable

Explanation

Question 9 of 48

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot:

Select one of the following:

May begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude
Must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes
May descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course

Explanation

Question 10 of 48

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?

Select one of the following:

1/4 SM
3/4 SM
3/8 SM

Explanation

Question 11 of 48

The prescribed visibility criteria for RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?

Select one of the following:

3/8 SM
5/8 SM
3/4 SM

Explanation

Question 12 of 48

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for RVR value?

Select one of the following:

5/8 SM
3/4 SM
7/8 SM

Explanation

Question 13 of 48

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

Select one of the following:

The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book
2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA
The actual minimums shown on the chart for the airport

Explanation

Question 14 of 48

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?

Select one of the following:

Read the clearance back in its entirety
Request a clarification from ATC
Do not accept the clearance

Explanation

Question 15 of 48

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?

Select one of the following:

High altitudes close to the VORTAC
Low altitudes close to the VORTAC
Low altitudes far from the VORTAC

Explanation

Question 16 of 48

What DME indicator should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?

Select one of the following:

0 DME miles
2 DME miles
2.3 DME miles

Explanation

Question 17 of 48

What functions are provided by ILS?

Select one of the following:

Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle
Azimuth, range and vertical angle
Guidance, range, and visual information

Explanation

Question 18 of 48

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?

Select one of the following:

108.10 to 118.10 MHz
108.10 to 111.95 MHz
108.10 to 117.95 MHz

Explanation

Question 19 of 48

The Lowest ILS Category II minimums are?

Select one of the following:

DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet
DH 100 feet and RVR 1200 feet
DH 150 feet and RVR 1500 feet

Explanation

Question 20 of 48

What is the Lowest Category IIIA minimum?

Select one of the following:

DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet
RV 1000 feet
RVR 700 feet

Explanation

Question 21 of 48

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan to be:

Select one of the following:

RNAV equipped
Astrotracker equipped
FMS/EFIS equipped

Explanation

Question 22 of 48

(Refer to Image) Assume that the reported weather conditions at the time of departure are 500 feet overcast, 2 miles visibility, and the wind is calm. If you determine that the climb performance for your airplane is 400 feet per nautical mile, which runway should you choose for departure?
IMAGINE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

Select one of the following:

Rwy 9
Rwy 27

Explanation

Question 23 of 48

(Refer to Image) When filing your flight plan, what code should you enter on the flight plan for the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE with julian Transition?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

Select one of the following:

BRDR5.IPL
BRDR5.JLI
BFDR5.BRWOS.JLI

Explanation

Question 24 of 48

(Refer to Image) If you depart Runway 27, what heading should you use until you reach PGY 19 DME?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

Select one of the following:

Heading 275
Heading 270
Heading 090

Explanation

Question 25 of 48

(Refer to Image) Where does the basic portion of BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE procedure end?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

Select one of the following:

At the Poggi VORTAC
At BROWS intersection
At the Imperial VORTAC

Explanation

Question 26 of 48

(Refer to Image) What is the departure control frequency for Runway 9 at KSAN?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

Select one of the following:

124.35
119.6

Explanation

Question 27 of 48

(Refer to Image) What is the length of the Imperial Transition?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

Select one of the following:

25 nautical miles
64 nautical miles
75 nautical miles

Explanation

Question 28 of 48

(Refer to Image) If you depart Runway 27 on the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE, Imperial Transition, what initial altitude can you expect?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

Select one of the following:

7000 feet at the Poggi VORTAC
7000 feet at the BROWS intersection
your initial altitude will be assigned by the controller

Explanation

Question 29 of 48

(Refer to Image) What is the appropriate frequency to receive information regarding instrument approach procedure in progress at San Diego International Airport?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

Select one of the following:

134.8
124.35
119.6

Explanation

Question 30 of 48

(Refer to Image) What is the elevation of San Diego International Airport?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

Select one of the following:

150 feet MSL
15 feet MSL
14 feet MSL

Explanation

Question 31 of 48

(Refer to Image) What is the minimum glide slope intercept altitude when you are inbound on the intermediate approach segment?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

Select one of the following:

2000 feet MSL
1949 feet MSL

Explanation

Question 32 of 48

(Refer to Image) If you are executing ILS RWY 09, at what point will you initiate the missed approach procedure?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

Select one of the following:

350 feet
530 feet
346 feet

Explanation

Question 33 of 48

(Refer to Image) If you are circling to land at 100 knots in a Category A aircraft, what is your MDA (H) and visibility requirement?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

Select one of the following:

800 feet and 1 statute mile
800 feet and 1 1/4 statute mile
800 feet and 2 1/4 statute mile

Explanation

Question 34 of 48

(Refer to Image) If the glide slope flag appears in your CDI after passing GATTO, what is the minimum altitude to which you can descend? How can you identify the MAP?
IMAGE LINK"https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

Select one of the following:

540 feet and 2.2 DME from ISAN
350 feet and 2.2 DME from ISAN

Explanation

Question 35 of 48

What is the expected duration of an individual micro burst?

Select one of the following:

Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes
One micro burst may continue for as long as an hour
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

Explanation

Question 36 of 48

Maximum downdrafts in a micro burst encounter may be as strong as:

Select one of the following:

1,500 ft/min
4,500 ft/min
6,000 ft/min

Explanation

Question 37 of 48

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a micro burst, may expect a total shear across the micro burst of:

Select one of the following:

40 knots
80 knots
90 knots

Explanation

Question 38 of 48

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?

Select one of the following:

Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases
Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases
Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases

Explanation

Question 39 of 48

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?

Select one of the following:

Sudden decrease in a headwind component
Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity
Sudden increase in a headwind component

Explanation

Question 40 of 48

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?

Select one of the following:

Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease
Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease
Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase

Explanation

Question 41 of 48

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind sheard?

Select one of the following:

Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed
Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed," and apply maximum power
Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than -normal airspeed indications

Explanation

Question 42 of 48

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?

Select one of the following:

Decreasing headwind or tailwind
Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind

Explanation

Question 43 of 48

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

Select one of the following:

Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind
Increasing tailwind and headwind
Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind

Explanation

Question 44 of 48

Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"?

Select one of the following:

Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted
Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min
Any rapid change of airspeed grater than 20 knots which is sustained from more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in ecxess of 100 ft/min

Explanation

Question 45 of 48

Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?

Select one of the following:

Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance
decreased takeoff distance
Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff

Explanation

Question 46 of 48

Maximum downdrafts in a micro burst encounter may be as strong as?

Select one of the following:

8,000 ft/min
7,000 ft/min
6,000 ft/min

Explanation

Question 47 of 48

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a micro burst, may expect a total shear across the micro burst off?

Select one of the following:

40 knots
80 knots
90 knots

Explanation

Question 48 of 48

What is the expected duration of an individual micro burst?

Select one of the following:

Two minutes with a maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute
One micro burst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

Explanation

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	Created by Jose Brid about 8 years ago

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Practice ATP Interview #3

Practice ATP Interview #3

Question 1 of 48

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 48

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 48

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a tubrine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 48

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 48

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 48

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 48

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 48

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descent below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 48

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 48

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 48

The prescribed visibility criteria for RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 48

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for RVR value?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 48

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 48

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 48

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 48

What DME indicator should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 48

What functions are provided by ILS?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 48

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 48

The Lowest ILS Category II minimums are?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 48

(Refer to Image) When filing your flight plan, what code should you enter on the flight plan for the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE with julian Transition?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

(Refer to Image) If you depart Runway 27, what heading should you use until you reach PGY 19 DME?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

(Refer to Image) Where does the basic portion of BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE procedure end?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

(Refer to Image) What is the departure control frequency for Runway 9 at KSAN?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

(Refer to Image) What is the length of the Imperial Transition?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

(Refer to Image) If you depart Runway 27 on the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE, Imperial Transition, what initial altitude can you expect?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"

(Refer to Image) What is the appropriate frequency to receive information regarding instrument approach procedure in progress at San Diego International Airport?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

(Refer to Image) What is the elevation of San Diego International Airport?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

(Refer to Image) What is the minimum glide slope intercept altitude when you are inbound on the intermediate approach segment?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

(Refer to Image) If you are executing ILS RWY 09, at what point will you initiate the missed approach procedure?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

(Refer to Image) If you are circling to land at 100 knots in a Category A aircraft, what is your MDA (H) and visibility requirement?
IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"

(Refer to Image) If the glide slope flag appears in your CDI after passing GATTO, what is the minimum altitude to which you can descend? How can you identify the MAP?
IMAGE LINK"https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"