buzzybea1
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Bvms small animals (rabies) Quiz on Past MCQ questions, created by buzzybea1 on 18/02/2014.

148
0
0
buzzybea1
Created by buzzybea1 almost 11 years ago
Close

Past MCQ questions

Past MCQ questions

Question 1 of 57

1

You get a positive result on an in house FeLV test, what do you do next?

Select one of the following:

  • Put the cat to sleep

  • There's a 50% chance that its a false positive, so send the blood for confirmation

  • There's a 5% chance that its a false positive, so send the blood for confirmation

  • Give the cat antibiotics

  • Do nothing the prognosis is good

Explanation

Question 2 of 57

1

Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 1- feline infectous peritonitis

Select one of the following:

  • a- Upper respiratory signs

  • B- anaemia

  • C- Ascites

  • D- conjunctivitis

  • E- sudden death

Explanation

Question 3 of 57

1

Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 2- candidatus mycoplasma haemominutum

Select one of the following:

  • A- Upper respiratory signs

  • B- anaemia

  • C- ascites

  • D- conjunctivitis

  • E- sudden death

Explanation

Question 4 of 57

1

Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 3- feline panleucopenia virus

Select one of the following:

  • A- upper respiratory signs

  • B- anaemia

  • C-ascites

  • D- conjunctivitis

  • E- Sudden death

Explanation

Question 5 of 57

1

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding propofol?

Select one of the following:

  • It can cause Heinz body anaemia in cats

  • It exhibits low hepatic clearance

  • It is irritant if administered perivascularly

  • If presented in rubber topped vials it can be kept for 72 hrs after first use

  • It causes an increase in arterial blood pressure

Explanation

Question 6 of 57

1

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange?

Select one of the following:

  • Is zoonotic

  • Demodex canis mites are commensal

  • Is a common disease

  • Mostly occurs in dogs under one year of age

  • Can be easily diagnosed

Explanation

Question 7 of 57

1

Which ONE of the following is NOT a valid treatment for sarcoids in the horse?

Select one of the following:

  • Intralesional injection with cisplatin

  • Iridium wires

  • Autogenous vaccine

  • Cryosurgery

  • AW4-LUDES (Liverpool Cream)

Explanation

Question 8 of 57

1

The anatomical staging system used to assess tumour extent is known as
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • MNT

  • MTN

  • NMT

  • NTM

  • TNM

Explanation

Question 9 of 57

1

Which is the most malignant oropharyngeal tumour Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Acanthomatous equlid

  • Fibrosarcoma

  • Gingival squamous cell carcinoma

  • Ossifying epulid

  • Tonsillar carcinoma

Explanation

Question 10 of 57

1

In the dog scrotal ablation is definitely indicated for
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • castration for inguinal hernia

  • castration for testicular neoplasia

  • elective closed castration

  • elective open castration

  • when castration is a co-treatment for perineal hernia

Explanation

Question 11 of 57

1

For a solitary skin mass on the distal limb, which would NOT form part of your normal work up
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • FNA

  • Incisional biopsy

  • palpation of the local lymph node

  • thoracic radiography

  • urinalysis

Explanation

Question 12 of 57

1

Which imaging modality is most sensitive to detecting changes in the middle ear
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • a. Computed Tomography

  • b. Otoscopy

  • c. Plain radiography

  • d. Ultrasound

  • e. Video otoscopy

Explanation

Question 13 of 57

1

The best ancillary aid for the diagnosis of sublingual sialocoele is
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • a. “drip test”

  • b. fine needle aspirate smear

  • c. plain radiographs

  • d. sialography

  • e. ultrasonography

Explanation

Question 14 of 57

1

Which dermatological diseases does NOT typically present with pruritus in the dog
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Atopic dermatitis

  • Cheyletiellosis

  • Food allergy

  • Sarcoptic acariasis

  • Seasonal flank alopecia

Explanation

Question 15 of 57

1

A client asks about managing oestrus in her female Ferret. She plans to use the Jill for breeding in 2 years time. What is the most appropriate advice

Select one of the following:

  • a. Administer oral Megoestrol acetate until breeding is required

  • b. An Ovariohysterectomy should be performed on the Jill

  • c. House the Jill individually until breeding is required

  • d. Keep the Jill with a Castrated Hob

  • e. Use a Deslorelin implant until breeding is required

Explanation

Question 16 of 57

1

Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • a. Caecum

  • b. Left dorsal colon

  • c. Pelvic flexure

  • d. Small colon

  • e. Small intestine

Explanation

Question 17 of 57

1

Cases of Spirocerca lupi are most likely to be seen in
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • a. Canada

  • b. Denmark

  • c. Morocco

  • d. Scotland

  • e. Tanzania

Explanation

Question 18 of 57

1

The gravel sign in the dog is indicative of
Choose one answer

Select one of the following:

  • a. complete intestinal obstruction

  • b. intestinal lymphoma

  • c. intestinal volvulus

  • d. partial intestinal obstruction

  • e. typhlitis

Explanation

Question 19 of 57

1

Which is NOT usually associated with small intestinal diarrhoea in the dog
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Borborygmi

  • Increased frequency of defecation

  • Increased volume of faeces

  • Steathorrea

  • Weight loss

Explanation

Question 20 of 57

1

Which ONE of the following is NOT a cause of haematuria in the dog
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Cystitis

  • prostatitis

  • pyelonephritis

  • renal amyloidosis

  • uroltiasis

Explanation

Question 21 of 57

1

Which is FALSE regarding the Lack coaxial breathing system

Select one of the following:

  • Its a non rebreathing system

  • Its classified as a mapelson A

  • Its unsuitable for long term IPPV

  • The fresh gas flows down the outer tube

  • The reservoir bag is on the expiratory limb

Explanation

Question 22 of 57

1

Which condition is NOT associated with ascites in the dog
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Cirrhosis with portal hypertension and hypoalbuminaemia

  • Glomerulonephritis with hypoalbuminaemia

  • Mitral dysplasia and left sided heart failure

  • Pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade

  • Pulmonic stenosis and right sided heart failure

Explanation

Question 23 of 57

1

Which clinical sign is NOT seen in cats with chronic renal failure
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Anaemia

  • hypertension (high blood pressure)

  • polyphagia

  • polyuria/polydipsia

  • weight loss

Explanation

Question 24 of 57

1

In nuclear scintigraphy the key data is gathered from
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha particles

  • Beta particles

  • Gamma rays

  • positrons

  • x-rays

Explanation

Question 25 of 57

1

Which cytological feature listed below is NOT consistent with malignancy

Select one of the following:

  • High mitotic rate

  • large number of nucleoli

  • multinucleate cells

  • small nuclear sizes

  • variation in the cells size and shape

Explanation

Question 26 of 57

1

Which poison is LEAST likely to be fatal once clinical signs have developed
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Acorns

  • carbon monoxide

  • Ethylene glycol

  • metaldehyde

  • paraquat

Explanation

Question 27 of 57

1

A dog is presented with a large tissue defect of the inner thigh and stifle. 
Which axial pattern flap would you use to close the defect

Select one of the following:

  • caudal auricular

  • caudal superfical epigastric

  • omocervical

  • reverse saphenous

  • thoracodorsalis

Explanation

Question 28 of 57

1

Using the Triadan system of dental nomenclature what is the correct identification of the left maxillary wolf tooth in the horse

Select one of the following:

  • 104

  • 105

  • 204

  • 205

  • 304

Explanation

Question 29 of 57

1

Which treatment is NOT used for laryngeal hemiplagia in the horse

Select one of the following:

  • larygoplasty

  • Neuromuscular pedicle graft

  • staphelectomy

  • tie back

  • ventriculocordectomy

Explanation

Question 30 of 57

1

Which statement describes why rectal examination is so important in dogs with PUPD

Select one of the following:

  • To check for anal adenoma

  • To check for apocrine gland adenocarcinoma of anal sac

  • To check for bladder patency

  • To check for constipation

  • To check for pelvic lymphadenopathy, a good indicator of T-cell lymphoma

Explanation

Question 31 of 57

1

Which statement about gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) is FALSE
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • A large/Giant breed of dog is has a higher risk of getting a GDV than a smaller dog

  • Dogs characterised by their owners as happy or easy going dogs are at lower risk of GDV than nervous dogs

  • Eating rapidly decreases susceptibility to GDV

  • Having a first degree relative that has had GDV is a risk factor for GDV

  • Middle aged to older dogs have a higher risk of getting GDV than young dogs

Explanation

Question 32 of 57

1

The ideal pressure, in pounds per square inch (psi), for lavaging a wound in a dog is
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • <5 PSI

  • 5-15 PSI

  • 15-25 PSI

  • 25-30 PSI

  • >30 PSI

Explanation

Question 33 of 57

1

You have the option of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) to assess a pituitary mass in a dog. Which statement is TRUE

Select one of the following:

  • Cerebrospinal fluid in the lateral ventricles is always black on MRI but can be white or black on CT

  • CT does not require the use of contrast (unlike MRI)

  • CT generally does not require an anaesthetic whereas MRI does

  • MRI produces higher detail than CT

  • The levels of ionising radiation produced by MRI are much higher then produced by CT

Explanation

Question 34 of 57

1

Which group of clinicopathological findings is consistent with liver failure
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Elevated albumin, low globulin, normal urea

  • Low albumin, low globulin, elevated urea

  • Low albumin, normal globulin, elevated urea

  • Low albumin, normal globulin, low urea

  • Normal albumin, normal globulin, elevated urea

Explanation

Question 35 of 57

1

During surgical repair of a perineal hernia which nerve is adjacent to the sacrotuberous ligament and potentially liable to damage

Select one of the following:

  • Femoral

  • obturator

  • perineal (pudendal)

  • sacral

  • sciatic

Explanation

Question 36 of 57

1

Which imaging modality is most sensitive to detecting changes in the middle ear
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • CT

  • Ottoscope

  • Plain radiograph

  • ultrasound

  • video ottoscope

Explanation

Question 37 of 57

1

The best ancillary aid for the diagnosis of sublingual sialocoele is
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • ''drip test''

  • FNA smear

  • plain radiographs

  • sialography

  • U/S

Explanation

Question 38 of 57

1

Which dermatological diseases does NOT typically present with pruritus in the dog
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Atopic dermatitis

  • Cheyletiellosis

  • Food allergy

  • Sarcoptic acariasis

  • Seasonal flank alopecia

Explanation

Question 39 of 57

1

A 3 year old female neutered cat presents in July with bilaterally symmetrical alopecia. The owner reported a similar problem the previous summer which resolved in the winter. Which disease would you want to rule out first (i.e. what is your main differential diagnosis)

Select one of the following:

  • Feline cushings

  • feline hypothyroidism

  • Flea allergy dermatitis

  • Food allergy dermatitis

  • psychogenic allopecia

Explanation

Question 40 of 57

1

Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Caecum

  • Left dorsal colon

  • pelvic flexure

  • small colon

  • small intestine

Explanation

Question 41 of 57

1

Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Caecum

  • Left dorsal colon

  • pelvic flexure

  • small colon

  • small intestine

Explanation

Question 42 of 57

1

Following intravenous administration of ketamine what commonly occurs
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Bradycardia

  • Hypertension

  • Increased reap rate

  • pupillary constriction

  • vomiting

Explanation

Question 43 of 57

1

Which statement does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Can be easily diagnosed

  • Demodex canis mites are commensal

  • Is a common disease

  • Is zoonotic

  • mostly occurs in dogs <1 year old

Explanation

Question 44 of 57

1

Which statement does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Can be easily diagnosed

  • Demodex canis mites are commensal

  • Is a common disease

  • Is zoonotic

  • mostly occurs in dogs <1 year old

Explanation

Question 45 of 57

1

Which drug is contra-indicated in the treatment of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Atenolol

  • Benazipril

  • Digoxin

  • Diltiazem

  • frusemide

Explanation

Question 46 of 57

1

The pain resulting from large colon volvulus in the horse is best characterized as

Select one of the following:

  • Mild pain, responsive to analgesia

  • Mild pain, unresponsive to analgesia

  • Moderate pain, responsive to analgesia

  • Severe pain, responsive to analgesia

  • Severe pain, unresponsive to analgesia

Explanation

Question 47 of 57

1

The commonest bone tumour in giant breed dogs is
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Chondrosarcoma

  • Haemangiosarcoma

  • multiple myeloma

  • osteoma

  • osteosarcoma

Explanation

Question 48 of 57

1

Which is most likely to lead to post-anaesthetic myopathy in a horse having colic surgery under isoflourane / oxygen anaesthesia

Select one of the following:

  • administration of hypertonic saline prior to anaesthesia

  • elevated carbon dioxide concentration in arterial blood

  • mean arterial blood pressure of 78mmHg

  • repeated movement during the procedure due to ‘light’ anaesthesia, necessitating intermittent ‘top-ups’ with ketamine

  • surgical duration of 4 hours

Explanation

Question 49 of 57

1

For a solitary skin mass on the distal limb, which would NOT form part of your normal work up
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • FNA

  • Incisional biopsy

  • palpation of the lymph nodes

  • thraocic radiography

  • urinalysis

Explanation

Question 50 of 57

1

Immediate surgery is indicated for diaphragmatic rupture when
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • A coexisting ventrolateral rupture is present

  • The animal is cyanotic

  • The stomach is in the thorax

  • There is a gastric dilation

  • There is significant pleural effusion

Explanation

Question 51 of 57

1

Which would be the likely underlying cause of the ascites
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Adenocarcinoma

  • Bacterial peritonitis

  • FIP

  • Ruptured bladder

  • Visceral mast cell neoplasia

Explanation

Question 52 of 57

1

Which is most likely to require a TECA/LBO
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Glue ear

  • Irreversible otitis externa

  • Pinnal squamous cell carcinoma

  • Reversible otitis externa

  • Vertical canal polyp

Explanation

Question 53 of 57

1

Which is most likely to require a TECA/LBO
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Glue ear

  • Irreversible otitis externa

  • Pinnal squamous cell carcinoma

  • Reversible otitis externa

  • Vertical canal polyp

Explanation

Question 54 of 57

1

Which agent is appropriate for therapy of Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO) in the horse
Choose one answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Beclomethasone

  • Bethanecol

  • Carprofen

  • Chloramphenicol

  • Oxytetracycline

Explanation

Question 55 of 57

1

Which is true of alfaxalone

Select one of the following:

  • can be used in cats but not dogs

  • can be used in dogs but not cats

  • causes pain on injection

  • is formulated in cyclodextrin

  • tends to cause histamine release

Explanation

Question 56 of 57

1

Which opioid should be avoided for premedication in a dog presented for endoscopic removal of a bone lodged in the oesophagus

Select one of the following:

  • buprenorphine

  • butorphanol

  • methadone

  • morphine

  • Pithidine

Explanation

Question 57 of 57

1

The aetiology of equine laminitis is multifactorial, all of the below predisposing risk factors have been associated with the onset of laminitis EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

  • Endometritis

  • Equine rhabdomyolysis syndrome

  • Hyperadrenocoriticism

  • Obesity

  • strangulating intestinal lesions

Explanation

Previous
Next