Evelyn Hernandez
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Quiz on 3DX7X Volume 1 URE, created by Evelyn Hernandez on 30/05/2016.

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Evelyn Hernandez
Created by Evelyn Hernandez about 8 years ago
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3DX7X Volume 1 URE

Question 1 of 100

1

Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

Select one of the following:

  • Computer Systems Programing

  • Cyber Systems Operations

  • Cyber Transport Systems

  • Cyber Surety

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

Select one of the following:

  • Minimum rank of SSgt

  • 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees

  • Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements

  • Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Which of the following functions is PRIMARILY STAFFED by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

Select one of the following:

  • Communications Focal Point

  • Unit Deployment Monitor

  • Enterprise Service Desk

  • Quality Assurance

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

What document directs the Communication Focal Point KEY PROCESSES?

Select one of the following:

  • TO 00-5-15

  • MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

  • Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory

  • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming CENTRALIZED?

Select one of the following:

  • at major command functional managers

  • at Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

  • at the Air Force Personnel Center

  • with career field managers

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Which of the following is the OFFICIAL SOURCE OF MANPOWER INFORMATION for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

Select one of the following:

  • Program Element Code (PEC)

  • Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

  • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

  • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

Select one of the following:

  • Program Element Code (PEC)

  • Special Experience Identifier (SEI)

  • Authorization Change Request (CR)

  • Unit Personnel Management Resource (UPMR)

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

Select one of the following:

  • Construct career paths

  • Manage skill-level training requirements

  • Establish requirements for entry into the career field

  • Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Who serves as the Major Command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Select one of the following:

  • MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)

  • MAJCOM Functional Manager

  • Career Field Manager (CFM)

  • SAF/CIO (A6)

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Which Segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on TRAINING PROFICIENCY LEVELS AND TRAINING RESOURCING?

Select one of the following:

  • Segment 1

  • Segment 2

  • Segment 3

  • Segment 4

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Select one of the following:

  • Draft and sign minutes

  • Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)

  • Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description

  • Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Which of the following is an OPTIONAL ATTENDEE for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Select one of the following:

  • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)

  • AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer

  • Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

  • MAJCOM Functional Manager

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Select one of the following:

  • Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)

  • Quality Training Package (QTP)

  • Subject Matter Experts (SME)

  • Job Quality Standards (JQS)

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

Select one of the following:

  • Remedy

  • Situational Report (SITREP)

  • Telephone Management System (TMS)

  • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

Select one of the following:

  • Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly

  • Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)

  • Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)

  • Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

Select one of the following:

  • Communications Focal Point

  • Flight Commander/Chief

  • Production Controller

  • Commander

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan ONLY IF APPLICABLE TO THE WORK CENTER?

Select one of the following:

  • Master Task List

  • Job Qualification Standard

  • Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

  • Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of NEW EQUIPMENT/SYSTEM ACCEPTANCE?

Select one of the following:

  • 30

  • 60

  • 90

  • 120

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Which statement is NOT a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Select one of the following:

  • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare

  • Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission

  • Create an Air Fore in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on and off-duty activities

  • Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 4

  • 6

  • 8

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Supervisors document and maintain COMPLETED SAFETY TRAINING on

Select one of the following:

  • AF Form 55

  • AF Form 971

  • AF Form 623A

  • AF Form 623A and AF Form 55

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT a term for Job Safety Analysis?

Select one of the following:

  • Job Safety Training (JST)

  • Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)

  • Task Hazard Analysis (THA)

  • Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?

Select one of the following:

  • Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) Procedures

  • Resources required to manage and use TOs

  • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

  • Training to manage and use TOs

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Recommended technical order (TO) changes are REQUIRED to be submitted on

Select one of the following:

  • AFTO Form 673

  • AFTO Form 22

  • AF Form 673

  • AF Form 22

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Who determines is local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • Library Custodian

  • Flight commander/chief

  • Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

  • Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association?

Select one of the following:

  • Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)

  • American National Standard Institute (ANSI)

  • Information and Communications Technology (ICT)

  • Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Select one of the following:

  • Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)

  • American National Standard Institute (ANSI)

  • Information and Communications Technology (ICT)

  • Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

Select one of the following:

  • The Authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)

  • Commander/director responsible for the guidance

  • The authoring OPR's supervisor

  • Publications Manager

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)

  • Telecommunications industry Association (TIA)

  • Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)

  • Military Only

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

Select one of the following:

  • 10

  • 15

  • 37

  • 50

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title?

Select one of the following:

  • 15

  • 18

  • 32

  • 37

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for PUBLIC AND PRIVATE WEBSITES?

Select one of the following:

  • Wing Commander

  • Numbered Air Force Commander

  • Communications Squadron Commander

  • Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

Select one of the following:

  • misuse of position

  • a covered relationships

  • non-public information

  • personal conflict of interest

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Which type of fund convers the COST OF RELOCATING FACILITIES?

Select one of the following:

  • Military Personnel (MILPERS)

  • Military Construction (MILCON)

  • Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

  • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • $100,000

  • $250,000

  • $750,000

  • $1,000,000

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

Select one of the following:

  • 10–401

  • 33–360

  • 38–101

  • 64–117

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

Select one of the following:

  • Approval Official (AO).

  • Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

  • DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).

  • Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

Select one of the following:

  • Making authorized transactions.

  • Reconciling transactions.

  • Logging transactions.

  • Funds accountability.

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

Select one of the following:

  • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.

  • Joint Publication 1–02.

  • Joint Publication 1–03.

  • AFI 10–401.

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

Select one of the following:

  • Air Force Chief of Staff.

  • Secretary of the Air Force.

  • Selected major command Command Chiefs.

  • Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

Select one of the following:

  • Wing

  • Group

  • Squadron

  • Major Command

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

Select one of the following:

  • 36–2604

  • 36–2803

  • 36–2805

  • 36–2845.

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 October - 30 September.

  • 1 January - 31 December.

  • 1 April - 31 March.

  • 1 July - 30 June.

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

Select one of the following:

  • 53

  • 63

  • 73

  • 83

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

Select one of the following:

  • Monitor.

  • Scanner.

  • Keyboard.

  • Graphics card.

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

Select one of the following:

  • At least 5.

  • No more than 10.

  • No more than 20.

  • 20 or more.

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

Select one of the following:

  • Simple.

  • Relative.

  • Positive.

  • Absolute.

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Norton Utilities.

  • Acrobat Reader.

  • Virus Scan.

  • WinZip.

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

Select one of the following:

  • High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

  • Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

  • Distance Vector and Link State.

  • RS–232 and RS–530.

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Select one of the following:

  • Network.

  • Physical.

  • Data Link.

  • Transport.

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Select one of the following:

  • Network.

  • Physical.

  • Data Link.

  • Transport.

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Select one of the following:

  • Network.

  • Physical.

  • Data Link.

  • Transport.

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

Select one of the following:

  • Defense Intelligence Agency.

  • Defense Information Systems Agency.

  • Defense Information Systems Network.

  • Department of Defense Information Networks.

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

Select one of the following:

  • The customer

  • Security Manager

  • National Security Agency

  • Communications Squadron

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

What are two classifications for TRANSPORT PROTOCOLS?

Select one of the following:

  • Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

  • Classful and Connectionless Oriented

  • Connectionless Oriented and Classless

  • Classful and Classless

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what MUST HAPPEN BEFORE DATA IS TRANSMITTED BETWEEN CLIENTS

Select one of the following:

  • Authorization

  • Connection establishment

  • Establishment of a clear channel

  • End-to-end connectivity between host applications

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

Select one of the following:

  • Data receive message

  • Sliding Window

  • Buffer

  • Socket

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

Select one of the following:

  • Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

  • Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data

  • Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data

  • Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

How many bits are in an INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) ADDRESS?

Select one of the following:

  • 16

  • 32

  • 64

  • 128

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

What class uses a rang of 1-126 in the first octet of an INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4)?

Select one of the following:

  • Class A

  • Class B

  • Class C

  • Class D

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

What INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Select one of the following:

  • Class C

  • Class D

  • Class E

  • Class F

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

What INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

Select one of the following:

  • Class C

  • Class D

  • Class E

  • Class F

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

What INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) RESERVED ADDRESS is used for LOOP BACK?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.0.0.0

  • 127.0.0.1

  • 207.55.157.255

  • 255.255.255.255

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Instead of using binary, how are INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 6 (IPv6) ADDRESS expressed to be MORE USER-FRIENDLY?

Select one of the following:

  • Colon Hexadecimal Format

  • Dotted Decimal Notation

  • Hexadecimal

  • Octal

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

The range of WELL-KNOWN PORT NUMBERS is

Select one of the following:

  • 1024 to 49151

  • 49152 to 65535

  • 0 to 1023

  • 0 to 1024

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

Select one of the following:

  • Port 80

  • Port 110

  • Port 443

  • Port 8080

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

The design of communications network is known as

Select one of the following:

  • an internet suite

  • the physical layer

  • network architecture

  • network implementation

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communication line within a small geographic area?

Select one of the following:

  • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

  • Local Area Network (LAN)

  • Wide Area Network (WAN)

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

Select one of the following:

  • Local Area Network (LAN)

  • Wide Area Network (WAN)

  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

  • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Select one of the following:

  • 802.11a

  • 802.11b

  • 802.11g

  • 802.11n

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

Select one of the following:

  • 802.11a

  • 802.11b

  • 802.11g

  • 802.11n

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Select one of the following:

  • Physical

  • Logical

  • Hybrid

  • Star

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

Select one of the following:

  • Bus

  • Star

  • Ring

  • Hybrid

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of

Select one of the following:

  • 256 Kbps

  • 256 Mbps

  • 144 Mbps

  • 144 Kbps

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

A modem is a device that

Select one of the following:

  • transmits on every link attached to it

  • modulates and demodulates data signals

  • uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination

  • operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Select one of the following:

  • Hub

  • Bridge

  • Switch

  • Router

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

Select one of the following:

  • modulation of datagrams through an internetwork.

  • Layer–1 error determination and correction through an internetwork

  • Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork

  • transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

  • 5

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

Select one of the following:

  • Line encryption.

  • Link encryption.

  • Device encryption.

  • End-to-end encryption

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

Select one of the following:

  • Coaxial cable.

  • Fiber optic cable.

  • Shielded twisted-pair (STP).

  • Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Which transmission medium is the PRIMARY CARRIER OF VOICE COMMUNICATION?

Select one of the following:

  • Twisted pair cable.

  • Fiber optic cable.

  • Coaxial cable

  • Twinax cable.

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

What is the most common wireless networking standard?

Select one of the following:

  • 802.3

  • 802.9

  • 802.11

  • 802.14

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

Select one of the following:

  • Policy, Security, Authority

  • Authority, Security, Law

  • Law, Authority, Policy

  • Security, Policy, Law

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to EXECUTE cyber operations?

Select one of the following:

  • Title 10

  • Title 30

  • Title 50

  • Title 52

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

Select one of the following:

  • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

  • Base Defense Operations Center

  • 624th Operations Center

  • Air Operations Center

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

Select one of the following:

  • Information Management

  • Network-centric warfare

  • Information Superiority

  • Information Operations

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

Select one of the following:

  • Careful planning

  • Reactive operations

  • Immediate response

  • Information Operations

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

Select one of the following:

  • Electronic Attack

  • Electronic protection

  • Network Exploitation

  • Electronic warfare support

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)

Select one of the following:

  • EW concerns RADIATED energy

  • CNO concerns RADIATED energy

  • EW is only used for OFFENSIVE purposes

  • CNO is only used for DEFENSIVE purposes

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

Select one of the following:

  • Computer Forensics.

  • Incident Prevention.

  • Incident Detection.

  • Incident Response.

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

Select one of the following:

  • Defense-in-Depth.

  • Proactive Defense

  • Situational Awareness.

  • Network Standardization

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

Select one of the following:

  • Supervisory System.

  • Remote Terminal Unit.

  • Human Machine Interface

  • Programmable Logic Controller.

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

Select one of the following:

  • Supervisory System.

  • Remote Terminal Unit.

  • Human Machine Interface.

  • Programmable Logic Controller.

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Which threat vector is considered MORE OF AN ANNOYANCE THAN AN ATTACK?

Select one of the following:

  • Virus.

  • Spam.

  • Spyware.

  • Phishing.

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

Select one of the following:

  • Patches.

  • Antivirus

  • Software removal.

  • Vulnerability scanner.

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Which identity management process uses a FINGERPRINT TO AUTHENTICATE A USER?

Select one of the following:

  • Token.

  • Biometrics.

  • Multifactor.

  • Knowledge-based.

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

Which identity management process uses a PASSWORD to authenticate a user?

Select one of the following:

  • Token

  • Biometrics

  • Multifactor

  • Knowledge-based

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

Select one of the following:

  • Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems

  • End-to-End Performance Monitoring

  • Vulnerability scanners

  • Capacity Planning

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

Select one of the following:

  • Wing commander

  • Authorizing Official (AO)

  • Wing information security office (WIAO)

  • Communications and information systems officer (CSO)

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

The TECHNICAL SOLUTION for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

Select one of the following:

  • only full costs

  • recommended course of action only

  • full cost and recommended course of action

  • full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements

Explanation

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