What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
Benzodiazepines
Opioids
Anticholinergics
Antisialogue
is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is to milligrams IV.
Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
Anxiety
Sedation
Amnesia
Analgesia
What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
Antislalogues
Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
Fentanyl
Morphine
Dilaudid
Demerol
What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
25-100 mcg
25 to 50 mcg
5 to 15 mg
20 to 80 mcg
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
Absence of direct myocardial depression
Less narcotic requirement postoperatively
Reduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
Depression of the medullary ventilatory center
Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
Decreased responsiveness to CO2
Relaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
Nausea and vomiting
Risk of gastric aspiration
Direct myocardial depression
Greater post-op requirements for pain medications
What is the recommended dose for morphine?
2 to 10 mg
10 to 20 mg
5 to 15 mcg
is the typical anticholinergic given.
Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
Antislalogue
Sedative and amnesic
Central nervous system toxicity
Relaxation of LES
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
Sedative and amnesic effects
is dilation of the pupil. can cause this.
Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
Intraoral procedures
Bronchoscopy
Fiberoptic intubations
Supine cases
Lateral cases
What are the effects of atropine?
Antisialagogue
Relaxation of the LES
are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
Atropine
Scopolamine
Robinol
What is the dose for atropine?
0.3 to 0.6 mg
1 to 6 mg
0.3 to 0.6 mcg
1 to 6 mcg
The therapeutic dose for Robinol is mg IV.
Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like .
What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
CAD
Mitral/Aortic stenosis
Atrial fibrillation
Bradycardia
suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: , , and .
What is the dose for Bicitra?
15 to 30 ml
10 to 20 ml
1 to 3 ml
5 to 15 ml
What is the dose for Tagamet?
200 to 300 mg
100 to 150 mg
25 to 100 mg
250 to 350 mg
What is the dose for Zantac IV?
25 mg
50 mg
75 mg
100 mg
What is the dose for Pepcid?
150 mg
20 to 40 mg
An counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
Prilosec
Protonix
Nexium
Prevacid
Pepcid
is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is to mg PO.
are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
What is the dose for Raglan?
5 mg IV
10 mg IV
15 mg IV
20 mg IV
and can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
Clonidine
Decadron
Haldol
What is the dose for Clonidine?
0.1 to 0.3 mg
1 to 2 mg
0.1 to 1 mg
Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
Central-acting anti-hypertensive
Reduces incidence of MI during surgery
Tachycardia
are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
Patients with a history of PONV
Laparoscopic procedures
Women undergoing gynecologic procedures
Radiographic dye studies
Which of the following is not an induction agent?
Succinylcholine
Propofol
Etomidate
Brevital
The is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
What is the induction dose of thiopental?
1 to 5 mg/kg
3 to 6 mg/kg
5 to 10 mg/kg
10 to 15 mg/kg
What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
Isotonic sodium chloride
Lactated ringer's
Acidic solution
Vecuronium
Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for .
works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
The induction dose for Propofol is:
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
1 to 3 mg/kg
20 to 40 mg/kg
0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg
Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
Both and cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
can cause myoclonus.
The induction dose for Brevital is:
1 - 3 mg/kg
2 - 4 mg/kg
Brevital is cleared by the liver at a rate than thiopental.
Sux increases the following: 1. pressure 2. pressure 3. pressure 4.
The dosage for succinylcholine is:
0.5 - 2 mg/kg
1 - 1.5 mg/kg
2 - 2.5 mg/kg
3 - 5 mg/kg
Succinylcholine is a agent.
Name the four M's of succinylcholine: 1. 2. 3. 4.
Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are blocking drugs.
What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
1 to 8 mg/kg
5 to 15 mg/kg
How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
5 minutes
10 minutes
20 minutes
one hour
What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
Cardiac dysfunction
Liver/Kidney dysfunction
Diabetes
Lung disease
What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
0.1 mg/kg
1 mg/kg
2 mg/kg
5 mg/kg
Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
Intubating dose for Atracurium is to mg/kg.
The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
0.2 mg/kg
10 mg/kg
Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
Atracurium and Cisatracurium
Vecuronium and Rocuronium
Atracurium and Rocuronium
Cisatracurium and Rocuronium
Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
Immobility
CNS Depression
Muscle relaxation
MAC stands for .
The MAC of nitrous oxide is percent.
Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
At-risk for nausea and vomiting
In pregnancy
With suspected bowel blockage
At-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities
Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is percent.
Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by .
The MAC of desflurane is percent.
The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a atom for isoflurane's atom.
Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
Desflurane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Nitrous oxide
Wakeup times for are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
The MAC of sevoflurane is percent.
is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
Production of compound A
Shouldn't be used in longer cases
Higher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
Is degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide
❌ muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
Neostigmine is an . It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
The dosage for neostigmine is to mg/kg.
Neostigmine's duration is , give or take.
Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse and .