General Systems (GS)

Question 1 of 64

1

Select the correct response(s):

Select one or more of the following:

Water hammer is negligible in hydraulic system pipe installation.  
Water hammer is an important parameters which used to dimensionate pipes.
Hydraulic Pumps generally used in aircraft hydraulic systems are gear type and capable to  provide roughly same pressure at any flow demand (if below specified max flow demand).
Hydraulic Pumps generally used in aircraft hydraulic systems are piston type and capable to  provide roughly same pressure at any flow demand (if below specified max flow demand).
Acceleration of fluid is not negligible for the calculation of the necessary pressure of hydraulic pressurized reservoirs.

Explanation

Question 2 of 64

1

If the aircraft hydraulic system supply the services that control the direction of the aircraft on the ground (e.g. nosewheel steering and differential braking):  

Select one or more of the following:

, the emergency braking system must have differential control.
, consideration shall be given to supplying the nosewheel steering and normal brakes from different hydraulic systems.

Explanation

Question 3 of 64

1

Common use Aerospace Hydraulic Pumps:

Select one or more of the following:

when engine driven, are installed in engine gearbox. Its suction line and fire shut-off valve in suction line are fire proof tested
when engine driven, are installed in engine gearbox. Its suction line is fire resistant (5 min) and fire shut-off valve in suction line is fire proof tested (15 min).

Explanation

Question 4 of 64

1

Common use Hydraulic Reservoirs :

Select one or more of the following:

Do not need pressurization. Vented type reservoir is sufficient whenever located above the pump.
Utilizes the system pressure, acting on a differential piston, to achieve the required tank pressure.
The pressure required in the reservoir to supply fluid to the pump should be calculated using the guidelines in AIR1922.
This pressure must be sufficient to avoid pump cavitation at Pcrit.
Each reservoir should be equipped with pressure regulating valves and a filter.
No Hydraulic Reservoirs shall be located in a designated fire zone.

Explanation

Question 5 of 64

1

CFG main advantages compared with VFG are:

Select one or more of the following:

Better reliability.
Simpler
Cheaper.
Less volume and weight for for the same power delivered.
Several suppliers able to design and produce them.
Fixed output frequency, with fixed efficiency and capability.
No overvoltage event potentially leading to common failures.

Explanation

Question 6 of 64

1

The emergency system shall power the services necessary to complete a flight and make a safe landing. The services to be powered must include:

Select one or more of the following:

Those required for descent, approach and Landing.
Those required for immediate safety
Those required for continued controlled flight

Explanation

Question 7 of 64

1

New high voltage levels (270 Vdc and 230 Vac) are applicable to civil and military electrical systems since they permit to:

Select one or more of the following:

Increase hydraulic Systems.
Increase Electric Systems.
Increase Pneumatic Systems.
Increase Mechanical Systems.
Reduce electrical power demand.
Decrease the losses in the feeders and distribution wiring.

Explanation

Question 8 of 64

1

Electrical power quality is determined by:

Select one or more of the following:

The electrical consumers.
The interactions of all the electrical generation and supplied equipments.

Explanation

Question 9 of 64

1

Li-Ion battery technology main advantages compared with Ni-Cd one are:

Select one or more of the following:

Less susceptible to abuse conditions.
Less weight for the same power delivered.
Maintenance free and higher service life. This, plus the improved reliability, leads to an important Direct Maintenance Cost (DMC) reduction.
Better control of the SOC. No memory effect.
No mounting restrictions

Explanation

Question 10 of 64

1

LED technology main advantages compared with HID one are:

Select one or more of the following:

Higher reliability.
Higher maximum operating temperature.
Power consumption.
Cost.

Explanation

Question 11 of 64

1

What of the following exterior lights have their illumination performances covered by the EASA Part 25 requirements?  

Select one or more of the following:

Navigation lights.
Landing lights.
Turn-Off/Taxi lights.
Logo lights.
Anticolision lights (Beacon & Strobe).
Wing/Engine Scan Lights.

Explanation

Question 12 of 64

1

The biggest problem in humans associated to exposure at high altitudes is:

Select one or more of the following:

Reduction in temperature.
Reduction of O2 partial pressure.
Lack of oxygen (hypoxia)

Explanation

Question 13 of 64

1

Aerodynamic heating is given, basically, by the total temperature of the air computed as follows Ttot = Tambient (1+ 0.2 Mach2). Given an ISA atmosphere, the heating is maximum in one of the following conditions:

Select one or more of the following:

40 kft, Mach=0.8.
SL, Mach=0.4.

Explanation

Question 14 of 64

1

Minimum standard ventilation to maintain CO2 levels in enclosed spaces is (at SL, 15ºC) according to ASHRAE:

Select one or more of the following:

1.5 kg/min of air.
1 kg/min of air.
0.5 kg/min of air.

Explanation

Question 15 of 64

1

Being one of the most efficient cooling systems, why liquid cooling is not so used:

Select one or more of the following:

Cost.
Temperature range.
Weight.
Efficiency.
Complexity

Explanation

Question 16 of 64

1

Redundancy in cabin pressurization outflow valves is requested:

Select one or more of the following:

Sometimes.
Never.
Always.

Explanation

Question 17 of 64

1

In a wing profile section, ice accretion impingement limits will be most extended in the following case:

Select one or more of the following:

Thick profile, low speed, small droplets.
Thin profile, low speed, big droplets.
Thin profile, high speed, big droplets.

Explanation

Question 18 of 64

1

A deicing system is basically sized to limit quantity of ice accreted. What is the worst flying condition in terms of design:

Select one or more of the following:

Low speed, high Outside Ambient Temperature.
Low speed, low Outside Ambient Temperature
High speed, high Outside Ambient Temperature
High speed, low Outside Ambient Temperature

Explanation

Question 19 of 64

1

Which are the aircraft key operational cases that are normally considered for the sizing of the APU on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport?

Select one or more of the following:

Main Engine Start In Flight at 30 kFt.
On Ground Electrical power demands only.
On Ground Electrical & Pneumatic power demands from the A/C systems

Explanation

Question 20 of 64

1

The APU model PW980 in the AIRBUS A380 is steadily supplying bleed air for the aircraft pneumatic systems (MES or ECS) on ground. In a matter of a couple of seconds, such demand is significantly reduced. What would be the expected immediate reaction from the APU control system?

Select one or more of the following:

The ECB commands the Bleed Valve to close and the APU electrical generator to absorb more shaft power in order to avoid a Load Compressor over speed.
To command the opening of the Anti-surge Valve and the closure of the Inlet Guide Vanes, to alleviate the bleed pressure raise & reduce the bleed airflow supply.
The command to the aircraft’s fuel system to shut off completely the fuel supply to the APU and stop it to prevent the burst of the aircraft’s bleed piping.

Explanation

Question 21 of 64

1

The APU model PW980 in the AIRBUS A380 is steadily supplying bleed air for the aircraft pneumatic systems (ECS) on ground. In a matter of a couple of seconds , such demand signal from the ECS is significantly reduced . Which of these cannot be a normal reaction of the APU Ctrl system under such situation:

Select one or more of the following:

To keep fully open the Bleed Shut-off Valve while correspondingly closing the Load Compressor IGVs.
To automatically shut down the APU in case an oil system overtemperature is sensed by the APU ECB.
To correspondingly close the Load Compressor IGVs to reduce the bleed flow, while keeping constant the fuel flow to maintain a constant L/C speed.
To keep the Surge Valve fully closed while progressively reducing the fuel flow to avoid an APU rotors overspeed condition potentially leading to a rotor burst.

Explanation

Question 22 of 64

1

For the start of the APU engine on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport, the most commonly used system consists on:  

Select one or more of the following:

An electrical 12VDC Starter/Generator.
An electrical 28VDC Starter/Generator.
An electrical 28VDC Starter Motor.
An air turbine starter.

Explanation

Question 23 of 64

1

Which of the following is not a true statement related to APU in-flight start reliability :

Select one or more of the following:

The A350 flight test campaign (Honeywell HGT1700) is already showing in 2013, APU in- flight restart reliabilities of around 98%.
The A330 fleet (Honeywell 331-350 APU) has already shown APU in-flight restart reliabilities of 97%or higher.
The APU shall be operative without permanent presence of operator.
The APU in its installed configuration shall have an adequate in- flight start reliability (not less than 95%) throughout the flight envelope taking account of all approved fuel types and temperatures
The APU in its installed configuration shall have an adequate in- flight start reliability (not less than 83%) throughout the flight envelope taking account of all approved fuel types and temperatures
The APU shall be capable to pressurize the aircraft and maintain an adequate cockpit and cabin environment in one-engine inoperative cruise conditions, taking into account one engine operative requirements, up to 30,000 ft.
The A350 shall be capable to start any engines - regardless of engine starting sequence or engine type (RR or GE) - on ground using battery power supply.

Explanation

Question 24 of 64

1

Which of the following statements is/are not correct? :

Select one or more of the following:

Same as in a propulsive power plant, the APU shall be installed in a Fire Compartment.
The APU engine shall be mounted on the A/C structure with a Suspension System designed  to withstand the corresponding inertial loads.
The APU Air Intake usually has an electrically actuated flap door that is kept closed while the APU is not operating.
The Exhaust Muffler outlet at the very rear end point of the fuselage is the most favorable location for its pressure effect for in-flight APU starts
The Cooling Inlet function is to convey the necessary atmospheric air flow into the APU for both the : Power Unit and Load Compressor

Explanation

Question 25 of 64

1

The installation of the APU in the fuselage tailcone section on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport, presents as a significant drawback:

Select one or more of the following:

The impacts on the aircraft in case of rotor burst.
The noise projection on the ground.
The in-flight aerodynamic conditions.
The accessibility for ground maintenance operations

Explanation

Question 26 of 64

1

The installation of the APU in the fuselage section 19.1 on AIRBUS’s large civil aircrafts for passenger transport, presents a main advantage (when compared to an APU installed in the wing root or main landing gear zones), that is:

Select one or more of the following:

The length of fuel supply line, bleed air pipe & electrical cables lengths.
Maintenance tasks and APU replacement are easier.
The noise projection on the ground.

Explanation

Question 27 of 64

1

Which one is not a key feature for the fire protection design strategy in an typical APS installation? :

Select one or more of the following:

An adequate APU compartment drainage system.
A manual (non-automatic) APU fire detection & extinguishing system for APU ground use.
The use of fireproof titanium firewalls of 0.4 mm thickness.
The installation of the APU in a fire compartment with a fire detection & extinguishing system.

Explanation

Question 28 of 64

1

Which are the key features for the fire protection design strategy in an typical APS installation?

Select one or more of the following:

The fire detection & fire extinguishing systems only.
The installation of the APU in the fuselage tailcone area, and the limitation of the APU use  mostly for ground.
The fireproof design of the APU compartment & components, the ventilation, the drainage, and the fire detection & fire extinguishing systems.

Explanation

Question 29 of 64

1

The primary step for the Certification of the APU system in the aircraft is:  

Select one or more of the following:

To achieve the certification of the aircraft electrical & pneumatic systems to be supplied by the APU.
To achieve the APU Qualification obtained by the manufacturer for the engine by TSO C77B.
The Compatibility & the Flight Test campaigns.

Explanation

Question 30 of 64

1

Which is the primary test platform for certification of the integrated A/C & APU system? :

Select one or more of the following:

The APU engine test cells
The Flight Tests aircrafts
The Compatibility Tests rig.
The Icing Tests rig

Explanation

Question 31 of 64

1

The normal duration of the development cycle for a new APU system in a large transport aircraft is:  

Select one or more of the following:

The duration of the typical A/C’s: Electrical duty cycle + ECS duty cycle – the MES time
Minimum 10 years
6 to 7 years

Explanation

Question 32 of 64

1

Which are the aircraft key operational cases that are normally considered for the sizing of the APU on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport? :

Select one or more of the following:

On Ground Electrical & Pneumatic power demands from the A/C systems  
In-Flight Electrical power demands
Main engine start in flight at 22Kft

Explanation

Question 33 of 64

1

The APU is steadily operating on Max ECS supply condition on ground. Due to an incorrect tightening of the clamp that couples the APU Bleed Valve and the ATA36 pneumatic duct, an air leak takes place in fuselage section 19.1. Which of these statements is correct at that instant? :

Select one or more of the following:

The Surge Control Valve ( SCV ) will be commanded to ‘close’ since the L/C operating condition reaches the cracking line.  
The L/C IGVs control logic will command the closing of the SCV to further increase the flow towards the ECS.
The APU lubrication system heat exchanger will remain air cooled by airflow pumped by the APU exhaust eductor or a gearbox driven fan.
The APU Inlet door position regulated by the ECB will be further opened to increase the airflow through the APU Load Compressor.
The surge control logic will command the closing of the SCV to further increase the flow towards the ECS.

Explanation

Question 34 of 64

1

Which of the following functions correspond to the FCS?

Select one or more of the following:

Stability augmentation
Thrust setting
Positions aerodynamic control surfaces according to pilot, autopilot or stability augmentation inputs
Provides the pilot with the required force feedback
Flight Envelope Protection
Load alleviation (manoeuvre and gust).
Flutter suppression.
Thrust vectoring.
Abnormal position recovery, including post stall

Explanation

Question 35 of 64

1

Two of the following statements are correct. Which ones are they?

Select one or more of the following:

Artificial feel systems are required to provide good handling qualities in irreversible FCS systems
In an “irreversible” FCS, pilot cannot reconfigure the system after a failure.
In an irreversible FCS aerodynamic loads are not fed back to the pilot inceptor

Explanation

Question 36 of 64

1

Identify two drawbacks of the Fly By Wire systems in the list below.

Select one or more of the following:

They require the use of hydraulic systems to provide power to the actuators.
They require a high degree of redundancy.
High development cost and high system clearance effort.
SW development complexity and inherent computing delays.
Safety critical SW certified against Common Mode Failures (testing +
specification).
EMI susceptibility
Evolving regulation.

Explanation

Question 37 of 64

1

Which of the following statements are true for all types of Fly By Wire FCS:

Select one or more of the following:

A mechanical back-up system is required to control the aircraft after a total FBW system failure.
Configuration changes are easy to implement in comparison with mechanically signaled FCS.
May be Active control technology (ACT) or Control configured vehicle (CCV)
Direct mechanical link are replaced by an electrical signalling system
Pilot control aircraft dynamics parameters instead of aircraft surface position 
Improve aircraft natural dynamic behaviour 
Cockpit layout design flexibility 
Reduced maintenance and operational cost 
Reduced weight, increased reliability

Explanation

Question 38 of 64

1

Which of the following statements do not apply to the concept of Control Configured Vehicles:  

Select one or more of the following:

Requires a careful balance between stick force and control authority at low and high speed.
Provides automatic prevention of stall departure and spinning.
Concurrent and complementary design of the basic airframe together with FCS to achieve performance improvements.
Allows improved aircraft performance and manoeuvrability.
Automatic structural protection and gust alleviation enhancing safety and reduce pilot’s workload.
Require full authority FCS with aircraft response feedback.
Use of the FCS to actively compensate for deficiencies in the aerodynamics of the basic airframe.

Explanation

Question 39 of 64

1

What is the main disadvantage of the Electro Mechanical Actuator for its application in Primary FCS?

Select one or more of the following:

If there is a mechanical jamming, control surface remains in the last commanded position.
The mechanical signaling circuit is prone to jamming.

Explanation

Question 40 of 64

1

Identify two inputs to the FCS design from the following list:

Select one or more of the following:

Interface Documents.
Compliance Check List.
Maintenance concept
Technical Direction (Compatibility with A/C Concept and other systems and Target Cost)
Preliminary Design (Control Surface Definition, Space Envelope, Target Weight)
Flight Physics (Functional def., Suf. deflexion, Actuation rate, Trim charact./artificial feel, Failures criticality)
Loads (Hinge moment and Surface deflexion limits)
Regulation (Certification basis and Safety criteria)
Reliability (Failure rate target)
Maintenance (Maintenance Concept and Failure detection level)

Explanation

Question 41 of 64

1

Identify why kerosene type fuels (Jet A-1/JP-8) are safer than wide-cut fuel types (JetA/JP-4) (choose one):

Select one or more of the following:

Kerosene Type Fuels have higher freezing temperature.
Density of Kerosene Type Fuels is higher.
Kerosene Type Fuels is less flammable than Wide-Cut Fuel Types
Kerosene Type Fuels have lower volatility / Vapor Pressure than Wide- Cut Fuel Types.

Explanation

Question 42 of 64

1

Identify what is the purpose of the fuel vent subsystem (choose two):

Select one or more of the following:

Allow fuel thermal expansion inside the tanks without external leakage.
Maintain the fuel tank temperature.
Avoid fuel tank overpressure or under-pressure during climbs and dives.

Explanation

Question 43 of 64

1

For certification of the fuel system is essential to demonstrate that (choose one):

Select one or more of the following:

The fuel reserves are higher than 5% of the fuel tank contents.
The aircraft can be refueled in flight.
The fuel supply of the engines is maintained across all the flight envelope

Explanation

Question 44 of 64

1

What are the advantages of the Boom/Receptacle Air Refuelling Systems compared with probe and drogue Air Refueling System systems (choose two):

Select one or more of the following:

It allows simultaneous air refuelling of two receiver aircraft.
Reduces the receiver pilot work load when in contact.
None, they are fully compatible between them.
Allows reverse refuelling  .
Possibility to refuel aircrafts with probe.
Higher flow rates and then less time to complete   refueling.
A tanker with flying boom can be adapted with a probe-adapter

Explanation

Question 45 of 64

1

What are the advantages of the Probe and Drogue Air Refuelling Systems compared with Boom/Receptacle Air Refueling System systems (choose three):

Select one or more of the following:

It would allow simultaneous air refuelling of two receiver aircraft.
Normally minimizes the modification of the aircraft and fuel system due to the Air Refueling  Installation
None, they are fully compatible between them.
Simpler and cheaper design.
Allows A/Cs not originally designed as tanker to be converted.
Allows higher fuel transfer flow rates minimizing the time in contact.
No BOOM operator is needed.
Can be used to refuel helicopters.

Explanation

Question 46 of 64

1

In terms of safety, which is the main concern in air refuelling operations?

Select one or more of the following:

Transferring fuel is always the big safety concern.
Lack of fuel transfer in flight will not allow the receiver to make a safe landing.
AAR operations requires two aircraft flying in close formation.
In addition to the danger of flying in close formation, there are risks associated with the dispense devices.
Coupling detached & Uncontrolled hose movement.
Requires two aircraft flying in close formation
Several aircraft are flying in close proximity, increasing the pilot workload and hence the risk of collision.
In addition to the danger of flying in close formation, there are risks associated with the dispense devices.

Explanation

Question 47 of 64

1

The purpose of fire detection systems is:

Select one or more of the following:

To eliminate the possibility of a fire in the aircraft
To sense and indicate the presence of overheat, smoke or fire
To signal presence and locate fire in the aircraft
To extinguish the fire in the aircraft.

Explanation

Question 48 of 64

1

Why current fire extinguishing substances (Halon based) have to be replaced in the future? (choose one)

Select one or more of the following:

They are considered risk substances for human health.
Density of halon is too high compared with new substances considered equivalent for fire  extinguishing.
When used, or escape to the atmosphere, they are substances that contribute to destroy the ozone layer of the upper atmosphere.
The Montreal Protocol of 1987 identified Halon 1301 and Halon 1211 as two of a number of halogenated agents requiring limitations of use and production.

Explanation

Question 49 of 64

1

What is the purpose of the self sealing fuel tanks? (choose one)

Select one or more of the following:

The avoid fuel tank explosion sealing the tank after projectile impact.
They reduce the risk of fire in hot areas around the fuel tanks by minimizing fuel leakage in case of a thread impact
To conserve inerting performances by keeping the tank sealed.

Explanation

Question 50 of 64

1

What are the two main factors to be considered in the selection of foams?

Select one or more of the following:

Colour.
Resistance to fuel exposure.
Conductivity

Explanation

Question 51 of 64

1

What are the differences today between OBIGGS for civil airliners and OBIGGS for military airplane (choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

Civil ones are more demanding than military one.  
There is not any difference.
Military: The objective is to reduce vulnerability and enhance the ability to survive enemy fire into a possibly explosive fuel tank.
Civil: Active protection on center wing or body style tanks reasons of being unused by operators and are prone to be heated due to the usual closeness of heat sources like the air conditioning packs.
The purpose of civil ones is to minimize the risk of tank explosion in case of fuel system failures and military ones is to minimize the risk of tank explosion in case of external military threats.
For military application Limiting Oxygen Concentration LOC =9% and civil LOC=12%.

Explanation

Question 52 of 64

1

Ground testing allows:

Select one or more of the following:

Test individual elements .
Test all aspects of the complete a/c and of the man/machine interface.
Modeling, simulation, individual elements or the complete a/c are tested as far as possible to find design deviations as soon as possible.

Explanation

Question 53 of 64

1

Identify what tests are performed during pre-flight test phase:

Select one or more of the following:

Structural loads tests .
Functional tests
Taxi tests.
Wind Tunnel tests
Simulation tests.
Ground vibration tests.
Gain margin tests.
Weight & Balance.
Propulsion tests.

Explanation

Question 54 of 64

1

The Nose Wheel arrangement of an airplane is shown in attached figure:

Select one or more of the following:

Statically neutral, Dynamically neutral suitable only for steered mounting and shimmy damper required.
Statically neutral, Dynamically stable, Stable in reverse when wheel casters right around, Normally Shimmy damper required unless twin wheels coupled in rotation used.
Statically unstable. Dynamically Stable. Unstable in reverse. Must be locked or steered.

Explanation

Question 55 of 64

1

Brake by wire system control typically has critical partitions as:

Select one or more of the following:

Brake by wire systems do not use brake order computer control. The command is mechanically transmitted by to the Brake Valve. Only Antiskid computer is used to carry on antiskid function.
Beside non-commanded brake order generated from computer caused by SW error or HW failure at take-off, brake availability at landing could also be critical. A back up brake control (emergency system) torque limited (without antiskid protection) is normally needed.

Explanation

Question 56 of 64

1

For aircraft designs required to operate in unpaved airfields:

Select one or more of the following:

Radial tyres are normally used because they are lighter than Bias Tyres.
Bias tyres are normally used because sidewall thickness and better retreadability. Sidewall thickness contributes to minimize punches when operating underinflated when sidewall is  more exposed to ground contamination

Explanation

Question 57 of 64

1

Which are the key features of the Solid State Power Controller?

Select one or more of the following:

Electronic component based on power semiconductors  
Mechanical trip device activated by the heating
Protects   installations from short circuits and overloads.
Remote control/monitor capability
High Mean Time Between Failure-MTBF.
Is a wiring protection device as circuit breaker (CB), Arc Fault Circuit Breakers (AFCB), Remote Controlled Circuit Breakers (RCCB).

Explanation

Question 58 of 64

1

The purpose of electrical distribution systems is:  

Select one or more of the following:

Ensure a maximum availability of the bus-bars.
Mechanical disconnection (mechanically disconnect it from the engine).
Participate in the connection/disconnection of the power sources.
Ensure the electrical network reconfigurations.
Ensure the protection against short circuit, over voltage, …
Ensure the electrical protections in order to avoid power source paralleling (AC) and propagation of defaults.

Explanation

Question 59 of 64

1

Identify two drawbacks of the conventional protection devices (fuse and Circuit breakers):

Select one or more of the following:

They require a high volume.
They are general use devices.
Influenced by ambient temperature.
No monitor capability.
Complex to monitor.
Slow response.
No reset capability.
No arc-fault detection capability.

Explanation

Question 60 of 64

1

What type of main generator disconnection could perform crew with cockpit push-buttons?

Select one or more of the following:

Electrical disconnection (line contactor opening).
Mechanical disconnection ( generator mechanically disconnected from the engine).

Explanation

Question 61 of 64

1

Regulated converters advantages compared with unregulated converters are:

Select one or more of the following:

Higher efficiency
Output voltage regulation (thinner range).
No power source rating imposed limit.
Lower ripple.

Explanation

Question 62 of 64

1

Why large aircrafts generally use Hydraulic Powered Actuation Systems?

Select one or more of the following:

High hydro-mechanical stiffness and associated high frequency response is relevant for flight control actuation. Additional typical factors are good response time, efficiency, reliability and robustness of hydro-mechanical systems when compared with another systems.
High hydro-mechanical stiffness and associated high frequency response is relevant for flight control actuation. Additional typical factors are response time and efficiency but not reliability and robustness, when compared with another Systems
High Power Transmission vs. System Weight.
High Efficiency.
Robustness & Reliable.
Shared Power Generation System.

Explanation

Question 63 of 64

1

Generally, with regards to the number of hydraulic systems used in a civil typecertified large aircraft under Part 25 – EASA Airworthiness Regulations:

Select one or more of the following:

The use of EHAs or EMAs for PFC may allow using only two hydraulic systems. This is dependent on having sufficient redundancy within the electrical power generation system.
If there are a large number of services that are powered hydraulically, four independent hydraulic systems may be a design solution in order to reduce the size of pumps.
There is no any aircraft using two hydraulic systems. If any primary flight control is required to be hydraulically powered, definitively three hydraulic systems are required.
Large aircrafts with two engines and three hydraulic systems normally requires a PTU (Power Transfer Unit) to transfer hydraulic power between the hydraulic systems in determined failure cases or for ground taxing with one engine shut down.

Explanation

Question 64 of 64

1

Indicate which of the following statement(s) regarding the FCS is (are) correct:

Select one or more of the following:

In a “direct link” FCS, there is a linear relation between control surface displacement and stick forces.
In a “fly by wire” FCS, pilot controls parameters rather than surface position.
Artificial feel systems are required to provide good handling qualities in irreversible FCS systems
In an “irreversible” FCS, pilot cannot reconfigure the system after a failure.

	Created by Miguel Angel Veg1927 about 8 years ago

Masters MASI Quiz on General Systems (GS), created by Miguel Angel Veg1927 on 10/06/2016.

General Systems (GS)

Question 1 of 64

Select the correct response(s):

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 64

If the aircraft hydraulic system supply the services that control the direction of the aircraft on the ground (e.g. nosewheel steering and differential braking):

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 64

Common use Aerospace Hydraulic Pumps:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 64

Common use Hydraulic Reservoirs :

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 64

CFG main advantages compared with VFG are:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 64

The emergency system shall power the services necessary to complete a flight and make a safe landing. The services to be powered must include:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 64

New high voltage levels (270 Vdc and 230 Vac) are applicable to civil and military electrical systems since they permit to:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 64

Electrical power quality is determined by:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 64

Li-Ion battery technology main advantages compared with Ni-Cd one are:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 64

LED technology main advantages compared with HID one are:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 64

What of the following exterior lights have their illumination performances covered by the EASA Part 25 requirements?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 64

The biggest problem in humans associated to exposure at high altitudes is:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 64

Aerodynamic heating is given, basically, by the total temperature of the air computed as follows Ttot = Tambient (1+ 0.2 Mach2). Given an ISA atmosphere, the heating is maximum in one of the following conditions:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 64

Minimum standard ventilation to maintain CO2 levels in enclosed spaces is (at SL, 15ºC) according to ASHRAE:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 64

Being one of the most efficient cooling systems, why liquid cooling is not so used:

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Explanation

Question 16 of 64

Redundancy in cabin pressurization outflow valves is requested:

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Explanation

Question 17 of 64

In a wing profile section, ice accretion impingement limits will be most extended in the following case:

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Explanation

Question 18 of 64

A deicing system is basically sized to limit quantity of ice accreted. What is the worst flying condition in terms of design:

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Explanation

Question 19 of 64

Which are the aircraft key operational cases that are normally considered for the sizing of the APU on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport?

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Explanation

Question 20 of 64

The APU model PW980 in the AIRBUS A380 is steadily supplying bleed air for the aircraft pneumatic systems (MES or ECS) on ground. In a matter of a couple of seconds, such demand is significantly reduced. What would be the expected immediate reaction from the APU control system?

If the aircraft hydraulic system supply the services that control the direction of the aircraft on the ground (e.g. nosewheel steering and differential braking):  

What of the following exterior lights have their illumination performances covered by the EASA Part 25 requirements?  

For the start of the APU engine on large civil aircrafts for passenger transport, the most commonly used system consists on:  

The primary step for the Certification of the APU system in the aircraft is:  

The normal duration of the development cycle for a new APU system in a large transport aircraft is:  