CCNA Part 1

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Question 1 of 116

Which layer of the OSI reference Model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one of the following:

Transport
Network
Presentation
Session
Application

Explanation

Question 2 of 116

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose 3)

Select one or more of the following:

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
A modem terminates an analog local loop
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Explanation

Question 3 of 116

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

Select one of the following:

Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Internet
Data-Link

Explanation

Question 4 of 116

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

Select one of the following:

This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Explanation

Question 5 of 116

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

Select one of the following:

Session
Transport
Network
Data-Link
Physical

Explanation

Question 6 of 116

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Explanation

Question 7 of 116

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Explanation

Question 8 of 116

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

Select one of the following:

Application
Internet
Network
Transport

Explanation

Question 9 of 116

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

To uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
To allow communication with devices on a different network
To differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
To establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
To allow communication between different devices on the same network
To allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Explanation

Question 10 of 116

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

When they receive a special token
When there is a carrier
When they detect no other devices are sending
When the medium is idle
When the server grants access

Explanation

Question 11 of 116

Which layer of the OSI reference Model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one of the following:

Transport
Network
Presentation
Session
Application

Explanation

Question 12 of 116

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Select one of the following:

Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Explanation

Question 13 of 116

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

Select one of the following:

A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.
A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.
A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

Explanation

Question 14 of 116

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

Select one of the following:

Learning
Listening
Discarding
Forwarding

Explanation

Question 15 of 116

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access VLAN 3 command in interface configuration mode?

Select one of the following:

The command is rejected
The port turns amber
The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Explanation

Question 16 of 116

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

Select one of the following:

Path Cost
Lowest port MAC address
VTP revision number
Highest port priority number
Port priority number and MAC address

Explanation

Question 17 of 116

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

Select one of the following:

The operation of VTP
A method of VLAN trunking
An approach to wireless LAN communication
The process of root bridge selection
VLAN pruning

Explanation

Question 18 of 116

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

Select one of the following:

It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Explanation

Question 19 of 116

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

802.1d
VTP
802.1q
STP
SAP

Explanation

Question 20 of 116

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

Select one of the following:

32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Explanation

Question 21 of 116

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

Select one of the following:

More collision domains will be created.
IP address utilization will be more efficient.
More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Explanation

Question 22 of 116

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.
Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.
VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.
Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Explanation

Question 23 of 116

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

Select one of the following:

802.3ad
802.1w
802.1D
802.1Q

Explanation

Question 24 of 116

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

They increase the size of collision domains.
They allow logical grouping of users by function.
They can enhance network security.
They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
They simplify switch administration.

Explanation

Question 25 of 116

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Discarding
Listening
Learning
Forwarding
Disabled

Explanation

Question 26 of 116

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Show interface trunk
Show interface interface
Show ip interface brief
Show interface vlan
show interface switchport

Explanation

Question 27 of 116

Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

Select one of the following:

spanning-tree uplinkfast
spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
spanning-tree backbonefast
spanning-tree mode mst

Explanation

Question 28 of 116

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

Select one of the following:

Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Explanation

Question 29 of 116

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

VTP
802.1q
IGP
ISL
802.3u

Explanation

Question 30 of 116

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

Select one of the following:

1 through 1001
2 through 1001
1 through 1002
2 through 1005

Explanation

Question 31 of 116

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

Select one of the following:

When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.
Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Explanation

Question 32 of 116

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Explanation

Question 33 of 116

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

Select one of the following:

Physical
Data Link
Network
Transport

Explanation

Question 34 of 116

What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

Select one of the following:

source MAC address
source IP address
source switch port
destination IP address
destination port address
destination MAC address

Explanation

Question 35 of 116

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

added security
dedicated bandwidth
provides segmentation
allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
contains collisions

Explanation

Question 36 of 116

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

Select one of the following:

Ping address
Tracert address
Traceroute address
ARP address

Explanation

Question 37 of 116

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

Explanation

Question 38 of 116

What is one benefit of PVST+?

Select one of the following:

PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Explanation

Question 39 of 116

Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Transparent
Auto
On
Desirable
Blocking
Forwarding

Explanation

Question 40 of 116

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Explanation

Question 41 of 116

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?

Select one of the following:

Converged
Redundant
Provisioned
Spanned

Explanation

Question 42 of 116

What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Transparent
Auto
On
Desireable
Client
Forwarding

Explanation

Question 43 of 116

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
RSTP defines new port roles.
RSTP defines no new port states.
RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Explanation

Question 44 of 116

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

Select one of the following:

The switch with the highest MAC address
The switch with the lowest MAC address
The switch with the highest IP address
The switch with the lowest IP address

Explanation

Question 45 of 116

What are three advantages of VLANs (Choose Three)

Select one or more of the following:

VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Explanation

Question 46 of 116

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?

Select one of the following:

802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Explanation

Question 47 of 116

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

Select one of the following:

192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 48 of 116

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

Select one of the following:

172.16.16.0
172.16.0.0
172.16.24.0
172.16.28.0

Explanation

Question 49 of 116

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

Select one of the following:

::1
::
2000::/3
0::/10

Explanation

Question 50 of 116

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

Select one of the following:

10.188.31.0/26
10.188.31.0/25
10.188.31.0/28
10.188.31.0/27
10.188.31.0/29

Explanation

Question 51 of 116

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Optional IPsec
Autoconfiguration
No broadcasts
Complicated header
Plug-and-play
Checksum

Explanation

Question 52 of 116

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

Select one of the following:

IPv6 local
IPv6 host
IPv6 unicast-routing
IPv6 neighbor

Explanation

Question 53 of 116

What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?

Select one of the following:

Global Unicast
Anycast
Multicast
Unspecified address

Explanation

Question 54 of 116

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 55 of 116

Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?

Select one of the following:

255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.248.0

Explanation

Question 56 of 116

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

Select one of the following:

10.0.0.0/21
10.0.0.0/22
10.0.0.0/23
10.0.0.0/24

Explanation

Question 57 of 116

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Anycast
Broadcast
Multicast
Podcast
Allcast

Explanation

Question 58 of 116

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Explanation

Question 59 of 116

A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

Select one of the following:

192.168.1.56/26
192.168.1.56/27
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.64/27

Explanation

Question 60 of 116

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 61 of 116

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

Select one of the following:

Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Explanation

Question 62 of 116

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme?
(Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Reduces routing table entries
Auto-negotiation of media rates
Efficient utilization of MAC addresses
Dedicated communications between devices
Ease of management and troubleshooting

Explanation

Question 63 of 116

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address
B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

Select one of the following:

B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

Explanation

Question 64 of 116

All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.

Explanation

Question 65 of 116

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the
interface.

Explanation

Question 66 of 116

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are
two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

No broadcast
Change of source address in the IPv6 header
Change of destination address in the IPv6 header
Telnet access does not require a password
Autoconfiguration
NAT

Explanation

Question 67 of 116

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network
192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is
given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties
box for the sales server?

Select one of the following:

IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Explanation

Question 68 of 116

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

Select one of the following:

0.0.0.240
255.255.255.252
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

Explanation

Question 69 of 116

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 70 of 116

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an
IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Enable dual-stack routing
Configure IPv6 directly
Configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
Use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
Statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
Use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

Explanation

Question 71 of 116

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

Select one of the following:

By appending 0xFF to the MAC address
By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
By inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address
By prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes

Explanation

Question 72 of 116

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

Select one of the following:

One-to-many communication model
One-to-nearest communication model
Any-to-many communication model
A unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
The same address for multiple devices in the group
Delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Explanation

Question 73 of 116

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

Select one of the following:

2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
2004:1:25A4:886F::1

Explanation

Question 74 of 116

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.252.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.248.0

Explanation

Question 75 of 116

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

Select one of the following:

FF02::1
FF02::2
FF02::3
FF02::4

Explanation

Question 76 of 116

Which IPv6 address is valid?

Select one of the following:

2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

Explanation

Question 77 of 116

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

Select one of the following:

ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64
ipv6 autoconfig

Explanation

Question 78 of 116

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

Select one of the following:

FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

Explanation

Question 79 of 116

The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

Select one of the following:

10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 80 of 116

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Explanation

Question 81 of 116

Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 82 of 116

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 83 of 116

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

Select one of the following:

The MAC address of router interface e0
The MAC address of router interface e1
The MAC address of the server network interface
The MAC address of host A

Explanation

Question 84 of 116

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The number of collision domains would remain the same.
The number of collision domains would decrease.
The number of collision domains would increase.
The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
The number of broadcast domains would increase.

Explanation

Question 85 of 116

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The IP address of Switch 1
The MAC address of Switch 1
The IP address of Host C
The MAC address of Host C
The IP address of the router's E0 interface
The MAC address of the router's E0 interface

Explanation

Question 86 of 116

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Select one or more of the following:

Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
Switch D, because it has the highest priority

Explanation

Question 87 of 116

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

There are two broadcast domains in the network.
There are four broadcast domains in the network.
There are six broadcast domains in the network.
There are four collision domains in the network.
There are five collision domains in the network.
There are seven collision domains in the network.

Explanation

Question 88 of 116

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.

Select one or more of the following:

Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Explanation

Question 89 of 116

Refer to the exhibit
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?.

Select one of the following:

VLANs have not been created yet.
An IP address must be configured for the port.
The port is currently configured for access mode.
The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.

Explanation

Question 90 of 116

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

Select one of the following:

Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Explanation

Question 91 of 116

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to
accomplish this task?

Select one of the following:

SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Explanation

Question 92 of 116

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

Select one of the following:

The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Explanation

Question 93 of 116

Which WAN protocol is being used?

Select one of the following:

ATM
HDLC
Frame Relay
PPP

Explanation

Question 94 of 116

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Select one of the following:

This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Explanation

Question 95 of 116

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

Select one of the following:

It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Explanation

Question 96 of 116

Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

Switch A - Fa0/0
Switch A - Fa0/1
Switch B - Fa0/0
Switch B - Fa0/1
Switch C - Fa0/0
Switch C - Fa0/1

Explanation

Question 97 of 116

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

Select one of the following:

The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

Explanation

Question 98 of 116

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.
What causes this behavior?

Select one of the following:

Trunk mode mismatches
Allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
Native VLAN mismatches
VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Explanation

Question 99 of 116

Which statement is true?

Select one of the following:

The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.

Explanation

Question 100 of 116

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

Select one of the following:

routing loops, hold down timers
switching loops, split horizon
routing loops, split horizon
switching loops, VTP
routing loops, STP
switching loops, STP

Explanation

Question 101 of 116

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Explanation

Question 102 of 116

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Explanation

Question 103 of 116

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

Select one of the following:

Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
The switch interface connected to the router is down.
Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.
The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

Explanation

Question 104 of 116

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

Select one of the following:

Switch1
Switch2
Switch3
Switch4

Explanation

Question 105 of 116

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

Select one of the following:

One
Two
Six
Twelve

Explanation

Question 106 of 116

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Explanation

Question 107 of 116

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

Select one of the following:

Switch3, port fa0/1
Switch3, port fa0/12
Switch4, port fa0/11
Switch4, port fa0/2
Switch3, port Gi0/1
Switch3, port Gi0/2

Explanation

Question 108 of 116

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5.
FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.

Explanation

Question 109 of 116

A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

Select one of the following:

This design will function as intended.
Spanning-tree will need to be used.
The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
The connection between switches should be a trunk.
The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Explanation

Question 110 of 116

A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

Select one of the following:

The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.
Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

Explanation

Question 111 of 116

Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?

Select one of the following:

Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

Explanation

Question 112 of 116

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Network A - 172.16.3.48/26
Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
Network A - 172.16.3.192/26
Link A - 172.16.3.0/30
Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
Link A - 172.16.3.112/30

Explanation

Question 113 of 116

In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

Select one of the following:

172.16.0.0 /16
172.16.0.0 /20
172.16.0.0 /24
172.32.0.0 /16
172.32.0.0 /17
172.64.0.0 /16

Explanation

Question 114 of 116

What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

Select one of the following:

172.1.0.0/22
172.1.0.0/21
172.1.4.0/22
172.1.4.0/24
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24
172.1.4.0/25
172.1.4.128/25
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24

Explanation

Question 115 of 116

A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Explanation

Question 116 of 116

Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

Select one of the following:

172.16.0.0./21
172.16.0.0./20
172.16.0.0./16
172.16.0.0/18

Explanation

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	Created by Axiom42 over 10 years ago

	Copied by onat over 8 years ago

Practice exam for 200-120 exam Questions for the following Topics Topic 1: Operation of IP Data Networks Topic 2: LAN Switching Technologies Topic 3: IP Addressing (IPv4/IPv6)

CCNA Part 1

Question 1 of 116

Which layer of the OSI reference Model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 116

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose 3)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 116

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 116

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 116

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 116

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 116

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 116

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 116

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 116

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 116

Which layer of the OSI reference Model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 116

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 116

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 116

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 116

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access VLAN 3 command in interface configuration mode?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 116

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 116

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 116

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 116

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 116

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?