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Servers final prep quiz

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Servers Final Prep Quiz pt 1

Question 1 of 91

1

When you configure port rules for NLB clusters, you will need to configure all of the options listed here, except for one. Which option in this list will you not configure for a port rule?

Select one of the following:

  • The node IP address the rule should apply to

  • The TCP or UDP port(s) the rule should apply to

  • The filtering mode

  • The protocols that the rule should apply to

Explanation

Question 2 of 91

1

• Many components can be configured redundantly within a server system. Of the components listed, which one is typically not available in a redundant arrangement in a single server system?

Select one of the following:

  • o Power Supplies

  • o Mainboards (motherboards)

  • o Network Cards

  • o Disks

Explanation

Question 3 of 91

1

• Which NLB control command would most likely be the best option to use to immediately prepare a node for emergency maintenance?

Select one of the following:

  • o Stop

  • o Suspend

  • o Resume

  • o Drainstop

Explanation

Question 4 of 91

1

• Which of the following statements about Network Load Balancing is incorrect?

Select one of the following:

  • o Windows Server 2012 R2 NLB clusters can have between 2 and 32 nodes.

  • o All hosts in the NLB cluster receive the incoming traffic.

  • o NLB detects the failure of a cluster node using a heartbeat.

  • o Network adapters in the NLB cluster can use both multicast and unicast simultaneously.

Explanation

Question 5 of 91

1

• To configure an NLB cluster after installing NLB on the Windows Server 2012 R2 computer, you must configure three types of parameters. Which of the following is not one of the three you must configure?

Select one of the following:

  • o Host parameters

  • o Port rules

  • o Firewall rules

  • o Cluster parameters

Explanation

Question 6 of 91

1

• Which of the following is a constraint of using NLB clusters in unicast mode that you will need to design for?

Select one of the following:

  • o You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes form a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network.

  • o You will need to configure routers to duplicate packets for delivery to all cluster nodes.

  • o You will need to manually add ARP entries to the routers.

  • o You will need to ensure you have at least one node in the NLB cluster configured to handle traffic for each class C subnet in your network.

Explanation

Question 7 of 91

1

• Why should you clearly express availability requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • o To avoid dissatisfaction.

  • o To prevent making poor decisions

  • o To ensure RAID is used

  • o To ensure there are no misunderstandings

Explanation

Question 8 of 91

1

• Which of the following availability guidelines allows for a maximum downtime per month of 43.8 minutes?

Select one of the following:

  • o Three nines (99.9%)

  • o Four nines (99.99%)

  • o Five nines (99.999%)

  • o Six nines (99.9999%)

Explanation

Question 9 of 91

1

• Which of the following enables you to allow multiple nodes to share a single LUN concurrently?

Select one of the following:

  • o 0

  • o 1

  • o 2

  • o 3

Explanation

Question 10 of 91

1

• Which PowerShell cmdlet would you need to use to configure the possible nodes that can own a resource in a failover cluster?

Select one of the following:

  • o Set-ResourceOwnerNode

  • o Configure-OwnerNode

  • o Set-ClusterOwnerNode

  • o Update-ResourceOwner

Explanation

Question 11 of 91

1

• Cluster Shared Volume, in Windows Server 2012 R2, offers faster throughput when integrated with what?

Select one of the following:

  • o Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel

  • o Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)

  • o BitLocker volume encryption

  • o Storage Spaces

Explanation

Question 12 of 91

1

• A production-ready failover cluster requires what minimum number of nodes?

Select one of the following:

  • o Two

  • o Three

  • o Four

  • o Five

Explanation

Question 13 of 91

1

• Clusters running on which of the following operating systems are supported for migration to Windows Server 2012 R2?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Windows Server 2008

  • o Windows Server 2003

  • o Windows Server 2008 R2

  • o Windows Server 2003 R2

Explanation

Question 14 of 91

1

• Why is it not recommended to install Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) on cluster nodes?

Select one of the following:

  • o AD DS works best on NLB nodes

  • o AD DS does not require clustering for fault tolerance

  • o AD DS does not support fault tolerance

  • o AD DS is not cluster aware

Explanation

Question 15 of 91

1

• Which quorum type is used by clusters that have special configurations?

Select one of the following:

  • o Node Majority

  • o Node and Disk Majority

  • o Node and File Share Majority

  • o No Majority (Disk Only)

Explanation

Question 16 of 91

1

• How does the Scale-Out File Server provide for multiple nodes to access the same volume at the same time?

Select one of the following:

  • o SCSI reservations

  • o CSV and CSV cache

  • o VHD file virtualization

  • o VSS flash cloning

Explanation

Question 17 of 91

1

• The High Availability Wizard allows you to configure several pre-selected high availability roles in a cluster. Which of the following are options that are available to choose from?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC)

  • o SQL Server

  • o Exchange Server

  • o WINS Server

Explanation

Question 18 of 91

1

• If a monitored VM is gracefully restarted on its current Hyper-V host and it subsequently fails again, what will VM Monitoring next attempt?

Select one of the following:

  • o Move the VM to another cluster node and restart it again.

  • o Leave the VM in a failed state and send an SNMP alert.

  • o Move the VM to another cluster node and leave it in a failed state.

  • o Restart the VM again, using Last Known Good Boot.

Explanation

Question 19 of 91

1

• When using VM Monitoring for Hyper-V VMs, into what event log will events be logged when a monitored service is deemed to be unhealthy?

Select one of the following:

  • o Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem "VM42" "DHCPClient"

  • o Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem -VirtualMachine "VM42" -Service DHCPClient

  • o Set-MonitoredItem -VirtualMachine "VM42" -Service DHCPClient

  • o Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem -Host "VM42" -Service DHCPClient

Explanation

Question 20 of 91

1

• Which of the following features are not supported on the Scale-Out File Server?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o SMB 3.0

  • o DFS Replication

  • o File Server Resource Manager

  • o NFS

Explanation

Question 21 of 91

1

• When configuring a cluster to provide highly available Hyper-V services, which of the hardware requirements must your server hardware meet?

Select one of the following:

  • o Provide hardware-assisted virtualization

  • o Use Fibre Channel

  • o Use SAS

  • o Provide MBR disks

Explanation

Question 22 of 91

1

• Server Message Block (SMB) 3.0 provides many changes that add functionality and improve performance. Which of the following features encrypts traffic?

Select one of the following:

  • o SMB Transparent Failover

  • o SMB Encryption

  • o SMB Scale Out

  • o SMB Directory Leasing

Explanation

Question 23 of 91

1

• Quick Migration occurs within the confines of what?

Select one of the following:

  • o Failover cluster

  • o An Active Directory Forest

  • o A Virtual Machine Manager farm

  • o A network load balanced cluster

Explanation

Question 24 of 91

1

• If you want to use an exported VM a template to create multiple VMs, what should you do on the source VM before performing the export?

Select one of the following:

  • o Activate Windows

  • o Configure the network adapters for DHCP

  • o Run sysprep

  • o Run msconfig

Explanation

Question 25 of 91

1

• What two factors are the primary items impacting the speed of a Quick Migration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o The speed of the network between the source and the destination servers.

  • o The speed of the disks in the source and destination servers.

  • o The speed of the RAM in the source and destination servers.

  • o The amount of memory that needs to be written to disk.

Explanation

Question 26 of 91

1

• What minimum version of VMware ESX/ESXi must a source VM be running on to allow it to be migrated to Hyper-V using P2V?

Select one of the following:

  • o 3.5

  • o 3.5 update 5

  • o 4.1

  • o 5.1

Explanation

Question 27 of 91

1

• When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source server specifications would disqualify it from a P2V migration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o 256 MB of RAM installed

  • o 1024 GB data volume

  • o ACPI BIOS

  • o Uses BitLocker Drive Encryption on the data volume

Explanation

Question 28 of 91

1

• In regard to Live Migration, which of the following prerequisites must be met before attempting the Live Migration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer

  • o All hosts must support hardware virtualization

  • o All hosts must be running on the same server model

  • o All VMs must be configured to use the OVH format disks on SCSI disks

Explanation

Question 29 of 91

1

• When performing a VM import operation, which option is best selected when you are working from an exported VM template that you will be importing more than once?

Select one of the following:

  • o Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)

  • o Restore the virtual machine (use the existing unique ID)

  • o Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)

  • o Register the virtual machine in place (use the existing unique ID)

Explanation

Question 30 of 91

1

• What is the process by which you take a partially or completely configured VM and create other VMs without having to perform the installation and configuration from scratch?

Select one of the following:

  • o Storage Migration

  • o Live Migration

  • o Quick Migration

  • o Exporting

Explanation

Question 31 of 91

1

• What can you use to configure automatic procedures for defining a desired property on a file based on the conditions specified in a rule?

Select one of the following:

  • o File attribution

  • o File classification

  • o File indexing

  • o File archiving

Explanation

Question 32 of 91

1

• Distributed cache mode is designed for branch offices with what number of clients?

Select one of the following:

  • o Fewer than 25

  • o Fewer than 50

  • o Fewer than 75

  • o Fewer than 100

Explanation

Question 33 of 91

1

• What feature of Windows enables you to integrate Windows users into an existing UNIX or Linux environment?

Select one of the following:

  • o ForeFront Identity Manager

  • o UNIX User Management

  • o UID Manager

  • o Identity Management for UNIX

Explanation

Question 34 of 91

1

• Which mode of BranchCache configuration uses one or more dedicated servers to provide the cached copy in the branch office?

Select one of the following:

  • o Local copy mode

  • o Hosted cache mode

  • o Distributed cache mode

  • o Central cache mode

Explanation

Question 35 of 91

1

• Which of the following is a distributed file system protocol used to access files over the network that is used with UNIX and Linux file server clients?

Select one of the following:

  • o DFS

  • o NFS

  • o SMB

  • o DNS

Explanation

Question 36 of 91

1

• Before you can use BranchCache, you must perform several tasks. Which of the following tasks is not required to be performed to use BranchCache?

Select one of the following:

  • o Configure clients to use BranchCache

  • o Configure switches to support BranchCache

  • o Configure hash publication for BranchCache

  • o Create BranchCache-enabled file shares

Explanation

Question 37 of 91

1

• Which of the following terms is best described as giving access to a user?

Select one of the following:

  • o Authentication

  • o Authorization

  • o Auditing

  • o Accounting

Explanation

Question 38 of 91

1

• Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to configure BranchCache in distributed caching mode.

Select one of the following:

  • o Set-BCCache

  • o Enable-BCDistributed

  • o Add-BCDataCacheExtension

  • o Enable-BCLocal

Explanation

Question 39 of 91

1

• Which of the following would you skip in your planning for deploying Access-Denied Assistance?

Select one of the following:

  • o The recipients for the Access Request email messages

  • o The share size where Access-Denied Assistance will be used

  • o The email text that users use to request access

  • o The message that users will see when they are denied when accessing a resource

Explanation

Question 40 of 91

1

• Which of the following statements are true concerning Kerberos armoring?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Allows Kerberos to create service tickets to devices

  • o Fully encrypts Kerberos messages

  • o Increases Kerberos processing time

  • o Uses Flexible Authentication Secure Tunneling (FAST)

Explanation

Question 41 of 91

1

• After you create claim types, what is the next step you must perform to allow the claim to function properly?

Select one of the following:

  • o Create a claim replication policy

  • o Configure resource properties

  • o Enable claims enforcement points

  • o Create a claims refresh policy

Explanation

Question 42 of 91

1

• What Windows Server 2012 feature allows you to define computer-wide auditing of the file system or the registry?

Select one of the following:

  • o Discretionary Access Control Lists

  • o System Audit Preferences

  • o Global Object Access Auditing

  • o Universal Group Auditing Control

Explanation

Question 43 of 91

1

• Which of the listed PowerShell cmdlets would be correctly used to modify a Central Access Policy in Active Directory?

Select one of the following:

  • o Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy

  • o Update-ADCentralAccessPolicy

  • o Modify-ADCentralAccessPolicy

  • o Change-ADCentralAccessPolicy

Explanation

Question 44 of 91

1

• What Windows Server 2012 R2 feature helps users determine why they cannot access a folder or a file?

Select one of the following:

  • o Access Request Wizard

  • o Permissions Analysis Assistance

  • o Request Access Wizard

  • o Access-Denied Assistance

Explanation

Question 45 of 91

1

• What is the best way to allow Dynamic Access Control staging for your Active Directory environment?

Select one of the following:

  • o Edit the local security policy on all servers to enable Audit Central Access Policy Staging

  • o Modify the registry via a login script to enable central access policy staging

  • o Edit a domain Group Policy object to enable Audit Central Access Policy Staging

  • o Modify the registry via a startup script to enable central access policy staging

Explanation

Question 46 of 91

1

• Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the process of using a trusted identity provider to provide authentication?

Select one of the following:

  • o Claims-based access control

  • o Trusted identity provider

  • o Security Token Service

  • o Claim

Explanation

Question 47 of 91

1

• What is the name of the high-availability technology that establishes multiple sessions or connections to the Fibre Channel storage array by using redundant path components such as switches, adapters, and cables?

Select one of the following:

  • o iSCSI Multipath

  • o Multiple Connection Session

  • o Network adapter bonding

  • o Multipath I/O

Explanation

Question 48 of 91

1

• What role can you install in Windows Server 2012 to provide iSCSI storage to other clients?

Select one of the following:

  • o iSCSI Server Role

  • o iSCSI Target Server role

  • o iSCSI Target Role

  • o iSCSI Initiator Role

Explanation

Question 49 of 91

1

• How are SAN devices typically accessed over the network?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Using Fibre Channel

  • o Using SMB

  • o Using iSCSI

  • o Using NFS

Explanation

Question 50 of 91

1

• What is the name given to the new Windows Server 2012 capability that allows an administrator to completely remove binaries from the disk for an unneeded role or feature?

Select one of the following:

  • o Server Core

  • o Windows Slim Provisioning

  • o Windows Feature Management

  • o Features on Demand

Explanation

Question 51 of 91

1

• What protocol is used to automatically discover, manage, and configure iSCSI devices on a TCP/IP network?

Select one of the following:

  • o iDNS

  • o iWINS

  • o iSCNS

  • o iSNS

Explanation

Question 52 of 91

1

• SANs typically use what protocol for communication between servers and storage arrays?

Select one of the following:

  • o SMB

  • o iSCSI

  • o Fibre Channel

  • o SCSI

Explanation

Question 53 of 91

1

• Which of the following Hyper-V disk types is characterized as only allocating the amount of physical disk space that is required at that point in time, while still being able to grow to a fixed limit?

Select one of the following:

  • o Differencing disk

  • o Thin provisioned disk

  • o Dynamically expanding disk

  • o Trimming disk

Explanation

Question 54 of 91

1

• Which term corresponds to unique identifiers in an iSCSI network?

Select one of the following:

  • o Logical Unit Number

  • o iSCSI Qualified Name

  • o iSCSI Initiator

  • o iSCSI Target

Explanation

Question 55 of 91

1

• From where would you add Network Load Balancing to a Windows Server 2012 computer?

Select one of the following:

  • o Programs and Features

  • o Server Manager

  • o Add/Remove Programs

  • o Computer Management

Explanation

Question 56 of 91

1

• Which PowerShell cmdlet here will correctly install NLB and the NLB management console?

Select one of the following:

  • o Install-WindowsFeature NLB,NLB-Console

  • o Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB

  • o Add-WindowsFeature NLB,NLB-RSAT

  • o Add-WindowsComponents NLB,NLB-Manager

Explanation

Question 57 of 91

1

• Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity?

Select one of the following:

  • o Stop

  • o Suspend

  • o Resume

  • o Drainstop

Explanation

Question 58 of 91

1

• What is the function of port rules in an NLB cluster?

Select one of the following:

  • o They define which ports are allowed to pass through the cluster

  • o They define which ports the cluster will listen for

  • o They define which ports the cluster will not listen for

  • o They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster

Explanation

Question 59 of 91

1

• How are storage devices typically assigned to only a single cluster on the network?

Select one of the following:

  • o By using the SCSI Primary Commands-3 standard

  • o By using the NTFS file system

  • o By using dynamic disks

  • o By using LUN masking or zoning

Explanation

Question 60 of 91

1

• Which PowerShell cmdlet would be used to add a new resource group to a failover cluster configuration?

Select one of the following:

  • o Add-ClusterGroup

  • o New-ClusterGroup

  • o New-ClusterResourceGroup

  • o Add-ResourceGroup

Explanation

Question 61 of 91

1

• In a failover cluster configured on Windows Server 2012 R2, how are heartbeats transmitted?

Select one of the following:

  • o Using TCP port 3343 unicast

  • o Using TCP port 3343 broadcast

  • o Using UDP port 3343 unicast

  • o Using UDP port 3343 broadcast

Explanation

Question 62 of 91

1

• Which storage technology is a low-cost option that typically requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives?

Select one of the following:

  • o iSCSI

  • o Fibre Channel

  • o Fibre Channel over Ethernet

  • o SAS

Explanation

Question 63 of 91

1

• When configuring the failure threshold on the Failover tab, you can opt to leave the cluster in a failed state by configuring what two options?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o The maximum number of failures that can occur

  • o The minimum number of failures that can occur

  • o The length of time in hours

  • o The length of time in minutes

Explanation

Question 64 of 91

1

• What new management functionality is introduced with SMB 3.0?

Select one of the following:

  • o The SMB Management Console

  • o The SMB node of the Failover Cluster Console

  • o PowerShell cmdlets for SMB

  • o Windows Remote support for SMB

Explanation

Question 65 of 91

1

• When adding nodes to a cluster, what permission must be granted to the account used to add the nodes to the cluster if that account is not a member of the Domain Administrators security group?

Select one of the following:

  • o Create Computer Objects

  • o Manage Cluster Nodes

  • o DNS Dynamic Update

  • o Reset Password

Explanation

Question 66 of 91

1

• Which of the following statements are true concerning SMB Multichannel in SMB 3.0?

Select one of the following:

  • o Uses multiple network interfaces

  • o Introduces bandwidth aggregation and network fault tolerance

  • o SMB 1.0 and SMB 2.x clients will use a single SMB connection

  • o All of the Above

Explanation

Question 67 of 91

1

• When performing a Live Migration using the "Move the virtual machine's data by selection where to move the items" option, you have three additional, advanced options available to you. Which of the following is not one of those options?

Select one of the following:

  • o Move the VM's data automatically

  • o Move the VM's data to different locations

  • o Move the VM's hard disks to different locations

  • o Move the VM's items to different locations

Explanation

Question 68 of 91

1

• Which of the following VM file formats can be migrated using the V2V method by Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o VHD

  • o OVF

  • o Vmware

  • o Citrix XenServer

Explanation

Question 69 of 91

1

• Offline P2V migrations are the only available migration method for what types of source servers?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Servers with FAT32 volumes

  • o Servers with NTFS volumes

  • o Servers with any VSS writers installed

  • o Servers that are domain controllers

Explanation

Question 70 of 91

1

• When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source server specifications would disqualify it from a P2V migration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o 256 MB of RAM installed

  • o 1024 GB data volume

  • o ACPI BIOS

  • o Uses BitLocker Drive Encryption on the data volume

Explanation

Question 71 of 91

1

• When importing a VM in Windows Server 2012 R2, you have three options available to select from that affect how the import is performed. Which of the following is not one of those options?

Select one of the following:

  • o Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)

  • o Restore the virtual machine (use the existing unique ID)

  • o Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)

  • o Register the virtual machine in place (use the existing unique ID)

Explanation

Question 72 of 91

1

• When performing a Live Migration using the "Move the virtual machine's data by selecting where to move the items" option, which of the following advanced options would be the best to choose from if you need to select a specific location on the destination server for each of the VMs to be moved to?

Select one of the following:

  • o Move the VM's data automatically

  • o Move the VM's data and maintain storage hierarchy

  • o Move the VM's hard disks to different locations

  • o Move the VM's items to different locations

Explanation

Question 73 of 91

1

• What is the process by which you move an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server without a cluster?

Select one of the following:

  • o Storage Migration

  • o Live Migration

  • o Quick Migration

  • o Exporting

Explanation

Question 74 of 91

1

• How is Identity Management for UNIX installed?

Select one of the following:

  • o Using Server Manager

  • o Using Programs and Features

  • o Using dism.exe

  • o Using sc.exe

Explanation

Question 75 of 91

1

• When configuring the BranchCache hash publication options in Group Policy, you have three options available. Which of the options listed here is not available to configure?

Select one of the following:

  • o Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled

  • o Allow hash publication only for shared folders on which BranchCache is enabled

  • o Allow hash publication for all shared folders

  • o Disallow hash publications on all shared folders

Explanation

Question 76 of 91

1

• Before you can audit access to files, what must you first do?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Specify files to be audited

  • o Specify times to be audited

  • o Enable object access auditing

  • o Enable file server auditing

Explanation

Question 77 of 91

1

• What feature, first available in Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008, enables you to configure object access auditing for every file and folder on the computer's file system?

Select one of the following:

  • o Total Object Access Auditing

  • o Server Object Access Auditing

  • o System Object Access Auditing

  • o Global Object Access Auditing

Explanation

Question 78 of 91

1

• Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to configure BranchCache in local caching mode.

Select one of the following:

  • o Set-BCCache

  • o Enable-BCDistributed

  • o Add-BCDataCacheExtension

  • o Enable-BCLocal

Explanation

Question 79 of 91

1

• After you have deployed a proposed Dynamic Access Control policy in staging mode, how do you check to see what is happening?

Select one of the following:

  • o Look in the Security logs for Event ID 4818

  • o Look in the Application logs for Event ID 4818

  • o Look in the DacStage.log file

  • o Look in the DacResults.xml file

Explanation

Question 80 of 91

1

• From what locations in Windows Server 2012 can you set classifications on files and folders?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o On the folder Properties dialog box

  • o In the File and Folder Classification Manager console

  • o In the File Server Resource Manager console

  • o At the command line using the dism.exe utility

Explanation

Question 81 of 91

1

• Before you attempt to implement file classification, which of the following tasks should you not first determine?

Select one of the following:

  • o The method you will use to identify documents for classification

  • o The classification you wish to apply

  • o The schedule of the classification to occur

  • o The schedule of disk defragmentation

Explanation

Question 82 of 91

1

• What Windows Server 2012 R2 feature allows you to define computer-wide auditing of the file system or the registry?

Select one of the following:

  • o Discretionary Access Control Lists

  • o System Audit Preferences

  • o Global Object Access Auditing

  • o Universal Group Auditing Control

Explanation

Question 83 of 91

1

• To use claims-based authorization in a domain, which of the following items must you have?

Select one of the following:

  • o Clients running Windows 8

  • o Kerberos

  • o Domain Controllers running Windows Server 2012 R2 in the domain

  • o Domain Controllers running Windows Server 2012 R2 in every domain

Explanation

Question 84 of 91

1

• Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the process that issues a token to the user?

Select one of the following:

  • o Claims-based access control

  • o Trusted identity provider

  • o Security Token Service

  • o Claim

Explanation

Question 85 of 91

1

• Which of the following methods can be used to restrict which servers can connect to an iSCSI target?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o IQN

  • o DNS name

  • o MAC address

  • o IP address

Explanation

Question 86 of 91

1

• Which Hyper-V disk management command would you need to use to reduce the file size of a virtual hard disk?

Select one of the following:

  • o Compact

  • o Shrink

  • o Convert

  • o Expand

Explanation

Question 87 of 91

1

• How are NAS devices typically accessed over the network?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Using Fibre Channel

  • o Using SMB

  • o Using iSCSI

  • o Using NFS

Explanation

Question 88 of 91

1

• SANs typically use what protocol for communication between servers and storage arrays?

Select one of the following:

  • o SMB

  • o iSCSI

  • o Fibre Channel

  • o SCSI

Explanation

Question 89 of 91

1

• How are SAN devices typically accessed over the network?

Select one or more of the following:

  • o Using Fibre Channel

  • o Using SMB

  • o Using iSCSI

  • o Using NFS

Explanation

Question 90 of 91

1

• Fibre Channel of Ethernet (FCoE) is capable of _________ per second or more.

Select one of the following:

  • o 100 megabits

  • o 1000 megabits

  • o 1 gigabit

  • o 10 gigabits

Explanation

Question 91 of 91

1

• Which term corresponds to an entity that sends iSCSI commands to iSCSI devices?

Select one of the following:

  • o Logical Unit Number

  • o iSCSI Qualified Name

  • o iSCSI Initiator

  • o iSCSI Target

Explanation

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