Horses

Question 1 of 47

1

Which of the following is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

when the horse is walking past you, you are watching for a head bob
when the horse is walking toward you, you are watching the hips and pelvis
when the horse is walking away, you are watching for fetlock drop
it is important that the horse is always walking in a straight line

Explanation

Question 2 of 47

1

Which of the following tend to have acute onset? Check all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

tendon injuries
ligament injuries
fractures
degenerative problems

Explanation

Question 3 of 47

1

Effusion is fluid in a synovial structure. Edema is fluid in tissue.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 4 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

worn heels predispose for navicular disease
having a steep angle to the foot means the horse is club footed and may develop suspensory problems
if the coronary band is higher on one side of the heel it indicates weight bearing toward that side of the foot
having a less steep angle to the front feet indicates that the horse is bearing too much weight in the front limbs

Explanation

Question 5 of 47

1

Having a post legged stance predisposes a horse to flexor tendon issues.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 6 of 47

1

A dropped hip could be due to muscle atrophy or a fractured hip.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 7 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

horses will only flex their neck away from you if they are having cervical vertebral issues
high lameness is uncommon
a hot splint bone area means there is active inflammation, the horse will respond to palpation of the swelling
a foot may feel hot if it is covered by the bedding/hay/etc. in the stall

Explanation

Question 8 of 47

1

By placing the leg in this position, the tendons are relaxed. This make it easier to tell the difference between the superficial and deep digital flexors. However, it makes it a little more difficult to palpate the suspensory.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 9 of 47

1

What is a positive Churchill test?

Select one of the following:

aduction of limb, means proximal hock pain
abduction of limb, means proximal hock pain
aduction of limb, means distal hock pain
abduction of limb, means distal hock pain

Explanation

Question 10 of 47

1

Which of the following is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

Grade 1 lameness: lameness not perceptible under any circumstance
Grade 2 lameness: lameness is consistently observable
Grade 3 lameness: lameness is obvious at a walk
Grade 5 lameness: lameness produces minimal weight bearing in motion and/or at rest or a complete inability to move

Explanation

Question 11 of 47

1

Which of the following are watched for ONLY with hind limb lameness? Check all that apply. (Please don't curse me too much)

Select one or more of the following:

pelvic hike- up on lame
arc of flight of foot
altered flight path of foot
length of stride
angles of joint flexion
drifting away from lame limb

Explanation

Question 12 of 47

1

It is best to focus on specific landmarks while observing a horse walk past you.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 13 of 47

1

When a horse is lame the fetlock drop will be deeper.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 14 of 47

1

During a carpal flexion test hold for 30 seconds, a normal horse's fetlock will contact the caudal surface of the radius (or the heel bulb will touch the elbow). If this is not the case, there is decreased range of motion.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 15 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

upper forelimb flexion: this test is better for elbow issues than shoulder issues
digital flexion in hindlimb: must try to keep foot close to the ground to limit amount of hock and stifle flexion
upper hind limb flexion: hold for 90 seconds, keep leg underneath the horse to help the horse maintain balance
hock extension test: tries to exacerbate pressure on hock, usually the horse will not tolerate for more than 1 minute so you can substitute multiple short times of extension in place of a single long time period

Explanation

Question 16 of 47

1

Which of the following is TRUE about the navicular wedge test?

Select one of the following:

stretches the back of the leg
increases pressure on navicular
use for 60 seconds
can also use it at the medial and lateral sides to check the collateral ligaments
All of the above are true

Explanation

Question 17 of 47

1

What is the correct order of sensations lost?

Select one of the following:

cold, warmth, touch, pressure, pain
pressure, touch, pain, cold, warmth
pain, cold, warmth, touch, pressure
touch, pressure, cold, warmth, pain

Explanation

Question 18 of 47

1

Which of the following structures is NOT blocked by the palmar digital nerve block?

Select one of the following:

sole
hoof wall
navicular bone
insertion of the deep digital flexor tendon

Explanation

Question 19 of 47

1

Which of the following is a common lameness that can be isolated by the palmar digital nerve block? (Remember that further diagnosis is required for a definitive diagnosis)

Select one of the following:

P3 wing fractures
low ring bone
laminitis
luxation of pastern joint

Explanation

Question 20 of 47

1

The structures blocked by the abaxial sesamoid block are dorsal hoof wall, coronary band, coffin joint, pastern joint, sesamoidian ligaments.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 21 of 47

1

Which of the following blocks requires sterile preparation of the skin because of the high likelihood of the needle to enter a joint space?

Select one of the following:

low 4-point
high 4-point
wheat
tibial and peroneal

Explanation

Question 22 of 47

1

It is ok to do the tibial and peroneal blocks to both hindlimbs.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 23 of 47

1

Which of the following are correct? Check all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

valgus- lateral deviation of limb distal to site of pathology
valgus- medial deviation of limb distal to site of pathology
Varus- medial deviation of limb distal to site of patholgy
varus- lateral deviation of limb distal to site of pathology

Explanation

Question 24 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding etiology of angular limb deformity?

Select one of the following:

incomplete ossification of cuboidal bones
laxity of periarticular structures (usually in one joint)
unbalanced nutrition (trace mineral balance, crib feeding)
excessive exercise/trauma (microfractures)

Explanation

Question 25 of 47

1

To determine if a horse has a valgus or varus deformity you should stand perpendicular to the horse's midline.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 26 of 47

1

If manipulation leads to straightening of the limb, the deformity is due to perinatal causes.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 27 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE about management strategy of limb deformities?

Select one of the following:

stall rest is a good conservative therapy option for periarticular laxity
transphyseal bridging is used for growth acceleration
splints/casts are used for incomplete ossification
hoof trimming is a conservative therapy that may help

Explanation

Question 28 of 47

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding hoof trimming as management of angular limb deformity?

Select one of the following:

trim the medial side for a valgus deformity
trim the lateral side for a varus deformity
trim flat if both valgus and varus deformities are in the same limb
All of the above are true

Explanation

Question 29 of 47

1

Which of the following are true of periosteal transection and elevation? Check all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

short side surgery
long side surgery
can't over correct
can overcorrect
requires second procedure
doesn't require second procedure
used in more aggressive cases

Explanation

Question 30 of 47

1

Which of the following is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

osteoarthritis- chronic disease of the joint which may or may not involve inflammation
osteoarthopathy- disorder of movable joints characterized by degeneration and loss of articular cartilage
osteoarthrosis- any disease of the joints and bones
degenerative joint disease- any disease state inducing degeneration of a joint

Explanation

Question 31 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE about mechanisms of OA?

Select one of the following:

Theory #1- defective cartilage with abnormal biomechanical properties, assumes normal mechanical forces are encountered by the joint
Theory #2- abnormal change in subchondral bone (cartilage doing all the work b/c the bone cartilage interface is more stiff)
Theory #3- normal cartilage exposed to abnormal forces (seen in joint incongruity secondary to trauma, altered chondrocyte metabolism)
All of the above are true

Explanation

Question 32 of 47

1

The synovial membrane regulates inflammatory cell access. It also secretes anabolic and catabolic enzymes (prostaglandins, cytokines, MMPs).

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 33 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE about "primary" synovitis/capsulitis?

Select one of the following:

can be secondary to chip fragment debris/mediators or OCD
repair is by fibrosis and results in acute decreased range of motion that resolves after a few months
involves biomechanical damage due to continuum of repetitive trauma or a single incident
mediators released from the affected joint's cartilage or bone will alter the metabolism of the synoviocytes

Explanation

Question 34 of 47

1

Which of the following is NOT seen histologically with synovitis?

Select one of the following:

edema
hyperplasia of intimal cell lining
hypervascular
MMPs

Explanation

Question 35 of 47

1

Chondrocytes release the same mediators as the synovium.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 36 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE about matrix metalloproteinases?

Select one of the following:

secreated by synoviocytes and chondrocytes
capable of breaking down extracellular matrix and fluid components
they are all "bad guys"
MMPs are secreted as inactive protein

Explanation

Question 37 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE about matrix metalloproteinases?

Select one of the following:

secreated by synoviocytes and chondrocytes
capable of breaking down extracellular matrix and fluid components
they are all "bad guys"
MMPs are secreted as inactive protein

Explanation

Question 38 of 47

1

ADAM stands for A Disintegrin And Metalloproteinase.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 39 of 47

1

Which of the following cytokines are modulatory? Check all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

IL-1
TNF-alpha
IL-4
IL-10
IL-13

Explanation

Question 40 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the IL-1 family?

Select one of the following:

IL-1 alpha amplifies the inflammatory process by stimulating an increase in monocyte infiltration
Monocytes produce IL-1 beta
IL-1 beta up regulates the production of IRAP as a positive feedback to make more IL-1 alpha
matrix metalloproteinases are inhibited by IL-1s

Explanation

Question 41 of 47

1

Anabolic cytokines include insulin-like growth factor and transforming growth factor. These promote chondrocyte production of prostaglandins and type 2 collagen.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 42 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

nitric oxide degrades hyaluronan and collagen, IL-1 promotes its production
PGE-2 is associated with synovitis and pain
IRAP is a naturally occurring inhibitor derived from the animal's own body
tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMPs) bind 1:1 with MMPs forming inactive complexes, research is very promising

Explanation

Question 43 of 47

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding therapy?

Select one of the following:

cold therapy is more useful in acute injury
phenylbutazone seems better in the treatment of orthopedic issues, banamine seems better for visceral pain
corticosteroids are effective for OA treatment with intra-articular administration as well as systemic administration
if give a horse carprofen make sure it is the horse formulation, not the dog formulation

Explanation

Question 44 of 47

1

Which of the following whole body doses of the common corticosteroids is INCORRECT?

Select one of the following:

TA (triamcinolone acetate) <18 mg
MPA (methylprednisolone acetate) <20 mg
betamethasone <30 mg

Explanation

Question 45 of 47

1

Post-injection flare and joint sepsis are easily distinguished from each other.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 46 of 47

1

IA polysulfated glycosaminoglycans (adequan) makes it easier for an infection to develop by reducing the number of bacteria needed to induce an infection.

	Created by karahm over 10 years ago

Musculoskeletal (Exam 3) Quiz on Horses, created by karahm on 09/03/2014.

Horses

Question 1 of 47

Which of the following is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 47

Which of the following tend to have acute onset? Check all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 47

Effusion is fluid in a synovial structure. Edema is fluid in tissue.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 47

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 47

Having a post legged stance predisposes a horse to flexor tendon issues.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 47

A dropped hip could be due to muscle atrophy or a fractured hip.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 47

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 47

By placing the leg in this position, the tendons are relaxed. This make it easier to tell the difference between the superficial and deep digital flexors. However, it makes it a little more difficult to palpate the suspensory.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 47

What is a positive Churchill test?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 47

Which of the following is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 47

Which of the following are watched for ONLY with hind limb lameness? Check all that apply. (Please don't curse me too much)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 47

It is best to focus on specific landmarks while observing a horse walk past you.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 47

When a horse is lame the fetlock drop will be deeper.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 47

During a carpal flexion test hold for 30 seconds, a normal horse's fetlock will contact the caudal surface of the radius (or the heel bulb will touch the elbow). If this is not the case, there is decreased range of motion.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 47

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 47

Which of the following is TRUE about the navicular wedge test?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 47

What is the correct order of sensations lost?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 47

Which of the following structures is NOT blocked by the palmar digital nerve block?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 47

Which of the following is a common lameness that can be isolated by the palmar digital nerve block? (Remember that further diagnosis is required for a definitive diagnosis)

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 47