Mike M
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

This exam tests the candidate's knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security using: SIEM Technology Cloud & Virtual Network Topologies BYOD Identity Services Engine 802.1x Authentication Cisco FirePOWER Anti-Malware/Cisco Advanced Malware Protection From Cisco.PracticeTest.210-260.v2016-07-06.by.Noah.154q.vce

4505
17
4
Mike M
Created by Mike M about 8 years ago
Close

CCNA Security 210-260 IINS - Exam 2

Question 1 of 50

1

In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS

  • RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet

  • RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted

  • RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS

  • RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS

  • RADIUS supports per-command authorization

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

1

Which countermeasures can mitigate ARP spoofing attacks? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • DHCP Snooping

  • Port Security

  • Dynamic ARP inspection

  • IP Source Guard

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

1

In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • When matching ACL entries are configures

  • When the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection

  • When matching NAT entries are configured

  • When the firewall receives a SYN packet

  • When the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet

  • When the firewall requires HTTP inspection

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

1

In which two situations should you use in-band management? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • When management applications need concurrent access to the devices

  • When you require administartor access from multiple locations

  • When you require ROMMON access

  • When a network device fails to forward packets

  • When the control plane fails to respond.

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

1

Which components does HMAC use to determine the authenticity and integrity of a message? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The key

  • The hash

  • The password

  • The transform set

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

1

Which security measures can protect the control plane of a Cisco router? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • CPPr

  • Port security

  • Parser views

  • CoPP

  • Access control lists

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

1

Which RADIUS server authentication protocols are suported on Cisco ASA firewalls? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • ASCII

  • MS-CHAPv1

  • PAP

  • MS-CHAPv2

  • PEAP

  • EAP

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

1

Which TACACS+ server authentication protocols are supported on Cisco ASA firewalls? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • ASCII

  • MS-CHAPv1

  • EAP

  • MS-CHAPv2

  • PAP

  • PEAP

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

1

Which statement about reflexive access lists are true? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Reflexive access lists can be attached to extended named IP ACLs

  • Reflexive access lists support TCP sessions

  • Reflexive access lists approximate the session filtering using the established keyword

  • Reflexive access lists create a permanent ACE

  • Reflexive access lists can be attached to standard named IP ACLs

  • Reflexive access lists support UDP sessions

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

1

According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • HTTP

  • TFTP

  • 802.1x

  • MAB

  • DNS

  • BOOTP

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

1

Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • DH-1024

  • SHA-384

  • 3DES

  • MD5

  • DES

  • AES

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

1

Which three statements describe DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are used to perform man-in-the-middle attacks

  • They can physically modify the network gateway

  • They can access most network devices

  • They use ARP poisoning

  • They protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address

  • They can modify traffic in transit

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

1

Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Padding

  • MAC Address

  • Security Parameter Index

  • Sequence Number

  • Next Header

  • Pad Length

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

1

In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS

  • TACACS suports per-command authorization

  • TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS

  • TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet

  • TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS

  • TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

1

Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentication attempt record to a AAA server? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Stop

  • Stop-record

  • Stop-only

  • Start-Stop

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

1

Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • All

  • Stop

  • Error

  • None

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

1

Which protocols use encryption to protect the confidentiality of data transmitted between two parties? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • HTTPS

  • SSH

  • AAA

  • HTTP

  • Telnet

  • FTP

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

1

What are two uses of SIEM software? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Performing automatic network audits

  • Collecting and archiving syslog data

  • Scanning email for suspicious attachments

  • Configuring firewall and IDS devices

  • Alerting administrators to security events in real time

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

1

You want to allow all of your company's users to access the Internet without allowing other web servers to collect the IP Addresses of individual users. What two solutions can you use? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Configure a firewall to use Port Address Translation

  • Configure a proxy server to hide users' local IP Addresses

  • Install a Web content filter to hide users' local IP Addresses

  • Assign the same IP address to all users

  • Assign unique IP addresses to all users

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

1

A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has been violated?

Select one of the following:

  • Access

  • Control

  • Availability

  • Confidentiality

Explanation

Question 21 of 50

1

Which alert protocol is used with Cisco IPS Manager Express to support up to 10 sensors?

Select one of the following:

  • SDEE

  • CSM

  • Syslog

  • SNMP

Explanation

Question 22 of 50

1

How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?

Select one of the following:

  • Review the IPS log

  • Review the IPS console

  • Use a third-party to audit the next-generation firewall rules

  • Use a third-party system to perform penetration testing

  • View the alert on the IPS

Explanation

Question 23 of 50

1

Which statement provides the best definition of malware?

Select one of the following:

  • Malware is tools and applications that remove unwanted programs

  • Malware is software used by nation states to commit cyber crimes

  • Malware is unwanted software that is harmful or destructive

  • Malware is a collection of worms, viruses, and Trojan horses that is distributed as a single package

Explanation

Question 24 of 50

1

How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?

Select one of the following:

  • It forwards email requrests to an external signature engine.

  • It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs

  • It send an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages

  • It send the traffic through a file policy

Explanation

Question 25 of 50

1

A clientless SSL VPN user who is connecting on a Windows Vista computer is missing the menu option for Remote Desktop Protocol on the portal web page. Which action should you take to begin troubleshooting?

Select one of the following:

  • Instruct the user to reconnect to the VPN gateway

  • Ensure that the RDP plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway

  • Reboot the VPN gateway

  • Ensure that the RDP2 plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway

Explanation

Question 26 of 50

1

Refer to the following commands:

crypto map mymap match address 201
access-list 201 permit ip 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.100.100.0 255.255.255.0

What is the effect of the given command sequence?

Select one of the following:

  • It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from the 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24

  • It defines IPsec policy for traffic sourced from the 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24

  • It defines IPsec policy for traffic sourced from the 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24

  • It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from the 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24

Explanation

Question 27 of 50

1

Which Cisco Security Manager application collects information about the device status and uses it to generate notifications and alerts?

Select one of the following:

  • Health and Performance monitor

  • Device Manager

  • FlexConfig

  • Report Manager

Explanation

Question 28 of 50

1

You have been tasked with blocking user access to websites that violate company policy, but the sites use dynamic IP addresses. What is the best practice for URL filtering to solve the problem?

Select one of the following:

  • Enable URL filtering and create a whitelist to block websites that violate company policy.

  • Enable URL filtering and use URL categorization to block the websites that violate company policy.

  • Enable URL filtering and use URL categorization to allow only the websites that company policy allows users to access

  • Enable URL filtering and create a blacklist to block the websites that violate company policy

  • Enable URL filtering and create a whitelist to allow only the websites that company policy allows users to access

Explanation

Question 29 of 50

1

Which Sourcefire event action should you choose if you want to block only malicious traffic from a particular end user?

Select one of the following:

  • Allow with inspection

  • Block

  • Allow without inspection

  • Monitor

  • Trust

Explanation

Question 30 of 50

1

You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security intelligence iP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP Address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?

Select one of the following:

  • Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic

  • Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic

  • Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic

  • Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic

  • Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic

Explanation

Question 31 of 50

1

Refer to the following commands:

authentication event fail action next-method
authentication event no-response action authorize vlan 101
authentication order mab dot1x webauth
authentication priority dot1x mab
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator

If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?

Select one of the following:

  • The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into unauthorized state.

  • The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.

  • The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.

  • The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method

Explanation

Question 32 of 50

1

In which stage on an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?

Select one of the following:

  • Covering tracks

  • Maintaining access

  • Gaining access

  • Reconnaissance

Explanation

Question 33 of 50

1

Which statement about personal firewalls is true?

Select one of the following:

  • They can protect a system by denying probing requests.

  • They can protect the network against attacks.

  • They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.

  • They are resilient against kernel attacks.

Explanation

Question 34 of 50

1

What is a possible reason for the error message:

Router(config)#aaa server?
% Unrecognized command

Select one of the following:

  • The router is already running the latest operating system

  • The command is invalid on the target device

  • The router is a new device on which the aaa new-model command must be applied before continuing

  • The command syntax requires a space after the word "server"

Explanation

Question 35 of 50

1

Which command is needed to enable SSH support on a Cisco Router?

Select one of the following:

  • crypto key unlock rsa

  • crypto key lock rsa

  • crypto key generate rsa

  • crypto key zeorize rsa

Explanation

Question 36 of 50

1

What is the transition order of STP in states on a Layer 2 switch interface?

Select one of the following:

  • blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled

  • forwarding, listening, learning, blocking, disabled

  • listening, learning, blocking, forwarding, disabled

  • listening, blocking, learning, forwarding, disabled

Explanation

Question 37 of 50

1

Which type of PVLAN port allows hosts in the same VLAN to communicate directly with each other?

Select one of the following:

  • Community for hosts in the PVLAN

  • Span for hosts in the PVLAN

  • Isolated for hosts in the PVLAN

  • Promiscuous for hosts in the PVLAN

Explanation

Question 38 of 50

1

What is the default timeout interval during which a router waits for responses from a TACACS server before declaring a timeout failure?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 seconds

  • 10 seconds

  • 15 seconds

  • 20 seconds

Explanation

Question 39 of 50

1

Refer to the following output:

R1>show clock detail
.22.22:35.123 UTC Tue Feb 26 2013
Time source is NTP

Which statement about the device time is true?

Select one of the following:

  • The time is not authoritative

  • NTP is configured incorrectly

  • The clock is out of sync

  • The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync

  • The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers

Explanation

Question 40 of 50

1

Refer to the following output:

209.114.111.1 configured, ipv4, sane, valid, stratum 2
ref ID 132.163.4.103 , time D7AD124D.9D6FC576 (03:17:33.614 UTC Sun Aug 31 2014)
our mode client, peer mode server, our poll intvl 64, peer poll intvl 64
root delay 46.34 msec, root disp 23.52, reach 1, sync dist 268.59
delay 63.27msec, offset 7.9817 msec, dispersion 107.56, jitter 2.07 msec
precision 2**23, version 4

204.2.134.164 configured, ipv4, sane, valid, stratum 2
ref ID 10.241.199.164.101, time D7AD1419.9EB5272B (03:25:13.619 UTC Sun Aug 31 2014)
our mode client, peer mode server, our poll intvl 64, peer poll intvl 256
root delay 30.83 msec, root disp 4.88, reach 1, sync dist 223.80
delay 58.68msec, offset 6.4331 msec, dispersion 187.55, jitter 1.38 msec
precision 2**20, version 4

192.168.10.7 configured, ipv4, our_master, sane, valid, stratum 3
ref ID 106.61.73.243 , time D7AD0D8F.AE79A23A (02:57:19.681 UTC Sun Aug 31 2014)
our mode client, peer mode server, our poll intvl 64, peer poll intvl 64
root delay 86.45 msec, root disp 87.82, reach 377, sync dist 134.25
delay 0.89 msec, offset 19.5087 msec, dispersion 1.69, jitter 0.84 msec
precision 2**32, version 4

With which NTP server has the router synchronized?

Select one of the following:

  • 204.2.134.164

  • 192.168.10.7

  • 209.114.111.1

  • 132.163.4.103

  • 241.199.164.101

  • 108.61.73.243

Explanation

Question 41 of 50

1

For what reason would you configure multiple security contexts on the ASA firewall?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide redundancy and high availability within the organization.

  • To enable the use of VRFs on routers that are adjacently connected

  • To separate different departments and business units

  • To enable the use of multicast routing and QoS through the firewall

Explanation

Question 42 of 50

1

Which type of encryption technology has the broadest platform support to protect operating systems?

Select one of the following:

  • file-level

  • software

  • hardware

  • middleware

Explanation

Question 43 of 50

1

Which type of security control is defense in depth?

Select one of the following:

  • Botnet mitigation

  • Overt and covert channels

  • Threat mitigation

  • Risk analysis

Explanation

Question 44 of 50

1

When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?

Select one of the following:

  • Deny the connection inline

  • Deploy an antimalware system

  • Perform a Layer 6 reset

  • Enable bypass mode

Explanation

Question 45 of 50

1

Which FirePOWER preprocessor engine is used to prevent SYN attacks?

Select one of the following:

  • Inline Normalization

  • IP Defragmentation

  • Rate-Based Prevention

  • Portscan Detection

Explanation

Question 46 of 50

1

What is a potential drawback to leaving VLAN 1 as the native VLAN?

Select one of the following:

  • The CAM might be overloaded, effectively turning the switch into a hub.

  • Gratititous ARPs might be able to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.

  • It may be susceptible to a VLAN hopping attack.

  • VLAN 1 might be vulnerable to IP Address spoofing.

Explanation

Question 47 of 50

1

Which Cisco feature can help mitigate spoofing attacks by verifying symmetry of the traffic path?

Select one of the following:

  • Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding

  • Unidirectional Link Detection

  • IP Source Guard

  • TrustSec

Explanation

Question 48 of 50

1

If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into a blocked state, what mechanism must be in use?

Select one of the following:

  • EtherChannel guard

  • Loop guard

  • PortFast

  • BPDU Guard

Explanation

Question 49 of 50

1

How does the Cisco ASA use Active Directory to authorize VPN users?

Select one of the following:

  • It send the username and password to retrieve an ACCEPT or REJECT message from the Active Directory server

  • It queries the Active Directory server for a specific attribute for the specified user

  • It downloads and stores the Active Directory database to query for future authorization requests

  • It redirects requests to the Active Directory server defined for the VPN group.

Explanation

Question 50 of 50

1

What command can you use to verify the binding table status?

Select one of the following:

  • show ip dhcp snooping database

  • show ip dhcp snooping statistics

  • show ip dhcp pool

  • show ip dhcp source binding

  • show ip dhcp snooping binding

  • show ip dhcp snooping

Explanation