Oscar Corpancho
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Oscar Corpancho
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Examen Sistemas A320

Question 1 of 86

1

Wich is the best description for the Engines?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The aircraft has two turbofan engines mounted under the wings.

  • The aircraft has two high bypass turbofan engines mounted under the wings

  • The aircraft has two high bypass turbofan engines.

Explanation

Question 2 of 86

1

Wich is the Passenger Seating Layout configuration for TACA A320?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 150.

  • 179.

  • 145.

Explanation

Question 3 of 86

1

Wich is the A320 Wingspan?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 30.2M/95.5Ft

  • 37.0/124.0Ft

  • 34.1M/111.1Ft

Explanation

Question 4 of 86

1

Wich are the Unpressurized Areas/Compartments?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Radome, Nose Gear Bay, Air Conditioning Compartment, Main Gear Bay, Tail Cone.

  • Nose Gear Bay, Air Conditioning Compartment, Main Gear Bay.

  • Radome, Nose Gear Bay, Air Conditioning Compartment, Main Gear Bay, Cargo Compartments, Tail Cone.

Explanation

Question 5 of 86

1

Wich is the Maximum Steering Angle with the Nose Wheel Steering Hand Wheel?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 70.2°

  • 75°

  • 80°

Explanation

Question 6 of 86

1

Air is Supplied by the Pneumatic System via:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2 PACK flow control valves, 2 PACKs.

  • 3 PACK flow control valves, 2 PACKs and Mixing Unit.

  • 2 PACK flow control valves, 2 PACKs and Mixing Unit.

Explanation

Question 7 of 86

1

How many Trim Air Valves exist on the Aircraft?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 3

  • 5

  • 2

Explanation

Question 8 of 86

1

When does the PACK Flow Control Valve closes automatically?

Select one or more of the following:

  • PACK overheating, engine starting, operation of the fire pushbutton and operation of the ditching pushbutton.

  • Engine starting, operation of the fire and operation of the ditching pushbutton.

  • Engine starting.

Explanation

Question 9 of 86

1

According to the RAM AIR Limitation, when can you operate this pushbutton?

Select one or more of the following:

  • With a ΔP 1.5

  • With a ΔP 1.0

  • With a ΔP 8.0

Explanation

Question 10 of 86

1

The HOT-AIR PRESSURE-REGULATING VALVE closes automatically when it detects a Duct Overheat?

Select one or more of the following:

  • YES

  • NO

Explanation

Question 11 of 86

1

During T.O. and Landing, when does the PACK Controller's RAM AIR Inlet Flap Closes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • T.O.: When T.O. Power is applied until the Main Landing Gear Struts are DECOMPRESSED.
    Landing: When the Main Landing Gear Struts are COMPRESSED until 20s after 70Kts.

  • T.O.: When T.O. Power is applied until FLAPS are retracted.
    Landing: When the Main Landing Gear Struts are COMPRESSED until 70Kts.

  • T.O.: When T.O. Power is applied until FLAPS are retracted.
    Landing: When the Main Landing Gear Struts are COMPRESSED until 20s after 70Kts.

Explanation

Question 12 of 86

1

According to the PACK Flow Control Valve logic, if you select "LOW" in the PACK Flow Control Valve selector in the Overhead Panel and the Temperature demand can't be satisfied, can the system automatically selects "NORMAL" Flow?

Select one or more of the following:

  • YES

  • NO

Explanation

Question 13 of 86

1

When does the PACK Flow Control Valve automatically selects "HI" flow?

Select one or more of the following:

  • APU Bleed "ON", operation with One PACK.

  • T.O. Power is applied, APU Bleed "ON", operation with One PACK.

  • T.O. Power is applied, APU Bleed "ON", operation with One PACK, In-Flight.

Explanation

Question 14 of 86

1

What happens when BOTH Lanes of the Air Conditioning System Controller Fails?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The related PACK is lost.

  • The related PACK is lost, and the hot air pressure-regulating valve and associated trim air valves close.

  • The related PACK is lost, and the hot air pressure-regulating valve and associated trim air valves open.

Explanation

Question 15 of 86

1

How many Cabin Fans does the A320 have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 4

  • 6

  • 2

Explanation

Question 16 of 86

1

Wich are the main components of the Pressurization system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2 CPCs, 1 Outflow valve, 1 Control Panel, 2 Safety valves.

  • 1 CPCs, 1 Control Panel, 2 Safety valves.

  • 2 CPCs, 1 Outflow valve, 2 PACKs, 1 Control Panel, 2 Safety valves.

Explanation

Question 17 of 86

1

How many motors does the Outflow valve have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 18 of 86

1

From wich computer does the CPC obtains the Landing Elevation (under Automatic Operation)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ADIRS

  • LGCIU

  • FMGC

Explanation

Question 19 of 86

1

When does the CPCs Automatically changes from one to another?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 70s after landing.

  • If the operating one fails.

  • Both.

Explanation

Question 20 of 86

1

Wich are the Pressurization system modes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ground, T.O., Climb, Cruise, Descent.

  • Ground, T.O., Climb, Cruise, Descent, Abort.

  • T.O., Climb, Cruise, Descent.

Explanation

Question 21 of 86

1

What happens when you press the Ditching Pushbutton?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The outflow valve, the emergency ram air inlet, the avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves closes.

  • The outflow valve, the avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves, and the pack flow control valves closes.

  • The outflow valve, the emergency ram air inlet, the avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves, and the pack flow control valves closes.

Explanation

Question 22 of 86

1

The ventilation system includes ventilation for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Avionics, the Battery, Lavatories and Galleys.

  • The Avionics, the Battery.

  • The Avionics, Cockpit and Cabin.

Explanation

Question 23 of 86

1

What happens with the Skin Air Inlet and Outlet Valves when you apply T.O. Power?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Avionics Ventilation goes to OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIG.

  • The Avionics Ventilation goes to CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIG.

  • The Avionics Ventilation goes to INTERMEDIATE CIRCUIT CONFIG.

Explanation

Question 24 of 86

1

What happens when you press the Blower OR the Extract Pushbutton to OVRD in the Ventilation Panel?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Ventilation System goes to Closed Circuit Config.

  • The Ventilation System goes to Open Circuit Config.

  • The Ventilation System goes to Intermediate Config.

Explanation

Question 25 of 86

1

What happens when you press the Blower AND the Extract Pushbutton to OVRD in the Ventilation Panel?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Ventilation System goes to Closed Circuit Config. But the Extract Fan keeps running.

  • The Ventilation System goes to Open Circuit Config. But the Blower Fan keeps running.

  • The Ventilation System goes to Intermediate Config. But the Extract Fan keeps running.

Explanation

Question 26 of 86

1

How is the Battery ventilated?

Select one or more of the following:

  • With the Blower and Extract Fans.

  • With RAM Air.

  • With a Venturi.

Explanation

Question 27 of 86

1

It can detect "Duct Overheat", with a FAULT in its related Pushbutton

Select one or more of the following:

  • Blower Fan

  • Extract Fan

Explanation

Question 28 of 86

1

Wich are the main components of the Flight Management Guidance System (FMGS)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2 FMGCs, 2 MCDUs, 1 FCU, 3 FACs

  • 2 FMGCs, 2 MCDUs, 1 FCU, 2 FACs

  • 2 FMGCs, 2 FCU, 2 SECs

Explanation

Question 29 of 86

1

Wich are the types of guidance that the FMGS have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Selected, Managed.

  • Selected, Managed, Flight Directors.

  • Auto Thrust, Auto Pilot, Selected, Managed.

Explanation

Question 30 of 86

1

The Flight Guidance part of the FMGC contains these functions:
-Auto Pilot
-Flight Director
-Auto Thrust

Select one or more of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 86

1

The Flight Management part of the FMGC contains these functions:
-Navigation and Management of Radios
-Management of Flight Planing
-Predictions and Optimization of Performance
-Display Management

Select one or more of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 32 of 86

1

How many channels does the FCU have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 4

  • 2

  • 1

Explanation

Question 33 of 86

1

What does the FACs provide?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rudder, Rudder Trim, Yaw Damper, Flight Envelope and Speed functions, Low-Energy Warning and Windshear Detection.

  • Rudder, Rudder Trim, Yaw Damper, Flight Envelope and Speed functions.

  • Flight Envelope and Speed functions.

Explanation

Question 34 of 86

1

Wich are the FMGC modes of operation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dual mode, Independent mode, Single mode, Back-up navigation mode.

  • Dual mode, Independent mode, Single mode.

  • Dual mode, Single mode.

Explanation

Question 35 of 86

1

What is the "MIX IRS"?

Select one or more of the following:

  • An average position, based on the 3 IRS.

  • An average position, based on 2 IRS.

  • The drift error caused by a faulty IR.

Explanation

Question 36 of 86

1

What is the Aircraft "BIAS"?

Select one or more of the following:

  • A vector between the MIX IRS and the Radio/GPIRS Position

  • A vector between the MIX IRS and the Radio Position

  • A vector between the MIX IRS and the GPIRS Position

Explanation

Question 37 of 86

1

Wich is the Priority for position updating?

Select one or more of the following:

  • IRS-GPS

  • IRS-DME/DME

  • IRS-VOR/DME

Explanation

Question 38 of 86

1

How many ADFs receivers does the TACA A320 have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 4

Explanation

Question 39 of 86

1

What happens when you tun an ILS and you don't see the identifier decoded on the PFD?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nothing

  • Listen to the Morse Code

  • Change the Nav-Aid

Explanation

Question 40 of 86

1

How long does the ADIRS take to make a FULL alignment?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 15min

  • 30sec

  • 10min

Explanation

Question 41 of 86

1

What does it mean, if you see that on the ADIRS Overhead CDU the "ALIGN" Light Flashes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Excessive motion, disagreement of position, position not entered.

  • Alignment fault

  • GPS PRIMARY LOST

Explanation

Question 42 of 86

1

Where can you observe the REC MAX ALT?

Select one or more of the following:

  • PROG Page

  • FUEL PRED Page

  • INIT B Page

Explanation

Question 43 of 86

1

The REC MAX ALT provides you with wich Buffet Margin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1.0 G

  • 0.2 G

  • 0.3 G

Explanation

Question 44 of 86

1

The SRS limits the target speed to...

Select one or more of the following:

  • V2+10

  • V2+5

  • V2+15

Explanation

Question 45 of 86

1

When does "RWY" appear on the FMA?

Select one or more of the following:

  • When you preselect a HDG

  • When the LOC signal is available

  • When the YAW BAR is not available

Explanation

Question 46 of 86

1

During Alt* if you move the FCU Altitude, wich is the correct mode reversion?

Select one or more of the following:

  • OPEN CLB/DST

  • CLB/DST

  • V/S

Explanation

Question 47 of 86

1

When does the High Speed Protection activates?

Select one or more of the following:

  • At Vmax+4

  • At Vmax+8

  • At Vmax

Explanation

Question 48 of 86

1

What happens when you make a VHF transmition for more than 30s?

Select one or more of the following:

  • An interrupted tone sounds for 5 s, and the emission is turned off.

  • Nothing.

  • An ECAM appears.

Explanation

Question 49 of 86

1

Can you select a VOR through the RMP?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 50 of 86

1

How can you listen to an ATIS that is related to a VOR?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tune the VOR, release the VOR reception knob and press the on voice key.

  • Tune the VOR, release the VOR reception knob.

  • Release the VOR reception knob.

Explanation

Question 51 of 86

1

The Loudspeaker Volume Knob, controls the volume of the Aural Alerts and Voice Messages

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 52 of 86

1

How can you recover the ACP 2 if failed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Move the Audio Switching Selector to F/O 3

  • Move the Audio Switching Selector to CAP 3

  • Computer reset

Explanation

Question 53 of 86

1

How can you erase the CVR?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pressing the CVR ERASE button for 2 seconds IF the Aircraft is on the ground and Parking Brake ON

  • Pressing the CVR ERASE button for 2 seconds IF Parking Brake ON

  • Pressing the CVR ERASE button for 6 seconds IF the Aircraft is on the ground and Parking Brake ON

Explanation

Question 54 of 86

1

The AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by..

Select one or more of the following:

  • AC BUS 1

  • AC BUS 2

  • EMER GEN

Explanation

Question 55 of 86

1

If flying with Batteries only, does BAT 2 supplies AC ESS BUS and BAT 1 supplies DC ESS BUS?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 56 of 86

1

The GEN 2, supplies the Aircraft with..

Select one or more of the following:

  • 75KVA

  • 90KVA

  • 110KVA

Explanation

Question 57 of 86

1

The GEN 2, supplies the Aircraft with..

Select one or more of the following:

  • 75KVA

  • 90KVA

  • 110KVA

Explanation

Question 58 of 86

1

If you lose the Blue Hyd, you lose the RAT also?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 59 of 86

1

How many TR's does the Electrical System have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 60 of 86

1

When does the RAT automatically deploy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Failure of both AC BUS 1 and 2

  • Failure of AC BUS 2

  • Failure of TR 1

Explanation

Question 61 of 86

1

How long does the RAT takes to deploy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 10s

  • 8s

  • 15s

Explanation

Question 62 of 86

1

How long can you press the IDG Pushbutton?

Select one or more of the following:

  • No more than 2s

  • No more than 5s

  • No more than 3s

Explanation

Question 63 of 86

1

How many Fire Bottles does the APU have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 64 of 86

1

How many Fire Bottles does the Engine have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 65 of 86

1

How many Fire Bottles does the Cargo Compartments have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1 for both compartments

  • 1 for each compartment

  • 2 for each compartment

Explanation

Question 66 of 86

1

Describe the Flight Computers that the airplane have

Select one or more of the following:

  • 2 ELACs, 3 SECs, 2 FACs

  • 3 ELACs, 3 SECs, 2 FACs

  • 1 ELACs, 2 SECs, 1 FACs

Explanation

Question 67 of 86

1

Does the Speed Brake retract automatically when you select FLAPS FULL?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 68 of 86

1

Do you have Auto-trim (Pitch) with more than 33° of Bank?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 69 of 86

1

What happens with the Ailerons when Flaps are extended?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They drop 5° (Aileron Droop)

  • They drop 10° (Aileron Droop)

  • They drop 3° (Aileron Droop)

Explanation

Question 70 of 86

1

It is possible to T.O. with the Center Tank feeding?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 71 of 86

1

Wich are the Fuel Tanks?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Center Tank, Inner Tank, Outet Tank, Ventilation Tank

  • Center Tank, Inner Tank, Outet Tank

  • Center Tank, Inner Tank

Explanation

Question 72 of 86

1

When the Center Tank is Feeding and it sense a Lo Level, after how many minutes it transfers the feeding to the Inner Tanks?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 10m

  • 5m

  • 2m

Explanation

Question 73 of 86

1

When does the Fuel from the Outer Tank is Transfered to the Inner Tank?

Select one or more of the following:

  • When the Inner Tank have 750kg

  • When the Inner Tank have 1000kg

  • When the Inner Tank have 500kg

Explanation

Question 74 of 86

1

Is it possible to Refuel the Aircraft with Batteries ONLY?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 75 of 86

1

When does the PTU actuates?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Differential pressure greater than 500PSI

  • Differential pressure greater than 700PSI

  • Differential pressure greater than 200PSI

Explanation

Question 76 of 86

1

The PTU transfers fluids?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

Explanation

Question 77 of 86

1

How many Pumps does the YELLOW HYD have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 3

  • 2

  • 1

Explanation

Question 78 of 86

1

How many Pumps does the BLUD HYD have?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 3

  • 2

  • 1

Explanation

Question 79 of 86

1

Wich is the MAX SPEED for operating the Windshield Wipers?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 200Kts

  • 230Kts

  • 250Kts

Explanation

Question 80 of 86

1

Wich is the only probe that is not heated on Ground?

Select one or more of the following:

  • OAT

  • Pitot

  • TAT

Explanation

Question 81 of 86

1

If you lose PFD 2, ND 2 and Lower ECAM, wich DMC is lost?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 82 of 86

1

What happens when you select the "ECAM/ND XFR" Selector to CAPT?

Select one or more of the following:

  • It transfers the failed ECAM DU to the Captain ND

  • It transfers the failed ECAM DU to the Captain PFD

  • It transfers the failed ECAM DU to the F/O ND

Explanation

Question 83 of 86

1

How can you know that a DU is failed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Blank screen with an Amber "F", distorted display, blank screen with the “INVALID DISPLAY UNIT” message in amber

  • Blank screen with an Green "F", distorted display, blank screen with the “INVALID DISPLAY UNIT” message in green

  • Blank screen with an Amber "X", distorted display, blank screen with the “INVALID DISPLAY UNIT” message in amber

Explanation

Question 84 of 86

1

What happens when you select Flaps 1 in-flight and you have an Status Reminder?

Select one or more of the following:

  • STS page automatically comes up

  • Nothing

  • An ECAM Caution appears

Explanation

Question 85 of 86

1

When does the Landing Gear Selector Red Arrow iluminates?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1. L/G not downlocked and radio height lower than
    750 ft and
    both engines N1 lower than 75 % (or if engine shut
    down N1 of remaining engine lower than 97 %)
    or
    2. L/G not downlocked and radio height lower than
    750 ft and both engines not at T.O. power and
    flaps at 1, 2, 3 or FULL
    or
    3. L/G not downlocked and flaps at 3 or FULL and
    both radio altimeters failed

  • 1. L/G not downlocked and radio height lower than
    750 ft and
    both engines N1 lower than 75 % (or if engine shut
    down N1 of remaining engine lower than 97 %)
    or
    2. L/G not downlocked and radio height lower than
    750 ft and both engines not at T.O. power and
    flaps at 1, 2, 3 or FULL

  • 1.L/G not downlocked and radio height lower than
    750 ft and both engines not at T.O. power and
    flaps at 1, 2, 3 or FULL
    or
    2. L/G not downlocked and flaps at 3 or FULL and
    both radio altimeters failed

Explanation

Question 86 of 86

1

When does the DECEL Light on the Auto Brake Panel iluminates?

Select one or more of the following:

  • When the actual deceleration is 80 % of the selected rate

  • When the Auto Brake is working

  • At Touchdown

Explanation

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