Jesse Clark
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Quiz on Untitled, created by Jesse Clark on 15/09/2016.

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Jesse Clark
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8 week prep (2)

8 week prep (2)

Question 1 of 90

1

A double-keyed lock requires ___________

Select one of the following:

  • A key to turn the lock on either side of the lock cylinder

  • Two different keys to operate

  • Two keys to be turned at the same time

  • A single key for multiple locks

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

1

A metal door with a wood or cardboard core is called a __________

Select one of the following:

  • Kalamein door

  • Bi-clad door

  • Fire door

  • Shock-proof door

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

1

Bolt cutters will cut case-hardened steel.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

1

Breaching walls and fllors is difficult, time consuming and usually a last resort.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

1

It is always best to "try before you pry" in an effort to minimize property damage.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

1

Looking from the outside, if the hinges of a door are not visible, the is a/an __________.

Select one of the following:

  • inward-opening door

  • hollow core door

  • outward-opening door

  • kalamein door

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

1

Outward-opening doors are required by the Life Safety Code on which type of occupancy?

Select one of the following:

  • Public Assembly

  • Industrial

  • Single-family dwelling

  • Multi-family dwelling

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

1

The "rabbit tool" is an example of a _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Hydraulic spreading tool

  • Pneumatic spreading tool

  • Rotary saw

  • Striking tool

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

1

The entry point for a fire attack will usually be the ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Front door

  • Rear door

  • Side window

  • Front window

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

1

The following are advantages of wire glass except ______________________.

Select one of the following:

  • The wire holds the glass together, requiring removal of the glass as one entire piece.

  • It keeps objects from breaking through

  • It deters burglaries.

  • It can inhibit the spread of fire

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

1

The tool of choice to use in conjunction with a K-tool is the __________.

Select one of the following:

  • Halligan tool

  • Flat-head axe

  • Pick-head axe

  • Sledge hammer

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

1

This type of door is usually distinguishable by its lack of a frame and little or no trim.

Select one of the following:

  • Tempered glass

  • Plate glass

  • Electric strike

  • Wooden framed door

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

1

What is the tool of choice when forcing inward-swinging doors with electric strikes and magnetic locks?

Select one of the following:

  • Hydraulic spreading device

  • Halligan tool

  • Maul

  • Battering ram

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

1

When broken, this type of glass will form large sharp shards.

Select one of the following:

  • Plate

  • Tempered

  • Toughened

  • Safety

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

1

Which is true about forcible entry?

Select one of the following:

  • Always try the least destructive method, if time allows.

  • Always try the fastest method.

  • The fastest method will always be the most destructive.

  • Always try the least destructive method

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

1

Which of the following is not one of the four typical door locks?

Select one of the following:

  • Thumb-screw

  • Mortise

  • Rim

  • Key in knob

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

1

Without power, a fail-secure electric strike will __________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Remain locked

  • Unlock until power is restored

  • Unlock once a minute until power is restored

  • Cause a fire

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

1

A basic water shuttle operation consists of three elements, what are they?

Select one of the following:

  • Dump site, fill site, necessary fire apparatus

  • Dump site, fill site, the necessary hose

  • Dump site, fill site, the necessary firefighters

  • Dump site, fill site, the necessary water

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

1

A reverse lay goes from the fire to the water source.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

1

As a member of the fire service, there are a few other basic properties you should know about water. A gallon of water weighs about ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • 8.33 lbs

  • 62.4 lbs

  • 7.48 lbs

  • .434 lbs

Explanation

Question 21 of 90

1

Engine 6 is responding to a working fire on the east side. They are second due and directed by command to lay in to Engine 13 from a nearby hydrant. What size water main are hydrants typically connected to?

Select one of the following:

  • 6-inch

  • 4-inch

  • 8-inch

  • 20-inch

Explanation

Question 22 of 90

1

Establishing an adequate water supply is _______________________.

Select one of the following:

  • One of the first critical elements of a successful fire attack

  • Second only to establishing ground ladders for the points of firefighter egress

  • Not necessary for small bedroom fires in residential structures

  • Requires multiple fire fighters to drag supply line to a distant hydrant

Explanation

Question 23 of 90

1

Hydrant spacing is typically every ________ feet in high fire load areas, and _______ feet in lesser fire loaded areas such as singe-family neighborhoods.

Select one of the following:

  • 300, 500

  • 250, 500

  • 300, 600

  • 350, 550

Explanation

Question 24 of 90

1

Indentify relay pumping in its simplest form.

Select one of the following:

  • One pump supplying water through fire hose to another pump.

  • Two fire crews working together to establish water.

  • An engine crew feeding water to a ladder truck to extinguish fire.

  • Moving water from a dump tank

Explanation

Question 25 of 90

1

If you bleed the trapped air off of a charged hose line by cracking open the nozzle momentarily and then took a pressure reading at the closed nozzle with no water flowing. What type of pressure reading would you get?

Select one of the following:

  • Static pressure

  • Flow pressure

  • Residual pressure

  • Cumulative pressure

Explanation

Question 26 of 90

1

It should be a goal of fire departments to inspect and maintain fire hydrants annually.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 90

1

One cubic foot of water is approximately __________.

Select one of the following:

  • 7.48 gallons

  • 62.4 gallons

  • 8.33 gallons

  • .434 gallons

Explanation

Question 28 of 90

1

The best practice to prevent water hammer is by always operating valves and nozzles in a ___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Slow deliverate and cautious manner

  • Rapid motion to stop water flow before damage occurs

  • Controlled setting as directed by the company officer

  • Water hammer damage does not occur in systems with hydrants

Explanation

Question 29 of 90

1

The chief officer at a working structure fire should not be concerned at all with establishing a water supply; that is a responsibility of company officers and firefighters. The chief should concentrate on running the incident.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 30 of 90

1

The wet barrel hydrant is typically found in freezing climates so that water is quickly available.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 90

1

According to Boise Fire Department SOP 206.05 "water supply", it is not necessary to ensure that an adequate, uniterrupted supply of water is established when placing fire streams in operation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 32 of 90

1

Water in motion as it flow out the nozzle represents flow pressure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 90

1

Two of the most important physical rules governing water supply are that water seeks it own level and _________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Is non-compressible

  • Is wet and absorbs heart

  • Is readily available in domestic water supply systems

  • Can contribute to water damage in both residential and commercial buildings

Explanation

Question 34 of 90

1

What is the main access point for the fire department water supply in municipal water systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Hydrants

  • Pools, rivers and ponds

  • Dump tanks and water tankers

  • Water shuttle operations

Explanation

Question 35 of 90

1

Which type of fire apparatus is built to carry up to 3,500 gallons of water?

Select one of the following:

  • Water tender

  • Super pumper

  • Engine

  • Ladder

Explanation

Question 36 of 90

1

A CAD system is a _________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Computer-aided dispatch system

  • Computer-aided design system

  • Computers-added drafting system

  • Computer-automated dispatch system

Explanation

Question 37 of 90

1

A Public Safety Communications Center is also referred to as a PSAP. A PSAP is a Public Safety Answering __________.

Select one of the following:

  • Point

  • Position

  • Person

  • Place

Explanation

Question 38 of 90

1

A device used to extend the range of a radio signal over a larger geographical; area is called a _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Repeater

  • Receiver

  • Ranger

  • Redirector

Explanation

Question 39 of 90

1

A powerful radio located in a fixed location is know as a _________.

Select one of the following:

  • Base radio

  • Portable radio

  • Mobile radio

  • Repeater radio

Explanation

Question 40 of 90

1

Ada County fire departments use what type of radio channels on a structure fire?

Select one of the following:

  • 700MHz digital

  • VHF analog

  • UHF analog

  • Duplex analog

Explanation

Question 41 of 90

1

In a simplex radio system how many parties may speak at one time on one channel?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 42 of 90

1

Documenting the event is part of the communications process.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 43 of 90

1

Of the critical information needed by a telecommunicator, what is the minimum need to effect a response?

Select one of the following:

  • Location of and nature of the emergency

  • Callers name and contact number

  • Conditions at the caller location

  • Type of device the caller is using to report the emergency

Explanation

Question 44 of 90

1

Per SOP 205.01, a progress report includes:

Select one of the following:

  • Postion (location), Progress, Needs

  • Position (location), Progress, Accountability

  • Postion (location), Assignment, Progress

  • Assignment, Progress, Accountability

Explanation

Question 45 of 90

1

Public safety radio communications in the United States is regulated by ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • The FCC

  • The IAFF

  • The IAFC

  • The NVFC

Explanation

Question 46 of 90

1

The Nation Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard for the Installation, Maintenance, and use of Emergency Communications Systems is known as ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • NFPA 1221

  • NFPA 1220

  • NFPA 1222

  • NFPA 1212

Explanation

Question 47 of 90

1

The phonetic equivalent of the letters A, B, N, R and Y are:

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha, Bravo, November, Romeo, Yankee

  • Alpha, Baker, Nora, Roberts, Yellow

  • Adam, Boy, Nora, Robert, Yellow

  • Alpha, Bravo, Nora, Roger, Yankee

Explanation

Question 48 of 90

1

The preferred method of communcations on a radio system is ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Plain language or clear text

  • Plain english

  • Ten-codes

  • Fire service jargon

Explanation

Question 49 of 90

1

The radio used by a fire officer on the fireground is a ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Portable radio

  • Base radio

  • Mobile radio

  • Repeater radio

Explanation

Question 50 of 90

1

What items must be communicated initially when transmitting a Mayday (prior to acknowledgement from Command)?

Select one of the following:

  • Mayday, Identifier, Location

  • Mayday, Identifier, Situation, Location

  • Mayday, Identifier, Situation

  • Mayday, Identifier, Situation, Location, Plan

Explanation

Question 51 of 90

1

The rumor mill is a good source of information on what is going on in the fire department.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 90

1

What term is used to clear all non-essential communications on the fireground for urgent communications?

Select one of the following:

  • Emergency traffic

  • Mayday

  • Tone alert

  • Shut up so I can talk

Explanation

Question 53 of 90

1

What term is used to have fire personnel evacuate a structure in rapid retreat, utilizing the closest egress withotu tools and equipment (except hand tools)?

Select one of the following:

  • Abandon

  • Evacuate

  • Withdraw

  • Emergency traffic

Explanation

Question 54 of 90

1

Which of the following is the standard communication model?

Select one of the following:

  • Sender calls receiver, receiver acknowledges sender, sender transmits message, receiver confirms message.

  • Sender transmits message, receiver confirms message, sender acknowledges receiver understood message, receiver reports "over and out".

  • Sender transmits message, receiver confirms message, sender confirms receiver understands message.

  • Sender sends message, receiver confirms message

Explanation

Question 55 of 90

1

Which term is used on an emergency scene and indicates that you are ready for a new assignment?

Select one of the following:

  • Available

  • In service

  • Task complete

  • Good to go

Explanation

Question 56 of 90

1

ICS 100. At the incident scene, who handles media inquires?

Select one of the following:

  • Public Information Officer

  • Communications Officer

  • External Affair Specialist

  • Media Relations Specialist

Explanation

Question 57 of 90

1

ICS 100. If the Incident Commander designates personnel to provide public information, safety, and liaison services, the personnel are collectively referred to as the:

Select one of the following:

  • Command Staff

  • Director Staff

  • Executive Staff

  • Incident Staff

Explanation

Question 58 of 90

1

ICS 100. In ICS, the members of the Command Staff assume the title of:

Select one of the following:

  • Officer

  • Executive

  • Leader

  • Director

Explanation

Question 59 of 90

1

ICS 100. Span of control refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • The number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident.

  • The process fo moving the responsibility for incident command from one Incident Commander to another.

  • An orderly line of authority that exists without the ranks of the incident management organization

  • The act of directing, ordering, or controlling by virture of explicit statutory, reulatory, or delegated authority.

Explanation

Question 60 of 90

1

ICS 100. The Operations Section Chief:

Select one of the following:

  • Directs tactical actions to achieve the incident objectives

  • Prepares and impleents the Incident Commuication Plan

  • Coordinates communication between all responding agencies

  • Sets up and maintains all incident facilites and good services

Explanation

Question 61 of 90

1

ICS 100. The difference between a Strike Team and a Task Force is:

Select one of the following:

  • Strike Teams have similar resources while Task Forces are comprised of mixed resources.

  • Strike Teams report to an Officer while Task Forces report to ladder.

  • Strike Teams are in the Operations Section while Task Forces are in the Planning Section.

  • Strike teams have a lower span of control ration when compared to Task Forces.

Explanation

Question 62 of 90

1

ICS 100. Which of the following organizational entities within the Operations Section may be used to divide an incident geographically?

Select one of the following:

  • Divisions

  • Groups

  • Regiments

  • Units

Explanation

Question 63 of 90

1

ICS 100. Who has overall responsibility for managing the on-scene incident?

Select one of the following:

  • Incident Commander

  • Operations Section Chief

  • Emergency Operations Center Manager

  • Agency Executive

Explanation

Question 64 of 90

1

ICS 100. You are a Group Supervisor wordking in a Branch within the Operations Section. Who is your immediate supervisor?

Select one of the following:

  • Branch Director

  • Branch Executive Officer

  • Branch Leader

  • Branch Chief

Explanation

Question 65 of 90

1

ICS 200. General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources?

Select one of the following:

  • Operations Section Chief

  • Finance/Administration Section Chief

  • Planning Section Chief

  • Logistics Section Chief

Explanation

Question 66 of 90

1

ICS 200. Smith is the Situation Unit Leader. No Planning Section Chief is assigned. Who does Chris Smith report to?

Select one of the following:

  • Incident Commander

  • No Direct Supervisor

  • Operations Section Chief

  • Public Information Officer

Explanation

Question 67 of 90

1

ICS 200. Is responsible fo deteming the appropriate tactics for an incident?

Select one of the following:

  • The Operations Section

  • The Planning Section

  • The Safety Officer

  • The Deputy Incident Commander

Explanation

Question 68 of 90

1

ICS 200. Level of the ICS organization may have Deputy positions: - Branch - Incident Commander - ___________________

Select one of the following:

  • Section

  • Division

  • Staging Area

  • Group

Explanation

Question 69 of 90

1

ICS 200. The TRUE statement:

Select one of the following:

  • Span of control is accomplished by organizing resources into Teams, Divisions, Groups, Branches, or Sections

  • Span of control should be established without consideration of factor such as the type of incident, nature of the task, hazards, and safety factors.

  • Span of control may be extended beyond 1:10 in order to ensure that more resources can be deployed on complex, large incidents.

  • Span of control is less of a factor of concern for incidents that are resolved within the initial operational period.

Explanation

Question 70 of 90

1

ICS 200. Within the ICS organization can be established:

Select one of the following:

  • Geographically or functionally

  • Within Groups to organize resources

  • Along agency jurisdictional lines

  • Under the supervision of a Leader

Explanation

Question 71 of 90

1

ICS 200. Representatives from Assiting or Cooperating Agencies and Organizations coordinate through:

Select one of the following:

  • Liason officer

  • Public Information Officer

  • Logistics Sections Chief

  • Operations Section Chief

Explanation

Question 72 of 90

1

________________ means that each individual involved in incident operations will be assigned to only one supervisor.

Select one of the following:

  • Unity of Command

  • Supervisor Authority

  • Span of Control

  • Unified Command

Explanation

Question 73 of 90

1

After aeration, the discharged foam product is called _______ foam.

Select one of the following:

  • Finished

  • Mixed

  • Aerated

  • Aspirated

Explanation

Question 74 of 90

1

All of the following are possible causes of foam generating problems EXCEPT ONE, CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.

Select one of the following:

  • Attaching the eductor directly to the apparatus discharge

  • Partially closed nozzle

  • Failure to match eductor and nozzle flow

  • Nozzle is too high above the eductor

Explanation

Question 75 of 90

1

Foam is effective on flammable liquid fires for all of the following reason EXCEPT ON, CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.

Select one of the following:

  • It dilutes the fuel

  • It forms an oxygen-excluding blanket

  • It seperates the vapors from the heat source

  • It cools the fuel

Explanation

Question 76 of 90

1

In addition to extinguishing flammable liquid fires, what else can class B foams be used for?

Select one of the following:

  • To suppress vapor emission from unignited fuels

  • For extinguishing charged electrical equipment

  • As a detergent for haz-mat decontamination applications

  • As a smothering agent for class D fires

Explanation

Question 77 of 90

1

Portable foam extinguishers are examples of _________ systems.

Select one of the following:

  • Premixed

  • Induction

  • Draft

  • Venturi proportioned

Explanation

Question 78 of 90

1

Raw liquid foam as it comes from the manufacturer is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Foam concentrate

  • Chemical foam

  • Undiluted foam solution

  • Foam solution

Explanation

Question 79 of 90

1

The application rate for AFF and FFFP is ________ gpm of foam solution per square foot of ignited hydrocarbon fuel.

Select one of the following:

  • .10

  • .01

  • 1.0

  • 10

Explanation

Question 80 of 90

1

What foam formulation is effective on polar solvents?

Select one of the following:

  • Alcohol resistant AFFF

  • Protein

  • Fluoroprotein

  • Film forming fluoroprotein

Explanation

Question 81 of 90

1

What is adding foam concentrate to a fire apparatus tank at the time it is needed called?

Select one of the following:

  • Batch mixing

  • Premixing

  • Tank mixing

  • Ready mixing

Explanation

Question 82 of 90

1

What is batch-mixing foam most appropriate for?

Select one of the following:

  • Class A foam

  • Class B foam

  • Car fires

  • Foam requiring a mechanical generator

Explanation

Question 83 of 90

1

What is the term for the mixture of foam concentrate and water before air has been added?

Select one of the following:

  • Foam solution

  • Un-aerated foam

  • Foam mix

  • Proportioned foam

Explanation

Question 84 of 90

1

Which appliance mixes the correct amount of foam concentrate with water?

Select one of the following:

  • Proportioner

  • Aerator

  • Venturi device

  • Aspirator

Explanation

Question 85 of 90

1

Which is one of the sides of the foam tetrahedron?

Select one of the following:

  • Mechanical agitation

  • Proportioning

  • Aerating

  • Educting

Explanation

Question 86 of 90

1

Which is the usual foam application method for aboveground storage tank fires?

Select one of the following:

  • Rain-down

  • Roll-on

  • Bank-down

  • Subsurface injection

Explanation

Question 87 of 90

1

Which one of these is an example of a hydrocarbon fuel?

Select one of the following:

  • Benzene

  • Acetone

  • Lacuer thinner

  • Ketones

Explanation

Question 88 of 90

1

Which statement about an in-line foam eductor is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • It uses the venturi priniciple to draft foam concentrate

  • There are two types, mechanical and manifold-driven

  • The eductor draws air into the foam solution

  • The pickup tube tends to clog easily

Explanation

Question 89 of 90

1

Which type of foam can be used to reduce the surface tension of water?

Select one of the following:

  • Class A

  • High Expansion

  • Fluoroprotein

  • Protein

Explanation

Question 90 of 90

1

Why are regular foams ineffective on polar solvents?

Select one of the following:

  • The foam mixes into the solvent

  • The solvent has too high a vapor pressure

  • The solvent floats on the foam

  • The solvent floats on the foam solution

Explanation

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