Microbiology Practical F

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Question 1 of 105

Obligate intracellular parasite

Select one of the following:

Organisms that can only grow inside another living host.
Viruses that infect bacteria.
Viral replication cycle that ends in the death of the host cell.

Explanation

Question 2 of 105

Bacteriophage

Select one of the following:

Viruses that infect bacteria.
Organisms that can only grow inside another living host cell.
Viral replication cycle that ends in death of its host cell.

Explanation

Question 3 of 105

Lytic cycle

Select one of the following:

Viral replication cycle that ends in death of its host cell.
Organisms that can only grow inside another living host cell.
Viruses that infect bacteria.

Explanation

Question 4 of 105

How does a medium used for bacterial growth differ from media used for bacteriophage growth?

Select one of the following:

Use ordinary media to grow bacteria but, a bacteriophage needs a host cell.
Use ordinary media to grow bacteriophages but, bacteria needs a host cell.

Explanation

Question 5 of 105

What is the purpose of making serial dilutions of the T-4 phage?

Select one of the following:

To obtain a countable plate of 30 - 300 plaques.
To obtain a countable plate of 30 - 300 colonies.
To obtain a countable plate of 30 - 300 individual viruses.

Explanation

Question 6 of 105

What is a viral plaque and what does it represent?

Select one of the following:

An area of clearing on an agar representing a spot where a virus landed, infected a bacteria and lysed it.
An area on an agar representing a spot where a bacteria landed, infected a virus and lysed it.
An area on an agar representing a spot where a virus landed, infect a yeast and lysed it.

Explanation

Question 7 of 105

What purpose does the E. coli serve in this procedure?

Select one of the following:

It is the host cell for the T4 bacteriophage
It is the host cell of the T4 bacteria.
It is the host cell of the T4 fungus.

Explanation

Question 8 of 105

Explain why Coccidioides immitis is considered to be a dimorphic fungus.

Select one of the following:

It can grow as a yeast and as a mold.
It can grow as a yeast and a virus.
It can grow as a mold and a virus.

Explanation

Question 9 of 105

What are the growth differences between fungus and bacteria?

Select one of the following:

Fungi grow faster, at a lower temperature and at a lower pH than bacteria.
Fungi grow faster, at a higher temperature and at a higher pH than bacteria.
Fungi grow slower, at a lower temperature and at a lower pH than bacteria.
Fungi grow slower, at a higher temperature and at a higher pH than bacteria.

Explanation

Question 10 of 105

Staphylococcus and Micrococcus are"

Select one of the following:

Gram (+) cocci in clusters
Gram (-) cocci in clusters
Staphylococcus is gram (+) in clusters and Micrococcus is gram (-) in pairs
Staphylococcus is gram (-) in clusters and Micrococcus is gram (+) in pairs

Explanation

Question 11 of 105

Where are Staphylococcus and Micrococcus normally found in the body?

Select one of the following:

Skin and mucus membranes
Intestines
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin and hair

Explanation

Question 12 of 105

Where are Staphylococcus and Micrococcus normally found in the body?

Select one of the following:

Skin and mucus membranes
Intestines
Gastrointestinal tract
Skin and hair

Explanation

Question 13 of 105

People that harbor the pathogen but exhibit no symptoms.

Select one of the following:

Carrier
MRSA
Nosocomial
Giver

Explanation

Question 14 of 105

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Select one of the following:

MRSA
Carrier
Nosocomial
Multiple Resistant Streptococcus Aureus

Explanation

Question 15 of 105

Hospital acquired

Select one of the following:

Nosocomial
Carrier
Giver
Catalase

Explanation

Question 16 of 105

Which substances that Staphylococcus aureus produce to cause disease

Select one or more of the following:

Catalase
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
Carilase

Explanation

Question 17 of 105

When do staphylococcus epidermidis and Micrococcus cause disease?

Select one of the following:

They are opportunistic pathogens.
All the time
Never

Explanation

Question 18 of 105

Differentiate the colony appearance of Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

Select one of the following:

Staph are larger, convex, opague and pigmented, Strep are smaller, translucent to slightly opaque.
Strep are larger, convex, opague and pigmented, Straph are smaller, translucent to slightly opaque.
Staph are smaller, convex, opague and pigmented, Strep are larger, translucent to slightly opaque.

Explanation

Question 19 of 105

Which enzyme helps differentiate all staphylococci from streptococci?

Select one of the following:

Catalase
Streptocase
Staphoolase

Explanation

Question 20 of 105

How did Lancefield divide the beta-hemolytic streptococci into groups?

Select one of the following:

C polysaccharide extracted from the cell walls
Peptidoglycan extracted from the cell walls
Lipids extracted from the cell walls

Explanation

Question 21 of 105

What is the species name of Lancefield Group A streptococci.

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus aureus
Streptococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus agalaticae

Explanation

Question 22 of 105

What is the species name of Lancefield Group B streptococci?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus agalaticae
Streptococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus cocci

Explanation

Question 23 of 105

Where are Enterococcus normally found int he body?

Select one of the following:

Gastrointestinal tract
Skin and mucus
Liver
Kidneys

Explanation

Question 24 of 105

VRE?

Select one of the following:

Vancomycin resistant enterococcus
Vancomycin resistant ebolacoccus
Vancomycin resistant enteroboccus

Explanation

Question 25 of 105

Viridans streptococci

Select one of the following:

Alpha hemolytic streptococci other than streptococcus pneumonea
Beta hemolytic streptococci other than streptococcus pneumonea
Alpha heolytic staphylococci other than staphylococcus pneumonea
Beta heolytic staphylococci other than staphylococcus pneumonea

Explanation

Question 26 of 105

Group A Strep causes __________________

Select one of the following:

Strep throat
Community-acquired pneumonia
Neonatal septicemia
Urinary tract infection

Explanation

Question 27 of 105

Group B Strep causes _____________

Select one of the following:

Neonatal septicemia
Strep throat
Urinary tract infection
Community-acquired pneumonia

Explanation

Question 28 of 105

Enterococcus causes _________________

Select one of the following:

Urinary tract infection
Dental cavities
Strep throat
Neonatal speticemia

Explanation

Question 29 of 105

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes _________________

Select one of the following:

Community-acquired pneumonia
Neonatal septicemia
Urinary tract infection
Strep throat

Explanation

Question 30 of 105

Viridans streptococci

Select one of the following:

Dental cavities
Strep throat
Urinary tract infection
Neonatal septicemia

Explanation

Question 31 of 105

Why is Coccidioides immitis considered to be a dimorphic fungus?

Select one of the following:

It can grow as a yeast and as a mold
It can grow in pairs.
It can grow as coccus or bacillus.

Explanation

Question 32 of 105

What are the growth factors between fungus and bacteria?

Select one of the following:

Fungi grow slower, at a lower temp and lower pH than bacteria
Fungi grow faster, at a higher temp and higher pH than bacteria
Fungi grow slower, at a higher temp and lower pH than bacteria
Fungi grow faster, at a lower temp and higher pH than bacteria

Explanation

Question 33 of 105

Explain the difference between vegetative hyphae and aerial hyphae.

Select one of the following:

Vegetative hyphae grow on or down into the agar surface; aerial hyphae grow above the agar surface.
Aerial hyphae grow on or down into the agar surface; vegetative hyphae grow above the agar surface.

Explanation

Question 34 of 105

The difference between sporangiospores and conidiospores:

Select one of the following:

Sporangipospores are inside of a sac and condidiospores are the end of hyphae.
Condidiospores are inside of a sac and sporangipospores are the end of hyphae.

Explanation

Question 35 of 105

How are molds identified in the laboratory?

Select one or more of the following:

Macroscopic appearance
Microscopic appearance
Hyphal structure

Explanation

Question 36 of 105

What are the characteristics of Enterobacteriacea?

Select one or more of the following:

All are gram (-) rods
All are gram (+) cocci
All ferment glucose
All reduce nitrate to nitrite
They are oxidase (-)
They are oxidase (+)
They do not ferment glucose

Explanation

Question 37 of 105

What are the characteristics of non-fermenters?

Select one or more of the following:

All are gram (-)
All ferment glucose
They do not ferment glucose
They are all oxidase (-)
Many are oxidase (+)
All are gram (+)

Explanation

Question 38 of 105

What are the two major groups of gram (-) rods?

Select one or more of the following:

Enterobacteriacaea
Non-fermenters
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

Explanation

Question 39 of 105

Which carbohydrate is used to determine whether a gram negative rod is a "Nonfermenter" or "Enterobacteriacae"?

Select one of the following:

Glucose
Lactose

Explanation

Question 40 of 105

What carbohydrate(s) are in the Kigler Iron Agar media?

Select one or more of the following:

Glucose
Lactose
Sucrose
Galactose

Explanation

Question 41 of 105

What carbohydrate(s) are in the MacConkey agar?

Select one or more of the following:

Glucose
Lactose
Sucrose
Galactose

Explanation

Question 42 of 105

Why is MacConkey agar considered to be a selective and differential media?

Select one of the following:

It is selective because it contains bile salts and crystal violet which inhibit the growth of gram (+) organisms. It is differential because it contains lactose making it differential for lactose fermentation.
It is selective because it contains bile salts and crystal violet which inhibit the growth of gram (-) organisms. It is differential because it contains lactose making it differential for lactose fermentation.
It is differential because it contains bile salts and crystal violet which inhibit the growth of gram (+) organisms. It is selective because it contains lactose making it differential for lactose fermentation.
It is differential because it contains bile salts and crystal violet which inhibit the growth of gram (-) organisms. It is selective because it contains lactose making it differential for lactose fermentation.

Explanation

Question 43 of 105

How many types of organisms will you identify in the mixed unknown exercise?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 44 of 105

What type of organism grows on MacConkey agar?

Select one of the following:

Gram (-)
Gram (+)

Explanation

Question 45 of 105

What ingredient on the MacConkey agar will differentiate the organisms growing on the agar?

Select one of the following:

Lactose
Bile salts and crystal violet
Blood

Explanation

Question 46 of 105

What type of organism grows on CNA?

Select one of the following:

Gram (+)
Gram (-)

Explanation

Question 47 of 105

What ingredient in the CNA media allows differentiation of the organisms growing on the agar?

Select one of the following:

Bile salts and crystal violet
Blood
Lactose

Explanation

Question 48 of 105

Why is CNA media incubated in a candle jar?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus are microaerophiles
Streptococcus are anaerobes

Explanation

Question 49 of 105

Why is a cotton swab used to obtain the sample from the original broth?

Select one of the following:

To make sure we get both organisms from the mixed culture
To make sure enough sample is collected
To make it easier to inoculate the media

Explanation

Question 50 of 105

Why is T. soy agar used to grow the "stock cultures"?

Select one of the following:

It's a neutral media that all bacteria like
It is a selective media that only gram (-) bacteria like.
It is a selective media that only gram (+) bacteria like.

Explanation

Question 51 of 105

Why do you need to develop two flow charts in order to identify your unknown organisms?

Select one of the following:

You have to develop a dichotomous key for each of your unknown organisms and we have two organisms.
You have to develop a dichotomous key for each depending on the outcome of growth on the selective media.

Explanation

Question 52 of 105

What is an "enteric" organism?

Select one of the following:

Part of the normal flora of the intestinal tract
Bacteria that live inside another organism.

Explanation

Question 53 of 105

How are culture media designed to detect if a bacteria can produce a specific enzyme?

Select one of the following:

Substrates are incorporated into the culture media that the enzymes act upon and that along with indicator system lets you see the products.
Enzymes are incorporated into the media and an indicator systems lets you see if they match the organism.

Explanation

Question 54 of 105

What is the purpose of the Durham tube in the carbohydrate fermentation tubes?

Select one of the following:

Collects gas
Releases gas
Keeps tube from exploding

Explanation

Question 55 of 105

Name the specific tests that are part of the IMViC test

Select one or more of the following:

Indole
Methyl red
Voges-Proskauer
Citrate
Urease

Explanation

Question 56 of 105

Name 3 Enterobacteriaceae normally found in the gastrointestinal tract.

Select one or more of the following:

E. coli
Enterobacter aerogenes
Proteus vulgaris
Salmonella
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Shigella

Explanation

Question 57 of 105

Name two Enterobacteriaceae that are major pathogens and state the disease they cause.

Select one or more of the following:

Salmonella - Gastroenteritis, typhoid fever
Shigella - Bacterial dysentery
E. coli - Gastroenteritis, typhoid fever
Proteus vulgaris - Bacterial dysentery

Explanation

Question 58 of 105

Which commercial test systems are used to identify gram (-) rods in clinical labs?

Select one or more of the following:

Entero tube
API
20E
Micro ID
Micro tube
APE

Explanation

Question 59 of 105

Why do you use the streak-stab method for blood agar inoculations?

Select one of the following:

So you can see the hemolysis better
To see if the bacteria like to grow in or on the agar

Explanation

Question 60 of 105

Where do you grow streptococcus and why?

Select one of the following:

In a candle jar because it's a microaerophile
In the air because it's an aerobe

Explanation

Question 61 of 105

Which bacteria are alpha and optochin sensitive?

Select one or more of the following:

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Group C Streptococcus
Enterococcis faecalis

Explanation

Question 62 of 105

Which bacteria are and optochin resistant?

Select one or more of the following:

Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Group C Streptococcus
Enterococcus faecalis

Explanation

Question 63 of 105

Which bacteria are beta and bacitracin sensitive?

Select one or more of the following:

Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus mitis
Group C Streptococcus
Enterococcus faecalis

Explanation

Question 64 of 105

Which bacteria are beta and bacitracin resistant?

Select one or more of the following:

Group C Streptococcus
Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Enterococcus faecalis
Streptococcus pyogenes

Explanation

Question 65 of 105

How do you tell the difference between the alpha hemolytic Streptococcus and and Enterococcus faecalis?

Select one of the following:

The alpha Streptococcus are bile esculin (-) and the Enterococcus faecalis is bile esculin (+)
The alpha Streptococcus are bile esculin (+) and the Enterococcus faecalis is bile esculin (-)

Explanation

Question 66 of 105

How does the catalase test differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus?

Select one of the following:

Staphylococcus is catalase (+) and Streptococcus is catalase (-)
Staphylococcus is catalase (-) and Streptococcus is catalase (+)

Explanation

Question 67 of 105

What kind of hemolysis is shown on this plate?

Select one of the following:

Alpha hemolyisis
Beta Hemolysis
Gamma Hemolysis

Explanation

Question 68 of 105

What is the mold pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillis
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 69 of 105

What is the mold pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 70 of 105

What is the mold pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 71 of 105

What is the mold pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhuzopus

Explanation

Question 72 of 105

What is the mold pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 73 of 105

What is the mold pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 74 of 105

What is the mold pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 75 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 76 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 77 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 78 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 79 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 80 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 81 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 82 of 105

What mold is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Aspergillus
Penicillium
Rhizopus

Explanation

Question 83 of 105

Is this result positive or negative for beta lactamase?

Select one of the following:

Positive
Negative

Explanation

Question 84 of 105

Is this result positive or negative for beta lactamase?

Select one of the following:

Positive
Negative

Explanation

Question 85 of 105

What are the results of the bile esculin test pictured?

Select one of the following:

A = negative, B = positive
A = positive, B = negative

Explanation

Question 86 of 105

What are the results of the carbohydrate fermentation pictured?

Select one of the following:

A = negative, B = positive, C = positive + gas
A = positive, B = negative, C = negative +gas

Explanation

Question 87 of 105

What are the results of the citrate test pictured?

Select one of the following:

A = negative, B = positive
A = positive, B = negative

Explanation

Question 88 of 105

What are the results of the indole test pictured?

Select one of the following:

A = negative, B = positive
A = positive, B = negative

Explanation

Question 89 of 105

What is the result of the lactose fermentation pictured?

Select one of the following:

A = negative, B = positive, C = positive
A = negative, B = negative, C = positive
A = positive, B = negative, C = negative
A = positive, B = positive, C = negative

Explanation

Question 90 of 105

What are the results of the motility test pictured?

Select one of the following:

A = non-motile, B = motile, C = motile
A = non-motile, B = non-motile, C = motile
A = motile, B =motile, C = non-motile
A = motile, B = non-motile, C = non-motile

Explanation

Question 91 of 105

What are the results of the sensitivity test pictured?

Select one of the following:

A = sensitive, B = resistant
A = resistant, B = sensitive

Explanation

Question 92 of 105

How do you calculate the titer of phage in the original sample given the number of plaques and the dilution of the plate?

Select one of the following:

# of plaques x dilution x 10^-1 = _________ PFU/mL
# of plaques x dilution x 10^1= __________ PFU/mL

Explanation

Question 93 of 105

What kind of hemolysis is pictured?

Select one of the following:

Gamma
Alpha
Beta

Explanation

Question 94 of 105

Which bacteria is cogulase positive and manitol slat agar positive?

Select one of the following:

Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epiderminis
Micrococcus roseus
Micrococcus luteus

Explanation

Question 95 of 105

Which bacteria is coagulase negative and manitol salt agar negative?

Select one of the following:

Staphylococcus epidermidis
Stapylococcus aureus
Micrococcus roseus
Micrococcus luteus

Explanation

Question 96 of 105

What bacteria is positive for nitrate reduction and rose for pigment production?

Select one of the following:

Micrococcus roseus
Micrococcus luteus
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis

Explanation

Question 97 of 105

What bacteria is negative for nitrate reduction and yellow for pigment production?

Select one of the following:

Micrococcus luteus
Micrococcus roseus
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis

Explanation

Question 98 of 105

How is Enterococcus faecalis differentiated from other alpha hemolytic streptococcus?

Select one of the following:

It is positive for bile esculin
It is negative for bile esculin

Explanation

Question 99 of 105

Which Streptococcus bacteria is optochin resistant?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Group C streptococcus

Explanation

Question 100 of 105

Which streptococcus bacteria is optochin sensitive?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Group C Streptococcus

Explanation

Question 101 of 105

Which bacteria is bacitration resistant?

Select one of the following:

Group C Streptococcus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus mitis

Explanation

Question 102 of 105

Which bacteria is bacitracin sensitive?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Group C Streptococcus

Explanation

Question 103 of 105

Which bacteria are alpha hemolytic?

Select one or more of the following:

Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Group C Streptococcus

Explanation

Question 104 of 105

Which bacteria are beta hemolytic?

Select one or more of the following:

Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Group C Streptococcus

Explanation

Question 105 of 105

What hemolysis is pictured?

Select one of the following:

A= alpha, B = beta, C = gamma
A = beta, B = alpha, C = gamma
A = gamma, B = alpha, C = beta

Explanation

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	Created by Elle Ashe over 10 years ago

Raymond MCC

Microbiology Practical F

Microbiology Practical F

Question 1 of 105

Obligate intracellular parasite

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 105

Bacteriophage

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 105

Lytic cycle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 105

How does a medium used for bacterial growth differ from media used for bacteriophage growth?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 105

What is the purpose of making serial dilutions of the T-4 phage?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 105

What is a viral plaque and what does it represent?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 105

What purpose does the E. coli serve in this procedure?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 105

Explain why Coccidioides immitis is considered to be a dimorphic fungus.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 105

What are the growth differences between fungus and bacteria?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 105

Staphylococcus and Micrococcus are"

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 105

Where are Staphylococcus and Micrococcus normally found in the body?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 105

Where are Staphylococcus and Micrococcus normally found in the body?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 105

People that harbor the pathogen but exhibit no symptoms.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 105

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 105

Hospital acquired

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 105

Which substances that Staphylococcus aureus produce to cause disease

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 105

When do staphylococcus epidermidis and Micrococcus cause disease?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 105

Differentiate the colony appearance of Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 105

Which enzyme helps differentiate all staphylococci from streptococci?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 105