Andres Felipe Londono
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Quiz on examen 1, created by Andres Felipe Londono on 20/10/2016.

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Andres Felipe Londono
Created by Andres Felipe Londono about 8 years ago
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examen 1

Question 1 of 100

1

The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the

Select one of the following:

  • Thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.

  • Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.

  • Use of ailerons has increased the drag.

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?

Select one of the following:

  • the lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.

  • The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.

  • Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Defines VNO as

Select one of the following:

  • Maximum operating limit speed.

  • Maximum structural cruising speed.

  • Never-exceed speed.

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the

Select one of the following:

  • Rate of turn

  • Angle of bank

  • True airspeed

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by

Select one of the following:

  • Changes in air density

  • Variations in flight altitude.

  • Variations in airplane loading

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift

Select one of the following:

  • Is momentarily decreased.

  • Remains the same.

  • Is momentarily increased.

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time

Select one of the following:

  • Divided by the total weight of the aircraft.

  • Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.

  • Divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the

Select one of the following:

  • Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

  • Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing

  • Reducedpressureresultingfromalaminarflowovertheuppercamberofanairfoil, whichactsperpendicular to the mean camber.

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would

Select one of the following:

  • Remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector

  • Vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately.

  • Vary depending upon the resultant lift vector

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all

Select one of the following:

  • Upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.

  • Forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces.

  • Forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller- driven airplane? Maximum

Select one of the following:

  • Gain in altitude over a given distance.

  • Range and maximum distance glide.

  • Coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon:

Select one of the following:

  • High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.

  • Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed

  • Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become

Select one of the following:

  • Twice as great.

  • Half as great.

  • Four times greater.

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane

Select one of the following:

  • Decreases because of lower parasite drag.

  • Increases because of increased induced drag.

  • Increases because of increased parasite drag.

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will

Select one of the following:

  • Increase as well as the stall speed.

  • Decrease and the stall speed will increase.

  • Remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of

Select one of the following:

  • Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.

  • Dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.

  • Weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady- state level flight?

Select one of the following:

  • These forces are equal.

  • Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.

  • Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the

Select one of the following:

  • Chord line.

  • Flightpath

  • Longitudinal axis.

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

Select one of the following:

  • Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.

  • Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.

  • Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be

Select one of the following:

  • The same as at the lower speed.

  • Two times greater than at the lower speed.

  • Four times greater than at the lower speed.

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

20 By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's

Select one of the following:

  • Lift, airspeed, and drag.

  • Lift, airspeed, and CG.

  • Lift and airspeed, but not drag

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the

Select one of the following:

  • Wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root.

  • Wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.

  • Center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Stall speed is affected by

Select one of the following:

  • Weight, load factor, and power.

  • Load factor, angle of attack, and power.

  • Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

Select one of the following:

  • A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.

  • An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

  • An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn

Select one of the following:

  • Is constant and the stall speed increases.

  • Varies with the rate of turn.

  • Is constant and the stall speed decreases.

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to

Select one of the following:

  • Minimum control speed.

  • Design-maneuvering speed.

  • Maximum structural cruising speed.

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the

Select one of the following:

  • Right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

  • Left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.

  • Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?

Select one of the following:

  • At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

  • There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate

  • Anairfoilwillalwaysstallatthesameindicatedairspeed, therefore, anincreaseinweightwillrequireanincrease in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as

Select one of the following:

  • Load factor and directly affects stall speed.

  • Aspect load and directly affects stall speed.

  • Load factor and has no relation with stall speed.

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

(Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the

Select one of the following:

  • Green arc.

  • Yellow Arc

  • White Arc

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be

Select one of the following:

  • 3000 pounds

  • 4000 pounds

  • 12000 pounds

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays

Select one of the following:

  • Positive dynamic stability.

  • Positive static stability.

  • Neutral dynamic stability.

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its

Select one of the following:

  • Rudder

  • Elevator

  • Ailerons

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

Select one of the following:

  • Bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

  • Pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

  • Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays

Select one of the following:

  • Neutral longitudinal static stability.

  • Positive longitudinal static stability.

  • Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to

Select one of the following:

  • Increase.

  • Decrease.

  • Not vary.

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.

  • Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.

  • Increase the air speeds lightly above normal approach speed to penétrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its

Select one of the following:

  • Center of gravity moves forward.

  • Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown.

  • Center of gravity moves aft.

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the

Select one of the following:

  • Loss of the vertical component of lift.

  • Loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force.

  • Rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack

Select one of the following:

  • And angle of bank must be decreased.

  • Must be increased or angle of bank decreased.

  • Must be decreased or angle of bank increased.

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

Select one of the following:

  • Power, pitch, bank, and trim.

  • Thrust, lift, turns, and glides.

  • Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is

Select one of the following:

  • Maintaining a safe airspeed.

  • Landing directly into the wind.

  • Turning back to the takeoff field.

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should

Select one of the following:

  • Maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.

  • Increase the bank and increase airspeed.

  • Increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

(Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall

Select one of the following:

  • 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.

  • 25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration.

  • 10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall, than in a wings-level stall with flaps up.

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

An airplane leaving ground effect will

Select one of the following:

  • Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.

  • Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

  • Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

  • Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspe

  • Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind?

Select one of the following:

  • Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation.

  • Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation.

  • Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation.

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease

Select one of the following:

  • The drag.

  • Landing speed.

  • The lift of the wing.

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Propeller efficiency is the

Select one of the following:

  • Ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.

  • Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.

  • Ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

In order to achieve single engine climb performance with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is essential to:

Select one of the following:

  • Apply full power to the live engine (firewall)

  • Minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop)

  • Secure the failed engine

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will

Select one of the following:

  • increase, and induced drag will decrease.

  • decrease, and parasite drag will increase.

  • increase, and induced drag will increase

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

In order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must:

Select one of the following:

  • Bank away from the live engine up to 5o

  • Center the ball on the turn and slip indicator

  • Bank into the live engine slightly

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

When dealing with aerodynamics, VMC refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Visual Meteorological Conditions

  • Minimum airspeed at which directional control can be maintained with the critical engine
    inoperative

  • Maximum airspeed at which an engine can be operated with one engine

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

On an aircraft without counter-rotating props, the left engine is considered to be the critical one to fail because of the following factors:

Select one of the following:

  • Zero sideslip condition, engine windmilling and aft legal C of G.

  • P-factor, Accelerated slipstream, Spiraling slipstream and Torque

  • No power available Vs power required, yaw towards the left engine and sideslip

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of

Select one of the following:

  • A heat exchange.

  • The movement of air.

  • A pressure differentia.

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

What causes wind?

Select one of the following:

  • The Earth’s rotation.

  • Air mass modification.

  • Pressure differences.

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the

Select one of the following:

  • Right by Coriolis force.

  • Right by surface friction.

  • Left by Coriolis force.

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?

Select one of the following:

  • Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.

  • Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the highs and lows.

  • Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?

Select one of the following:

  • Coriolis force.

  • Surface friction.

  • Pressure gradient force.

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Which would increase the stability of an air mass?

Select one of the following:

  • Warning from below.

  • Cooling from below.

  • Decrease in water vapor.

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

Select one of the following:

  • Constant height above the Earth.

  • Abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate.

  • Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

A common location of clear air turbulence is

Select one of the following:

  • In an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream.

  • Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow.

  • South of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by

Select one of the following:

  • Dust or haze at flight level.

  • Long streaks of cirrus clouds.

  • A constant outside air temperature.

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the

Select one of the following:

  • North and speed decreases.

  • South and speed increases.

  • North and speed increases.

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Which type of jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?

Select one of the following:

  • A straight jet stream associated with a low-pressure trough.

  • A curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.

  • A jet stream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes.

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?

Select one of the following:

  • Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind.

  • Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.

  • Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is

Select one of the following:

  • An anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air.

  • A cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

  • An anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Which is the true with a respect to a high- or low-pressure system?

Select one of the following:

  • A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

  • A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.

  • A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Which is the true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?

Select one of the following:

  • A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

  • A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.

  • Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? The temperature spread

Select one of the following:

  • Decreases as the relative humidity decreases.

  • Decreases as the relative humidity increases.

  • Increases as the relative humidity increases.

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Moisture is added to a parcel of air by

Select one of the following:

  • Sublimation and condensation.

  • Evaporation and condensation.

  • Evaporation and sublimation.

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?

Select one of the following:

  • Warming from below.

  • Cooling from below

  • Decrease in water vapor.

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

Select one of the following:

  • The method by which the air is lifted.

  • The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

  • The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather?

Select one of the following:

  • Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds.

  • Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area.

  • Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

f clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be

Select one of the following:

  • Cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.

  • Cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence.

  • Stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?

Select one of the following:

  • Fog and low stratus clouds.

  • Continuous heavy precipitation.

  • Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and

Select one of the following:

  • Unstable, dry air.

  • Stable, moist air.

  • Unstable, moist air.

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

Select one of the following:

  • Cirrus clouds.

  • Nimbostratus clouds.

  • Towering cumulus clouds.

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform- type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain?

Select one of the following:

  • Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.

  • Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.

  • Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

What are the characteristics of stable air?

Select one of the following:

  • Good visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.

  • Poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.

  • Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, cumulus clouds.

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

What is a characteristic of stable air?

Select one of the following:

  • Stratiform clouds.

  • Fair weather cumulus clouds.

  • Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude.

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist?

Select one of the following:

  • Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds.

  • Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels.

  • Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility.

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Which is characteristic of stable air?

Select one of the following:

  • Cumuliform clouds.

  • Excellent visibility.

  • Restricted visibility.

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?

Select one of the following:

  • Cumuliform clouds.

  • Showery precipitation.

  • Continuous precipitation.

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

Select one of the following:

  • Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.

  • Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

  • Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Which is true regarding a cold from occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front

Select one of the following:

  • Is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

  • Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

  • Has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of

Select one of the following:

  • Stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

  • Unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

  • Moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and

Select one of the following:

  • Below rotor clouds.

  • Above rotor clouds.

  • Below lenticular clouds.

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Virga is best described as

Select one of the following:

  • Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground.

  • Wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.

  • Turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

he most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with.

Select one of the following:

  • Slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.

  • Squall lines.

  • Fast-moving occluded fronts.

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least

Select one of the following:

  • 20 milles

  • 10 milles

  • 5 milles

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorm?

Select one of the following:

  • Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.

  • Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static.

  • Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

Select one of the following:

  • The start of rain.

  • The appearance of an anvil top.

  • Growth rate of clouds is maximum.

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of thunderstorm?

Select one of the following:

  • Roll cloud.

  • Continuous updraft.

  • Beginning of rain at the surface.

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Select one of the following:

  • Mature.

  • Developing.

  • Dissipating.

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?

Select one of the following:

  • 20 milles

  • 30 milles

  • 40 milles

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2 “ thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds al 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to:

Select one of the following:

  • Use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.

  • Approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect.

  • Fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the “wind chill” effect and break up the ice.

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause.

Select one of the following:

  • The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal.

  • The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.

  • Drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

A characteristic of the stratosphere is

Select one of the following:

  • An overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.

  • A relatively even base altitude of approximately 35.000 feet.

  • Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

Select one of the following:

  • Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.

  • Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

  • Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

Explanation

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