Sara Parrish
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Medicine Quiz on Pharmacology Exam 3 Practice, created by Sara Parrish on 27/11/2016.

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Sara Parrish
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Pharmacology Exam 3 Practice

Question 1 of 60

1

What is the rate of the Purkinje Fibers?

Select one of the following:

  • 60-100

  • 40-60

  • 30-40

  • 15-30

Explanation

Question 2 of 60

1

What is the rate of the Sinuatrial (SA) Node?

Select one of the following:

  • 60-100

  • 30-40

  • 40-60

  • 15-30

Explanation

Question 3 of 60

1

What is the rate of the Atrioventricular (AV) Node?

Select one of the following:

  • 30-40

  • 15-30

  • 60-100

  • 40-60

Explanation

Question 4 of 60

1

What is the rate of the Bundle of Hiss?

Select one of the following:

  • 40-60

  • 30-40

  • 15-30

  • 60-100

Explanation

Question 5 of 60

1

Which is true about Ventricular Systole?

Select one of the following:

  • Ventricular pressure falls below that in the aorta and pulmonary artery

  • Measurement of the total amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole

  • The volume ejected into the aorta with each contraction

  • The pressure in the ventricles exceeds that in the atria

Explanation

Question 6 of 60

1

What is the first heart sound?

Select one of the following:

  • Semilunar valves closing

  • The aorta pumping blood

  • Your lunch being digested

  • The closing of the AV valves

Explanation

Question 7 of 60

1

Which is true about Ventricular Diastole?

Select one of the following:

  • Pressures in the ventricles are exceeding that in the atria

  • The amount of blood remaining in the ventricles at the end of contraction

  • Pressures in the ventricles fall below that in the aorta and pulmonary artery

  • Ventricles stop working briefly

Explanation

Question 8 of 60

1

What causes the second heart sound?

Select one of the following:

  • Closing of the semilunar valves

  • Stroke volume being ejected

  • The heart relaxing

  • Blood flowing from atria into ventricle

Explanation

Question 9 of 60

1

What is stroke volume?

Select one of the following:

  • Passive filling from the aorta

  • Strength of heart contractions

  • Level of severity of a stroke

  • The volume ejected into the aorta with each contraction

Explanation

Question 10 of 60

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

End Diastolic Volume is the total amount of blood in the at the .

Explanation

Question 11 of 60

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

End Systolic Volume is the amount of blood remaining in the at the .

Explanation

Question 12 of 60

1

What is the average percentage of volume ejected with each contraction in stroke volume?

Select one of the following:

  • 50%

  • 30%

  • 60%

  • 75%

Explanation

Question 13 of 60

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The formula for stroke volume is - .

Explanation

Question 14 of 60

1

What is the definition of ejection fraction?

Select one of the following:

  • Factors that oppose the ejection of the stroke volume

  • Increased diastolic blood pressure

  • Percentage of EDV that the ventricles are able to eject

  • Adequate period of diastolic time

Explanation

Question 15 of 60

1

If the ejection fraction is less than 54% , the patient is considered to be in heart failure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 60

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The formula for ejection fraction is / .

Explanation

Question 17 of 60

1

"Preload" is a term used to describe the myocardial wall tension during systole and is produced by arterial resistance.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 60

1

"Afterload" is a term used to describe the pressure exerted by the end diastolic volume within the ventricles prior to the onset of systole.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 60

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Afterload is produced by .

Explanation

Question 20 of 60

1

Myocardial oxygen demand is basically how much oxygen the heart needs to function.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 60

1

If blood pressure and heart rate increase, oxygen demand will increase as well.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 22 of 60

1

Afterload effects oxygen consumption more than preload.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 60

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Inotropic effects deal with the of the heart.

Explanation

Question 24 of 60

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Chronotropic effects deal with the of the heart.

Explanation

Question 25 of 60

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Dromotropic effects deal with the of the heart.

Explanation

Question 26 of 60

1

Another name for Digitalis is

Select one of the following:

  • Inderal

  • Cardizem

  • Digoxin /Lanoxin

  • Calan

Explanation

Question 27 of 60

1

Digitalis is a dromotropic drug.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 60

1

Pick the beta blocker

Select one of the following:

  • Verapamil

  • Prazosin

  • Lisinopril

  • Propranolol

Explanation

Question 29 of 60

1

Calcium channel blockers block calcium and therefore increase the heart rate.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 30 of 60

1

Antidysrhythmic drugs exert a negative chronotropic and negative dromotropic effect.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 60

1

Chose the drugs from the "Loop" category of Diuretics.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

  • Furosemide

  • Lidocaine

  • Bumetanide

Explanation

Question 32 of 60

1

What is the second choice drug for dysrhythmias?

Select one of the following:

  • Amiodarone

  • Dyazide

  • Aldomet

  • Lidocaine

Explanation

Question 33 of 60

1

What drug(s) fit into the category of "Potassium-Sparing"?

Select one of the following:

  • HCTZ

  • Bumex

  • Cardizem

  • Dyrenium

Explanation

Question 34 of 60

1

HCTZ is a drug in the "Thiazide" category of Diuretics.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 60

1

Dyazide and Maxide are long-term diuretics.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 60

1

Which diuretic loses the least amount of electrolytes?

Select one of the following:

  • Lasix

  • Capoten

  • Triamterene

  • Mannitol

Explanation

Question 37 of 60

1

Pick the drug(s) that are Ace Inhibitors

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lisinopril

  • Alpha Methyldopa

  • Capoten

  • Minipress

Explanation

Question 38 of 60

1

Pick the drug(s) that are Vasopressors

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prazosin

  • Pitressin

  • Persantine

  • Isuprel

Explanation

Question 39 of 60

1

What is another name for Vasopressin?

Select one of the following:

  • Anti-diuretic Hormone

  • Dobutrex

  • tPA

  • Aspirin

Explanation

Question 40 of 60

1

Pick the antiplatelet drug...

Select one of the following:

  • Heparin

  • Streptokinase

  • Inotropin

  • Dipyridamole

Explanation

Question 41 of 60

1

Warfarin has an immediate onset and reversal.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 60

1

Hemorrhage is not a risk when using antithrombotic drugs.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 43 of 60

1

Which of these is the reversal agent for Heparin?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin K

  • Mucomyst

  • Levophed

  • Protamine

Explanation

Question 44 of 60

1

Beta Blockers are indicated for congestive heart failure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 60

1

We would give calcium channel blockers to someone with hypertension.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 60

1

Which drug is used for head trauma and optimizes the balance of fluids and electrolytes.

Select one of the following:

  • Lidocaine

  • Furosemide

  • Mannitol

  • Tylenol

Explanation

Question 47 of 60

1

Which is the first choice drug for V-fib and PVC's ?

Select one of the following:

  • Adrenaline

  • Neo-synephrine

  • Calan

  • Amiodarone

Explanation

Question 48 of 60

1

Codeine is not an ideal oral drug.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 60

1

Benzodiazepines are used to treat high blood pressure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 60

1

Chose the benzodiazepines...

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diprivan

  • Ketamine

  • Valium

  • Midazolam

Explanation

Question 51 of 60

1

Luminal has been used since 1992.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 60

1

Anterograde Amnesia is when a patient remembers their entire surgical procedure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 60

1

The mechanism of action for NSAID's and steroids is inhibiting cyclicoxygenase, in turn inhibiting prostaglandins.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 60

1

Which acronym stands for Tylenol?

Select one of the following:

  • APA

  • ASA

  • tPA

  • APAP

Explanation

Question 55 of 60

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

is known as the rapid sequence intubation drug.

Explanation

Question 56 of 60

1

Amiloride is a drug in the "loop" category of diuretics.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 57 of 60

1

Which of these types of drugs are used to treat shock?

Select one of the following:

  • Beta Blockers

  • Anti-platelet

  • Vasopressors

  • Vasodilators

Explanation

Question 58 of 60

1

Which of these is a traditional opioid?

Select one of the following:

  • Heparin

  • Benadryl

  • Amidate

  • Morphine

Explanation

Question 59 of 60

1

Which of these drug(s) are indicated for thick/loculated pleural effusions?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Isuprel

  • Nitroglycerin

  • Streptokinase

  • Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA)

Explanation

Question 60 of 60

1

Which of these is the most common side effect of opioids?

Select one of the following:

  • Feeling pretty awesome

  • Migraine

  • Respiratory Depression

  • Tachycardia

Explanation

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