Jack Fawsitt
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Principles and animal form and fucntion (Unit 4 Endocrine system) Quiz on Unit 4 Endocrine MCQ test, created by Jack Fawsitt on 05/12/2016.

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Jack Fawsitt
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Unit 4 Endocrine MCQ test

Unit 4 Endocrine MCQ test

Question 1 of 52

1

Cortisol inhibition of corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) secretion is an example of?

Select one of the following:

  • paracine action

  • endocrine action

  • autocrine action

  • neurocrine action

Explanation

Question 2 of 52

1

The anterior pituitary receives hypothalamic input via:

Select one of the following:

  • the hypothalamo-physio-portal blood system

  • nervous innervation

  • paracrine inhibition by the pars nervosa

  • neurocrine stimulation

Explanation

Question 3 of 52

1

Production of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) occurs within:

Select one of the following:

  • thyrotroph cells

  • C cells

  • thyroglobulin

  • mitochondria

  • thyrotrophin releasing hormone (TRH) neurons

Explanation

Question 4 of 52

1

Which of the following symptoms might be observed in a patient with an activating mutation in the adrenocorticotrophin hormone (ACTH) receptor?:

Select one of the following:

  • decreased prolactin secretion

  • elevated cortisol production

  • absent Synacthen response

  • Bothelevated cortisol production and absent Synacthen response

  • Both decreased prolactin secretion and absent Synacthen response

Explanation

Question 5 of 52

1

Gonadectomy (removal of either testes or ovaries) would result in:

Select one of the following:

  • elevated gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) production

  • elevated luteinising hormone production (LH)

  • gonadotroph hyperplasia

  • All of the possible answers

  • None of these answers

Explanation

Question 6 of 52

1

Prostaglandins normally exert their biological effects via:

Select one of the following:

  • nuclear hormone receptors

  • tyrosine kinase receptors

  • immunoglobulin receptors

  • ion channels

  • G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)

Explanation

Question 7 of 52

1

Mutations in the Pit-1 gene could cause disruption in the development of:

Select one of the following:

  • somatotroph and thyrotroph cells

  • pancreatic b cells

  • gonadotroph and thyrotroph cells

  • somatostatin neurons

  • pancreatic a cells

Explanation

Question 8 of 52

1

The processing of which two peptide hormones requires the proconvertase enzymes, PC1 and PC2?:

Select one of the following:

  • insulin and adrenocorticotrophin hormone (ACTH)

  • insulin and prolactin

  • prolactin and somatostatin

  • ACTH and prolactin

  • prolactin and growth hormone (GH)

Explanation

Question 9 of 52

1

What binds to unoccupied glucocorticoid receptors (GRs) to prevent their translocation to the nucleus?:

Select one of the following:

  • heat shock proteins

  • lipid molecules

  • mineralocorticoids

  • other unoccupied GRs

  • unoccupied mineralocorticoid receptors (MRs)

Explanation

Question 10 of 52

1

What confounding issue renders the measurement of circulating cortisol inconclusive?:

Select one of the following:

  • cortisol is secreted at different levels throughout the day

  • the presence of binding proteins

  • thyroxine cross-reacts in the cortisol radioimmunoassay

  • insufficient concentrations of cortisol are secreted for accurate measurement

  • the absence of binding proteins

Explanation

Question 11 of 52

1

The major physiological regulator of aldosterone synthesis and secretion is:

Select one of the following:

  • the renin-angiotensin system

  • catecholamine release from the adrenal medulla

  • oestradiol

  • cortisol

  • calcium excretion

Explanation

Question 12 of 52

1

Mutations in the orphan nuclear receptor Steroidogenic factor-1 (SF-1) gene can cause:

Select one of the following:

  • absent renal development

  • absent pancreatic development

  • elevated luteinising hormone (LH) secretion

  • decreased PRL secretion

  • absent adrenal development

Explanation

Question 13 of 52

1

Which two of the following peptide hormones are composed of less than 15 amino acids in their mature form?

Select one of the following:

  • insulin and growth hormone (GH)

  • GnRH and TRH

  • thyrotrophin releasing hormone (TRH) and GH

  • GH and gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)

  • GnRH and insulin

Explanation

Question 14 of 52

1

A receptor that couples to a Gas G-protein will directly activate:

Select one of the following:

  • tyrosine kinase activity

  • protein kinase G

  • adenylyl cyclase activity

  • protein kinase C

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 52

1

The proopiomelanocortin (POMC) gene encodes which of the following peptide hormones?:

Select one of the following:

  • adrenocorticotrophin hormone (ACTH)

  • melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

  • aMSH

  • all of the answers

  • b-Endorphin

Explanation

Question 16 of 52

1

The range of temperatures in a species preferred optimum temperature zone (POTZ) is essential in the captive environment because:

Select one of the following:

  • reptiles are homeothermic

  • not all systems function optimally at the same temperature

  • reptiles are endothermic

  • males need a lower temperature for spermatogenesis

  • higher temperatures are necessary for hormone production

Explanation

Question 17 of 52

1

Amphibians are considered to be ‘cold-blooded’ because the major influence on their body temperate is external. However this term is inappropriate and amphibians should be defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • Poikilothermic

  • Endothermic

  • Homeothermic

  • Warm-blooded

  • Homothermic

Explanation

Question 18 of 52

1

What makes up the posterior pituitary?

Select one of the following:

  • Pars nervosa known as the neurohypophysis

  • Pars tuberalis, pars distalis and pars intermedia known as the adenohypophysis

  • Pars tuberalis, pars distalis and pars intermedia known as the neurphypophysis

  • Pars nervosa known as the adenohypophysis

Explanation

Question 19 of 52

1

What makes up the anterior pituitary?

Select one of the following:

  • Pars tuberalis, pars distalis and pars intermedia known as the adenohypophysis

  • Pars nervosa known as the neurohypophysis

  • Pars tuberalis, pars distalis and pars intermedia known as the neurohypophysis

  • Pars nervosa known as the adenohypophysis

Explanation

Question 20 of 52

1

From what germ cell layers does the pars distalis and pars nervosa develop from respectively?

Select one of the following:

  • Ectoderm and neuro-ectoderm

  • Neuro-ectoderm and ectoderm

  • Mesoderm only

  • Endoderm only

Explanation

Question 21 of 52

1

The adrenal gland releases aldosterone from which zona?

Select one of the following:

  • Zona glomerulosa

  • Zona fasciculata

  • Zona reticularis

  • Adrena medulla

Explanation

Question 22 of 52

1

The adrenal gland secretes cortisol primarily from which zone?

Select one of the following:

  • Zona fasciiculata

  • Zona glomerulosa

  • Zone reticularis

  • Adrenal medulla

Explanation

Question 23 of 52

1

The adrenal gland secretes the adrenal androgens from which zone?

Select one of the following:

  • Zona reticularis

  • Zona glomerulosa

  • Zona fasciculata

  • Adrenal medulla

Explanation

Question 24 of 52

1

The adrenal gland secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine from which zone?

Select one of the following:

  • Adrenal medulla

  • Zona glomerulosa

  • Zona fasciculata

  • Zona reticularis

Explanation

Question 25 of 52

1

Which chain in the glycoprotein peptide hormones are identical?

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha subunits

  • Beta subunits

Explanation

Question 26 of 52

1

Which class of steroids is cortisol and aldosterone?

Select one of the following:

  • Corticosteroids (C21)

  • Progestagens (C21)

  • Androgens (C19)

  • Oestrogens (C18)

Explanation

Question 27 of 52

1

The cholesterol enter mitochondria during steroid biosynthetic pathway from action of...?

Select one of the following:

  • StAR (Steroidogenic acute regulatory protein)

  • Steroidogenic Factor 1

  • Heat shock proteins

  • cAMP

Explanation

Question 28 of 52

1

Which hormones are derived from tyrosine?

Select one of the following:

  • Adrenaline and noradrenaline

  • Dopamine

  • T3/T4

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 52

1

Which lipid soluble hormone(s) exert their effects on plasma membrane receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • Prostaglandins and Leukotrienes (the Eicosanoids)

  • T3/T4

  • Cortisol

  • Aldosterone

Explanation

Question 30 of 52

1

Aldosterone (mineralocorticoid) and Cortisol (Glucocorticoids) are structurally similar and so can bind to each other's receptors.
How is this overcome?

Select one of the following:

  • 11 beta hydroxyl steroid D enzyme converts cortisol to inactive cortisone which won't activate the aldosterone receptor

  • 11 beta hydroxyl steroid D enzyme converts aldosterone to inactive aldostisone which won't activate the cortisol receptor

Explanation

Question 31 of 52

1

The anabolic actions of cortisol involves what and occurs where?

Select one of the following:

  • Glycogenesis, gluconeogeneis and protein synthesis in the liver

  • Glycogenesis, gluconeogeneis and protein synthesis in muscle and fat cells

Explanation

Question 32 of 52

1

The catabolic actions of cortisol involve what and occur where?

Select one of the following:

  • Protein breakdown and lipolyis in muscle and fat cells

  • Protein breakdown and lipolyis in brain

Explanation

Question 33 of 52

1

Dexamethazone is used to test?
Inhibits ACTH from anterior pituitary and CRH from hypothalamus.

Select one of the following:

  • Primary hyperadrenocorticism

  • Primary Hyperaldosteronism

  • Secondary Hyperaldosteronism

  • Corticotrophenioma tumour

Explanation

Question 34 of 52

1

Where are these hormones secreted from?
Oxytocin and ADH

Select one of the following:

  • Posterior pituitary

  • Anterior pituitary

  • Hypothalamus

  • Adrenal gland

  • Thyroid

Explanation

Question 35 of 52

1

Where are these hormones secreted from?
LH & FSH, GH, TSH, Prolactin and ACTH

Select one of the following:

  • Anterior pituitary hormone

  • Posterior pituitary hormone

  • Hypothalamus

  • Thyroid

  • Adrenal gland

Explanation

Question 36 of 52

1

Out of all the hypothalmus hormone secretions which one is the only one classed as catecholamine hormone whilst all the others are peptide?

Select one of the following:

  • Dopamine

  • GnRH

  • GHRH

  • SST

  • TRH

  • CRH

Explanation

Question 37 of 52

1

The hormones of hypothalamus all act on GPCR.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 52

1

The posterior pituitary has no neural connections with hypothalamus and so hormones from the hypothalamus are transported via the hypothalamo-pituitary portal vessels

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 52

1

Which hormone below is NOT released from the thyroid gland?

Select one of the following:

  • Calcitonin

  • Tri-iodothryonine

  • Thyroxine

  • PTH

Explanation

Question 40 of 52

1

Which one of these transcription factors is involved with thyroid development?

Select one of the following:

  • Pax8

  • Foxe1

  • All the answers

  • Hhex

Explanation

Question 41 of 52

1

The thyroid hormones are regulated to increase their activity by?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphorylation

  • Sumoylation- binding sumoproteins to to the nuclear thyroid receptors

  • Increased secretion

  • Increased binding to thyroid binding proteins

Explanation

Question 42 of 52

1

The thyroid hormones are regulated to decrease their activity by?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphorylation

  • Sumoylation- binding sumoproeins to nuclear thyroid hormones

  • Decreased secretion

  • Increased binding to thyroid binding proteins

Explanation

Question 43 of 52

1

IgG binding to or near TSH receptors causing an increase in cAMP activating TSH signalling leading to hyperthyroidism is known as what?

Select one of the following:

  • Graves' disease

  • Hashimoto's disease

  • Addison's disease

  • Cushing's syndrome

Explanation

Question 44 of 52

1

Thyroid hyperplasia and lymphocytic infiltration leading to loss of thyroid function leading to Hypothyroidism is known as what?

Select one of the following:

  • Grave's disease

  • Hashimoto's disease

  • Cushing's syndrome

  • Addison's disease

Explanation

Question 45 of 52

1

Heat produced from metabolism:

Select one of the following:

  • Endothermy

  • Homeothermy

  • Tachmetabolism

  • Ectothermy

  • Heterothermy/ poikilothermy

  • Bradymetabolism

Explanation

Question 46 of 52

1

Constant body temperature:

Select one of the following:

  • Homeothermy

  • Endothermy

  • Tachmetabolism

  • Ectothermy

  • Heterothermy/poikilothermy

  • Bradymetabolism

Explanation

Question 47 of 52

1

High metabolism:

Select one of the following:

  • Tachmetabolism

  • Endothermy

  • Homeothermy

  • Ectothermy

  • Heterothermy/poikilothermy

  • Bradymetabolism

Explanation

Question 48 of 52

1

Heat from exogenous sources:

Select one of the following:

  • Ectothermy

  • Endothermy

  • Homeothermy

  • Tachmetabolism

  • Heterothermy/poikilothermy

  • Bradymetabolism

Explanation

Question 49 of 52

1

Body temperature fluctuates:

Select one of the following:

  • Heterothermy/poikilothermy

  • Endothermy

  • Homeothermy

  • Tachmetabolism

  • Ectothermy

  • Bradymetabolism

Explanation

Question 50 of 52

1

Low metabolism:

Select one of the following:

  • Bradymetabolism

  • Ectothermy

  • Heterothermy/poikilothermy

  • Endothermy

  • Homeothermy

  • Tachmetabolism

Explanation

Question 51 of 52

1

Whats the one main advantage Heterothermy/poikilothermys have over homeothermias?

Select one of the following:

  • Need to eat less often

  • Longer duration of activity

  • Can perform actions throughout different times of day

  • Protection against infection as it is too hot for many pathogens such as fungi

Explanation

Question 52 of 52

1

Stress leukogram blood test for someone with high cortisol will show what?

Select one of the following:

  • High neutrophils, low esoinophils, low lymphocytes and High platelets

  • Low neutrophils, low esoinophils, low lymphocytes and low platelets

  • High neutrophils, high esoinophils, low lymphocytes and low platelets

  • High neutrophils, low esoinophils, high lymphocytes and low platelets

  • High neutrophils, high esoinophils, high lymphocytes and high platelets

Explanation

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