Barbara Wallin Heden
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Imperial Quiz on Business Econ, created by Barbara Wallin Heden on 08/12/2016.

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Barbara Wallin Heden
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Business Econ

Question 1 of 49

1

Suppose that Albania can produce 1 unit of machinery using 3 hours of labour and 1 unit of cloth using 9 hours of labour. It follows that the opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of cloth in Albania is:

Select one of the following:

  • 27 units of machinery

  • 3 units of machinery

  • 9 units of machinery

  • 1 unit of machinery

Explanation

Question 2 of 49

1

If market supply is perfectly inelastic with respect to price, we would expect an increase in market demand to generate:

Select one of the following:

  • a fall in the market price

  • a fall in the market price and an increase in market output

  • a rise in the market price

  • a rise in the market price and a fall in output

  • a rise in output with no change in market price

Explanation

Question 3 of 49

1

Price elasticity of demand is calculated as:

Select one of the following:

  • (dQ/Q) / (dP/P)

  • (dQ/dP) × (Q/P)

  • (dQ/Q) / (P/Q)

  • (dQ/Q) × (Q/P)

Explanation

Question 4 of 49

1

Suppose you observe that the demand for product X rises by 10% in response to a 20% fall in household incomes. From this information we can deduce that:

Select one of the following:

  • X is a luxury good

  • the income elasticity of demand for X is 2

  • X is a necessity

  • the income elasticity of demand for X is 20

  • X is an inferior good

Explanation

Question 5 of 49

1

A firm is considering whether to increase price. It estimates that the price elasticity of demand for its product is approximately -0.87. If this estimate is accurate, the increase in price will generate:

Select one of the following:

  • higher sales, but lower total revenue

  • higher sales and higher total revenue

  • lower sales, but higher total revenue

  • lower sales and lower total revenue

  • lower sales, but no change in total revenue

Explanation

Question 6 of 49

1

A perfectly elastic demand curve is represented by:

Select one of the following:

  • a shallowly sloped demand curve

  • a vertical demand curve

  • a steeply sloped demand curve

  • a horizontal demand curve

  • a rectangular hyperbola

Explanation

Question 7 of 49

1

Suppose that conditions in the market for wheat are such that consumers wish to buy 140 tons of wheat per period and 165 tons are actually supplied by farmers. From this information, we can deduce that:

Select one of the following:

  • the market price is currently above its equilibrium level

  • farmers are incurring losses

  • the market price is currently below its equilibrium level

  • farmers are earning above normal profits

  • the market price is fixed

Explanation

Question 8 of 49

1

Suppose you observe a fall in the price of apples relative to the prices of other competing fruits. Which of the following would cause an unambiguous decrease in the relative price of apples?

Select one of the following:

  • a shift to the right in the supply curve for apples and a shift to the right in the demand curve for apples

  • a shift to the right in the supply curve for apples and a shift to the left in the

  • a shift to the left in the supply curve for apples and a shift to the right in the demand curve for apples

  • a shift to the left in the supply curve for apples and a shift to the left in the demand curve for apples

Explanation

Question 9 of 49

1

A rightward shift in the economy’s production possibility frontier occurs when the economy experiences

Select one of the following:

  • rising opportunity costs in production

  • a fall in resource utilization

  • falling opportunity costs in production

  • economic growth

  • a misallocation of productive resources

Explanation

Question 10 of 49

1

If two goods are substitutes, the cross-price elasticity of demand must be:

Select one of the following:

  • negative

  • positive

  • zero

  • infinite

  • one (unity)

Explanation

Question 11 of 49

1

The slope of an indifference curve shows:

Select one of the following:

  • the transitivity of consumer preferences

  • the marginal rate of substitution between one good and another

  • the ratio of market prices

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 12 of 49

1

If a consumer prefers bundle A to bundle B, and bundle B to bundle C, then we can conclude that bundle A is preferred to bundle C. This conclusion relies on the assumption that:

Select one of the following:

  • consumer preferences are transitive

  • the consumer’s indifference curve is convex to the origin

  • consumers prefer more goods to fewer goods

  • consumer equilibrium is reached at the point where utility is maximised

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 13 of 49

1

The consumer’s budget line shows :

Select one of the following:

  • the marginal benefit derived from the consumption of an additional unit of
    output when household incomes and prices are given

  • the structure of consumer preferences when budgets are constrained

  • the combinations of output that the consumer can purchase at current prices

  • the cost-benefit ratio of each additional unit of output consumed

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 14 of 49

1

Suppose the total cost (TC) of producing Q units of output is given as: TC = 100 + 6Q. It follows that average variable cost is:

Select one of the following:

  • 100/Q + 6Q

  • 106/Q

  • 106

  • 100

  • 6

Explanation

Question 15 of 49

1

Consumer surplus is measured as:

Select one of the following:

  • the difference between the maximum amount that consumers would be prepared
    to pay to obtain units of output and the amount they actually pay

  • the total money value of all units of output consumed

  • the difference between the marginal cost of producing units of output and the marginal benefit obtained from their consumption

  • the surplus value of the last unit purchased at the margin of consumption

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 16 of 49

1

Suppose a firm is able to produce 100 units of output per month when 10 workers are employed, 180 units of output per month when 11 workers are employed, and 240 units of output when 12 workers are employed. From this information we can deduce that:

Select one of the following:

  • marginal cost is falling as production expands

  • the marginal product of labour is declining as employment rises

  • the marginal product of labour is 240 for the last unit of labour employed

  • profits are maximized when the firm produces 10 units of output

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 17 of 49

1

If production conditions for a firm are such that the marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) is always constant, we can infer that:

Select one of the following:

  • the firm’s isoquant shows that the factor inputs can only be used in fixed proportions

  • the firm’s isoquant is a straight line

  • the firm’s isoquant map exhibits constant returns to scale

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 18 of 49

1

The production function exhibits increasing returns to scale when:

Select one of the following:

  • a given proportionate increase in output requires a proportionately larger
    increase in the labour and capital inputs

  • a given proportionate increase in the labour input requires a larger proportionate increase in the capital input to achieve an increase in production

  • a given proportionate increase in the labour and capital inputs yields a
    proportionately larger increase in output

  • the marginal products of both labour and capital are falling as output rises

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 19 of 49

1

Suppose total production costs are described by the cost function: TC = 40 + 7Q2 . Next suppose that the fixed cost component rises from 40 to 90, so that production costs are now TC = 90 + 7Q2. This increase in fixed cost implies:

Select one of the following:

  • marginal cost is higher at each level of output

  • marginal cost must be lower at each level of output because fixed cost is higher in relation to variable costs

  • marginal cost is always higher than fixed cost at each output level

  • marginal cost must rise in the same proportion as fixed cost

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 20 of 49

1

The short run is usually defined as a period during which:

Select one of the following:

  • the firm is not able to change the price at which units of output are sold

  • all inputs into the production process are fixed

  • at least one of the inputs into the production process is fixed

  • the labour input is fixed, but capital and technology can change

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 49

1

Long-run equilibrium in a monopolistically competitive industry is characterised by:

Select one of the following:

  • P = MC

  • P = ATC

  • P = MR

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 22 of 49

1

Suppose a monopoly firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve described by the equation P = 100 - 2Q. Suppose also that it can produce additional units of output at a constant marginal cost of 40 and that total fixed costs are 1000. Under these demand and cost conditions, the firm maximizes profits by producing:

Select one of the following:

  • 10 units of output

  • 15 units of output

  • 40 units of output

  • 50 units of output

  • 20 units of output

Explanation

Question 23 of 49

1

Using the same information about demand and cost conditions provided in the previous question (question 2), and again assuming that the firm maximizes profits, we can deduce that the firm will set its price at:

Select one of the following:

  • 70

  • 20

  • 60

  • 80

Explanation

Question 24 of 49

1

A perfectively competitive industry is characterized by:

Select one of the following:

  • a large number of small firms

  • homogenous (identical) products

  • no significant entry barriers to the industry

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 25 of 49

1

If the representative firm in a perfectly competitive market incurs losses, which of the following conditions must hold in the short run:

Select one of the following:

  • MC > P

  • MC > AR

  • ATC > P

  • MC > MR

Explanation

Question 26 of 49

1

The individual demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm is:

Select one of the following:

  • upward-sloping with respect to price

  • vertical with respect to price

  • horizontal at the prevailing market price

  • downward-sloping with respect to price

  • equivalent to the market demand curve

Explanation

Question 27 of 49

1

If a firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve, it maximizes profits by operating at the point where:

Select one of the following:

  • MC = P

  • MR = P

  • P = AR

  • all of the above

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 49

1

If a firm is a price-taker and it can earn economic profits (above-normal profits) we can deduce that the firm must be operating at a rate of production for which:

Select one of the following:

  • P > MC

  • P > MR

  • P > ATC

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 49

1

For a monopoly firm, a limit pricing strategy is designed to:

Select one of the following:

  • limit the price paid for labour and capital inputs

  • deter the entry of new competitors

  • ensure that short-run profits are maximized

  • ration output when conditions of excess demand prevail

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 30 of 49

1

For a profit-maximising firm in a perfectly competitive market, the decision to shut down production in the short run is made when:

Select one of the following:

  • P < ATC

  • P < AFC

  • P < MC

  • P < AVC

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 31 of 49

1

The key difference between the Cournot model of oligopoly and the Stackelberg model is:

Select one of the following:

  • the Cournot model assumes the firms compete over price

  • the Stackelberg model assumes the firms compete over price

  • the Cournot model assumes that one of the firms has a first-mover advantage

  • the Stackelberg model assumes that the firms have the same cost conditions

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 32 of 49

1

The Cournot model of symmetric duopoly suggests that the market equilibrium position is such that:

Select one of the following:

  • one firm is larger than the other in the final equilibrium and the largest firm produces the largest quantity of output

  • economic profits are zero for both firms

  • total industry output is the same as it would have been in a perfectly competitive market

  • all of the above

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 33 of 49

1

In game theory, a player has a dominant strategy when:

Select one of the following:

  • the pay-off to the player is greater than for any other strategy regardless of what the others are doing

  • the pay-off to the player is dominated by all other strategies

  • each player has full information about the pay-offs for the other players

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 34 of 49

1

The final equilibrium position in the Bertrand model of oligopoly pricing is:

Select one of the following:

  • a Nash equilibrium, because the participating firms collude to hold price above
    ATC

  • not a Nash equilibrium because any reduction in price would eventually drive the market price down to the competitive level

  • not a Nash equilibrium because each individual firm has an incentive to cut price to increase profits

  • a Nash equilibrium because price falls to the competitive equilibrium level and no firm then has an incentive to increase the price above the competitive level

Explanation

Question 35 of 49

1

The analysis of oligopoly suggests that total industry profits will be greatest if:

Select one of the following:

  • the competing firms collude

  • fixed costs are low

  • entry barriers can be removed

  • new entrants can achieve costs reductions via learning by doing

  • product differentiation is low

Explanation

Question 36 of 49

1

The dominant firm model of price leadership assumes:

Select one of the following:

  • the follower firms set the market price and the dominant firm adds a mark-up to
    that price

  • marginal cost is lower for the dominant firm than it is for the follower firms

  • the dominant firm colludes with the follower firms to maximise industry profits

  • the follower firms attempt to undercut the price set by the dominant firm

  • the dominant firm faces a horizontal demand curve

Explanation

Question 37 of 49

1

The characteristic of a Nash equilibrium is that:

Select one of the following:

  • there are no dominant strategies for any of the players in a game

  • all players have access to at least one dominant strategy

  • there is no incentive for any player to deviate from the strategy currently played

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 38 of 49

1

The kinked demand curve model of oligopoly pricing assumes:

Select one of the following:

  • each firm believes that its competitors will not match a price reduction

  • each firm believes that its competitors will increase price in response to a price reduction

  • each firm believes that its competitors will match any price increase

  • each firm takes the market price as given

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 39 of 49

1

An oligopolistic industry is typically characterized by:

Select one of the following:

  • the industry contains just a few large firms

  • the industry has low entry barriers

  • the pricing decisions of the firms are independent of each other

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 40 of 49

1

During the short run, when the capital stock and technology are fixed, it is usual to suppose that:

Select one of the following:

  • the marginal product of labour is constant

  • the marginal product of labour is positive and rising

  • the marginal product of labour is zero

  • the marginal product of labour is negative and falling

  • the marginal product of labour is positive and declining

Explanation

Question 41 of 49

1

When full employment equilibrium prevails in the aggregate labour market it is usual to suppose that unemployment will be positive in part because:

Select one of the following:

  • real wages are normally above their equilibrium level

  • in a dynamic economy there are always some people moving between jobs

  • real wages are sticky in a downward direction

  • interest rates can never be zero

Explanation

Question 42 of 49

1

From the analysis of the labour market, we would expect an increase in the capital stock to be associated with:

Select one of the following:

  • a fall in the level of employment

  • an increase in structural unemployment

  • an increase in voluntary unemployment

  • an increase in the marginal product of labour

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 43 of 49

1

The long run is usually defined as a period during which:

Select one of the following:

  • the capital stock is fixed, but the labor input is variable

  • the capital stock and technology are fixed, but the labor input is variable

  • the capital stock, technology and the labor input are all fixed

  • the ratio of capital to labour is fixed

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 44 of 49

1

In the analysis of public policy decisions, the compensation principle suggests that a policy change should be regarded as leading to an improvement in welfare if:

Select one of the following:

  • the poorer sections of society are made better off by the change

  • at least one person can be made better off by the change

  • the gainers from the change can compensate the losers to accept the change and still be left better off

  • the majority of people are made better off by the change

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 45 of 49

1

If a negative externality is present in a market, the competitive equilibrium is such that:

Select one of the following:

  • marginal private cost is greater than marginal private benefit

  • marginal social cost is equal to the market price

  • marginal private benefit is greater than marginal social cost

  • marginal social cost is greater than marginal private benefit

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 46 of 49

1

A comparison of long-run equilibrium under perfect competition and monopolistic competition suggests that:

Select one of the following:

  • the perfectly competitive firms operate at P < MR

  • the monopolistically competitive firms operate at P < MR

  • the perfectly competitive firms operate at P > the minimum of ATC

  • the monopolistically competitive firms operate at P > the minimum of ATC

Explanation

Question 47 of 49

1

In a competitive labour market we would expect firms to hire labour up to the point where:

Select one of the following:

  • the marginal revenue product of labour is equal to the prevailing wage rate

  • the marginal revenue product of labour exceeds the prevailing wage rate by the extent of the profit margin

  • the marginal revenue product of labour exceeds the prevailing wage rate by the greatest sustainable amount

  • the marginal revenue product of labour is zero

  • the marginal revenue product of labour begins to fall as employment rises

Explanation

Question 48 of 49

1

The analysis of monopoly power suggests that a perfectly discriminating monopolist (a monopoly exercising first degree price discrimination) will produce at an output level which is:

Select one of the following:

  • below the competitive output level

  • designed to deter the entry of new competitors

  • greater than the competitive output level

  • below the profit-maximizing output level

  • the same as the competitive output level

Explanation

Question 49 of 49

1

The aggregate production function suggests that the potential sources of output growth for an economy are:

Select one of the following:

  • increased labour supply

  • capital accumulation

  • technological progress

  • all of the above

Explanation