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Piloto AVIANCA Proceso Seleccion Copilotos 2017 Quiz on AVIANCA FINAL , created by Adriana Forero on 06/02/2017.

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Adriana Forero
Created by Adriana Forero almost 8 years ago
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AVIANCA FINAL

Question 1 of 31

1

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?

Select one or more of the following:

  • DescendtoMEAand,ifclearofclouds,proceedtothenearestappropriateairport.Ifnotclearofclouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.

  • Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.

  • Continue on the rout especified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highes to flast assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.

Explanation

Question 2 of 31

1

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ThepilotmayutilizeanyaltitudefromtheMEA/MOCAto6,000feet,buteachchangeinaltitudemustbe reported to ATC.

  • Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.

  • Thepilotmustmaintain6,000feetuntilreachingtheIAFservingthedestinationairport,thenexecutethe published approach procedure.

Explanation

Question 3 of 31

1

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ThepilotisauthorizedtoconductflightatanyaltitudefromminimumIFRaltitudeuptoandincluding6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

  • It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.

  • Thepilotmustmaintain6,000untilreachingtheIAFservingthedestinationairport,thenexecutethepublished approach procedure.

Explanation

Question 4 of 31

1

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pressure altitude at sea level.

  • Pressure al titude at field elevation.

  • True altitude at field elevation.

Explanation

Question 5 of 31

1

En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sea level.

  • 1,300 feet.

  • 715 feet.

Explanation

Question 6 of 31

1

If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator

Select one or more of the following:

  • May show a slight climb and turn.

  • Will show a slight skid and climb to the right.

  • Should immediately show straight-and-level flight.

Explanation

Question 7 of 31

1

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.

  • The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.

  • The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.

Explanation

Question 8 of 31

1

What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.

  • Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.

  • Rate of roll and rate of turn.

Explanation

Question 9 of 31

1

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Angle of bank.

  • Angle of bank and rate of turn.

  • Rate of roll and rate of turn.

Explanation

Question 10 of 31

1

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pressure altitude at sea level.

  • Pressure al titude at field elevation.

  • True altitude at field elevation.

Explanation

Question 11 of 31

1

If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Also SHP

  • ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power)

  • Lbs of thrust

Explanation

Question 12 of 31

1

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by

Select one or more of the following:

  • Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.

  • Early recognition of hazardous thoughts.

  • Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.

Explanation

Question 13 of 31

1

Identify REIL.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

  • Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway.

  • Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.

Explanation

Question 14 of 31

1

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sudden increase in a headwind component.

  • Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity

  • Sudden decrease in the headwind component.

Explanation

Question 15 of 31

1

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

  • Increasing tailwind and headwind

  • Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.

Explanation

Question 16 of 31

1

Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga MP.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Todas las anteriores.

  • Hasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas.

  • Amenosquesehayacertificadoquelosbultossatisfacenlascondicionespertinentesprevistasenlasinstrucciones técnicas

Explanation

Question 17 of 31

1

Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte aéreo a través del servicio postal.

Select one or more of the following:

  • La unión postal universal

  • IFALPA.

  • La OACI.

Explanation

Question 18 of 31

1

Diga que frase es cierta:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Las discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.

  • Las diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.

  • Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI.

Explanation

Question 19 of 31

1

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Visible water.

  • Water vapor.

  • Supercooled water drops.

Explanation

Question 20 of 31

1

On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the

Select one or more of the following:

  • Aircraf tis continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing on the intended runway, can be made.

  • Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.

  • Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.

Explanation

Question 21 of 31

1

Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the

Select one or more of the following:

  • Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.

  • Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.

  • Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.

Explanation

Question 22 of 31

1

Hypoxia is the result of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic

  • The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen

  • The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream

Explanation

Question 23 of 31

1

When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included

  • Return for a landing

  • Continue flying the DP as published

Explanation

Question 24 of 31

1

Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:

Select one or more of the following:

  • True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs

  • False, every airport is different

  • True, except as published on STARs

Explanation

Question 25 of 31

1

When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line

  • Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway

  • Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side

Explanation

Question 26 of 31

1

(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ItistheminimumvectoraltitudeforradarvectorsinthesectorsoutheastofPUCbetween020°and290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.

  • It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.

  • It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.

Explanation

Question 27 of 31

1

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
a.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Astraight An landing may be made if the pilot has the runway insight insufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

  • The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.

  • Astraight-inlandingmay not be made,butthepilotmaycontinuetotherunwayatMDAandthencircleto land on the runway.

Explanation

Question 28 of 31

1

(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?
a

Select one or more of the following:

  • After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.

  • When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.

  • Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.

Explanation

Question 29 of 31

1

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
a.

Select one or more of the following:

  • RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

  • RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.

  • RVR minimum swhich are specified in the procedures hould be converted and applied as ground visibility.

Explanation

Question 30 of 31

1

(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to

Select one or more of the following:

  • intercepting the glide slope.

  • CREAK outbound.

  • completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.

Explanation

Question 31 of 31

1

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

Select one or more of the following:

  • You must have the airport insigh to rapreced in gaircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

  • You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.

  • You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.

Explanation