PMP - Full Exam 1

Question 1 of 200

1

A business case, which helps to determine whether a project is worth the investment, is created on the basis of the following except for

Select one of the following:

  • Market Demand

  • Ecological Impacts

  • Social Need

  • Availability of Funds

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

You are in charge of developing a new product for an organization. Your quality metrics are based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of:

Select one of the following:

  • Statistical sampling

  • Metrics

  • Benchmarking

  • Operational definitions

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

The two closing procedures are called:

Select one of the following:

  • Contract closure and scope verification

  • Close Procurements and Close Project

  • Project closure and product verification

  • Project closure and lessons learned

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

During the develop schedule process, the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process:

Select one of the following:

  • Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements

  • Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars

  • Schedule compression, Resource optimization techniques, Critical chain method

  • GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term?

Select one of the following:

  • Problem solving

  • Withdrawal

  • Forcing

  • Smoothing

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

In communication, the receiver decodes the messages based on all but the following:

Select one of the following:

  • Culture

  • Semantics

  • Language

  • Distance

  • Knowledge

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally?

Select one of the following:

  • 40-60%

  • 50-70%

  • 60-80%

  • 75-90%

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except:

Select one of the following:

  • Team building A project manager facilitates communication

  • Analysis of alternatives

  • Convergent thinking

  • Uninhibited verbalization

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

The critical element in a project's communication system is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Progress report

  • Project directive

  • Project manager

  • Customer

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

System integration consists of:

Select one of the following:

  • Assuring that the pieces of a project come together at the right time

  • Planning for contingencies that may occur throughout the life cycle of the project

  • The pieces of the project function as an integration unit

  • a and c

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Performance reviews are held to:

Select one of the following:

  • Correct the project manager's mistakes.

  • Provide for answers for upper levels of management

  • To assess project status or progress

  • To apprise the project costs and cost trends of the project

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

A complex project will fit best in what type of organization?

Select one of the following:

  • Functional

  • Cross-functional

  • Matrix

  • Balanced

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0?

Select one of the following:

  • 1.4

  • 1.1.1.1

  • 1.2.3.4

  • a and c

  • b and c

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?

Select one of the following:

  • Plan Scope Management

  • Define Scope

  • Validate Scope

  • Control Scope

  • Create WBS

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called:

Select one of the following:

  • phase exit

  • kill point

  • stage gate

  • a and c

  • a, b and c

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

Project scope is:

Select one of the following:

  • All the work that must be done in order to deliver a product according to the specified features and functions, only

  • The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.

  • A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.

  • a and b

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as:

Select one of the following:

  • The work package codes

  • The project identifiers

  • The code of accounts

  • The element accounts

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

The sender of a message is responsible for:

Select one of the following:

  • Confirming the message is understood

  • Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message

  • Scheduling communication exchange

  • Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

What are the best uses of PERT:

Select one of the following:

  • Used in the planning phase to do " what if for the project.

  • Assist in the controlling of changes to the project.

  • Is used in the process of preparing a WBS for the project.

  • To measure future consequences of activities.

  • a and d.

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Change requests can occur due to:

Select one of the following:

  • An external event such as a change in government regulation.

  • An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.

  • An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

  • a and c

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

A project management plan is:

Select one of the following:

  • A formal, approved document used to guide project execution, monitoring, and control.

  • A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

  • A narrative description of products or services to be supplied.

  • D.A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

Select one of the following:

  • Gantt chart

  • Milestone chart

  • Fishbone diagram

  • Network diagram

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

The most important criteria in deciding to initiate a project selection method is:

Select one of the following:

  • Stakeholder's vision

  • Low cost opportunity

  • Environmental consideration

  • Capability

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

Which of the following is correct order for stages in Tuckman ladder?

Select one of the following:

  • Foaming, Steaming, Norming, Perfuming, Dispersing

  • Forming, Storming, Protecting, Norming, Adjourning

  • Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

  • Framing, Storming, Norming, Protecting, Adjourning

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Three major processes in Project Human Resource Management are:

Select one of the following:

  • Staff recruitment, project staff planning and team building

  • Plan HRM, Acquire Project Team and Develop Project Team

  • Rewarding, salary reviews and penalties

  • Staff acquisition, staff training, staff deployment

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

A project is defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • A process of considerable scope that implements a plan.

  • An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled; performed by people; and constrained by limited resources.

  • A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service

  • An objective based effort of temporary nature.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a General management technique?

Select one of the following:

  • Make-or-buy analysis

  • Analysis of alternatives

  • Applying PMBOK concepts

  • Lateral thinking

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

According to PMBOK, project management processes are organized into following order of process groups:

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring, and closing

  • Designing, developing, testing, and implementing

  • Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and closing

  • Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

___________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

Select one of the following:

  • Stakeholder requirements

  • Project performance

  • Schedule progress

  • Cost

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

A project kick off meeting is usually conducted to:

Select one of the following:

  • Setup project team and announce the PM assignment

  • To draft project charter

  • Build up team spirit

  • Define project scope and develop WBS

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk?

Select one of the following:

  • Changes in government regulations

  • Natural hazards

  • Unexpected environmental side effects

  • Inflation

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest:

Select one of the following:

  • Self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological needs

  • Self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological

  • Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological

  • Self fulfillment; self esteem; social; security and physiological

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer.

  • Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential.

  • Time and materials contracts are hybrid of cost reimbursable and fixed-price contracts

  • Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Herzberg identified factors, which, if present, will lead to increased motivation. A typical factor would be:

Select one of the following:

  • Good supervision

  • Job security

  • Regular promotions

  • Good salary

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Your customer ask for a small change in the project, which was not budgeted in the project. It is a small effort as compared to the total project and you need the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline. You will

Select one of the following:

  • Refuse to do the work

  • Agree to do the work at no charge

  • Do the work and bill him later

  • Assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will formalize the change request

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

You are responsible for ensuring that your seller's performance meets contractual requirements. For effective contract administration, you should:

Select one of the following:

  • Hold a bidders conference

  • Establish the appropriate contract type

  • Implement the contract change control system

  • Develop a statement of work

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

The three major causes of change on a project are:

Select one of the following:

  • Replacement of the project manager or key project team members; changes in priorities by senior management; and contractual difficulties

  • Changes in the relative importance of time, resources, or cost ; new knowledge about the deliverable; and technological uncertainty

  • Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the project; new information about the project deliverable; and a new mandate

  • Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers; cost overruns; and changes in customer requirements

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is to:

Select one of the following:

  • Determine how many resources are required to complete the project according to the project baseline

  • Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance

  • Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables

  • Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Your project is in the final test stage, the user acceptance test. It meets all the product specs and is under planned costs. In term of schedule, this project is ahead. Your customer met you and requested that he will not accept the product unless you make several changes. What you should do is:

Select one of the following:

  • Get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. If the total cost is still within the baseline, you will do it

  • Estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract modification

  • Ask the customer to file a change request

  • Sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that you have completed the project.

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

The Delphi Method is best suited for:

Select one of the following:

  • Decision-making

  • Cost Control

  • Overhead rate estimating

  • Team discussions

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Which of the following methods is least likely to be used for explaining project planning guidelines to the team?

Select one of the following:

  • Project Office Memo

  • Project office directive

  • Project team meeting

  • Formal project report

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

Projects are initiated in response of:

Select one of the following:

  • Stakeholder's pressure

  • Business needs

  • Technological obsolescence

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Owner

  • Sponsor

  • Customer

  • Client

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team is called a:

Select one of the following:

  • Staffing Management Plan

  • Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM ).

  • Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS).

  • Resource Assignment Chart

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?

Select one of the following:

  • Functional

  • Projectized

  • Matrix

  • Project expediter

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope definition is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Scope Definition Matrix

  • Responsibility Assignment Matrix

  • Roles Assignment Matrix

  • Project Scope and Roles Matrix

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

Which of the following are outputs from the Plan Communications Management process?

Select one of the following:

  • Project records

  • Communications management plan

  • Performance reports

  • Formal acceptance

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

Which of the following statement is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Process Groups are same as Project Phases

  • Each Process Group has a mapped Project Phase

  • Process Groups are not Project Phases

  • Monitoring and Control Process Group applies only in monitoring and control phase

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of:

Select one of the following:

  • Networking

  • Transmitting

  • Encrypting

  • Promoting

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

The three major types of communication are:

Select one of the following:

  • Written and oral, and verbal and nonverbal

  • Verbal, formal documentation, informal documentation

  • Verbal, written, and graphic

  • Verbal, written, and electronic

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

All of the following are communication methods EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Memos

  • Grapevine

  • Videos

  • Instant messaging

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a Project:

Select one of the following:

  • Manager in a weak matrix

  • Manager in a projectized environment

  • Coordinator

  • Expeditor

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

What are the four parts of the communications model?

Select one of the following:

  • Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending

  • Sender, Message, Medium, Receiver

  • Communicator, Message, Receiver, Decoder

  • Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, Comprehending

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

In negotiations between the functional department managers and the project managers, which conflict management approach must be aimed at?

Select one of the following:

  • Win-Lose

  • Win-Win

  • Lose-Lose

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

A type of organization in which the project manager has little formal authority and basically acts as a staff assistant to an executive who is ultimately responsible for the project is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Balanced matrix

  • Weak matrix

  • Projectized

  • Strong matrix

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

A type of organization in which the project manager has little formal authority and basically acts as a staff assistant to an executive who is ultimately responsible for the project is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Balanced matrix

  • Weak matrix

  • Projectized

  • Strong matrix

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

Create WBS process belongs to:

Select one of the following:

  • Initiation Process Group

  • Planning Process Group

  • Executing Process Group

  • Monitoring & Controlling Process Group

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

In which of the following organizations is the project manager role likely to be that of staff assistant?

Select one of the following:

  • Weak matrix

  • Functional

  • Balanced matrix

  • a and b

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except:

Select one of the following:

  • Risk Quantification

  • Risk Response Control

  • Risk Analysis

  • Risk Identification

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false?

Select one of the following:

  • A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.

  • Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.

  • Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.

  • Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Which of the following is true about a risk?

Select one of the following:

  • A risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy.

  • Risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss.

  • No opportunities are associated with a risk, only losses.

  • a and b

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

A contingency plan is:

Select one of the following:

  • A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur.

  • A workaround

  • A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.

  • a and c

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is a type of?

Select one of the following:

  • Risk Mitigation

  • Risk Acceptance

  • Risk Avoidance

  • Strategy for negative risks

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?

Select one of the following:

  • Unknown unknowns

  • Known unknowns

  • business risks

  • pure risks

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning Process?

Select one of the following:

  • Whether to procure

  • How to procure and how much to procure

  • What and when to procure

  • A, B, and C

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

From a buyer's standpoint, which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontracts

  • Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the duty of the contractor.

  • Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Which of the following is true about procurement documents?

Select one of the following:

  • Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.

  • Invitation for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents.

  • Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers.

  • A, B, and C

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection?

Select one of the following:

  • Weighting system

  • Screening system

  • Selecting system

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

Which of the following are examples of indirect costs?

Select one of the following:

  • Salaries of corporate executives

  • Salaries of full-time project staff

  • Overhead costs

  • A and C

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?

Select one of the following:

  • Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

  • Cost plus-incentive-fee contract

  • Fixed-price-incentive contract

  • Firm-fixed-price contract

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

In which of the following contract types is the seller's profit limited?

Select one of the following:

  • Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract

  • Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

  • Fixed-price-plus-incentive

  • B and C

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

A cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract has an estimated cost of $120,000 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total reimbursement to the seller?

Select one of the following:

  • $143,000

  • $142,000

  • $140,000

  • $132,000

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

The outputs of the Monitor and Control project work are utilized as inputs for the Performance of Integrated Change Control to give the following outputs, excluding.

Select one of the following:

  • Approved Change Requests

  • Change Log

  • Change Requests

  • Project Management Plan Updates

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract?

Select one of the following:

  • The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have.

  • The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.

  • The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.

  • a and c

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

Ramcharan, the project manager for a logistics project successfully undertook all the project activities and reached the final Close Project or Phase process that used the following inputs except for.

Select one of the following:

  • Accepted Deliverables

  • Enterprise Environmental Factors

  • Project Management Plan

  • Organizational Process Assets

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

Which of the following demonstrates a good negotiation skill?

Select one of the following:

  • Be ready to get the deal at any cost

  • Ensure that you get the most out of it

  • Offer more for less

  • Ask high and offer low

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

A narrative account of products, services or results to be achieved under a project comes in the form of

Select one of the following:

  • Project Statement of Work

  • Strategic Plan

  • Product Scope Description

  • Project Management Plan

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

The "rule of seven" as applied to process control charts means that :

Select one of the following:

  • If there are seven points on one side of mean, then an assignable cause must be found.

  • Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same.

  • At least seven quality inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees

  • A process is not out of control when at least seven measurements fall outside the lower and upper control limits.

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

There is project with CPI of 0.81 and TCPI=1.00001 this project is:

Select one of the following:

  • Over budget and hard to complete

  • Under budget

  • Over budget and early in its evolution

  • No inference can be made

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Project life cycle

  • Portfolio management

  • Product life cycle

  • Program management

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

Which of the following activities do not fall under the Closing Process Group?

Select one of the following:

  • Document lessons learned

  • Applying appropriate updates to OPA

  • Recommending preventive action

  • Performing team members assessment

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

Who is not responsible for risk identification or reporting?

Select one of the following:

  • Project manager

  • Project team member

  • Project stakeholder

  • Functional Manager

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. Expected Value =

Select one of the following:

  • (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6

  • (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6

  • (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6

  • (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Parametric estimating is a technique where

Select one of the following:

  • is less costly, less time consuming and less accurate.

  • an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters.

  • uses an average of most likely, optimistic and pessimistic activity durations

  • A and B

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Examples of Projects include:

Select one of the following:

  • Implementing a new business procedure or process

  • Constructing a building or facility

  • Designing a new transportation vehicle

  • All of the Above

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization?

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

  • They are not related to each other

  • Neither true nor false

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

What does TQM stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Time Quality Managed

  • Target Quality Management

  • Total Quality Management

  • Time Quote Management

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definite end.

Select one of the following:

  • Overall

  • Project Chart

  • Temporary

  • Duration

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

In case of an external IT project, the project initiator or sponsor must have provided the following information excluding.

Select one of the following:

  • Project Statement of Work

  • Agreements

  • Business Case

  • Organizational Process Assets

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Who should be involved in the project planning phase?

Select one of the following:

  • The Project Manager.

  • The customer.

  • The Sub-contractors/vendors.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contracts provide:

Select one of the following:

  • A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon percentage of the estimated cost as profit.

  • A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as the contract progresses.

  • The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a predetermined fee for superior performance.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

The successful project managers spend most of their time:

Select one of the following:

  • Planning with their personnel.

  • Planning with top management.

  • Communicating with project team.

  • Studying project results.

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Project success depends on a number of interrelated factors, including time, cost and scope control. The success of any project depends primarily on:

Select one of the following:

  • Customer acceptance of deliverables

  • Customer satisfaction irrespective of outcome

  • Customer compromise in defining its needs

  • Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspection:

Select one of the following:

  • Statistical sampling.

  • 100% inspection

  • user review

  • A and C

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

A complete set of concepts, terms and activities that make up a professional field, project management field or an area of specialization is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Knowledge Area

  • Domain Knowledge

  • Project Management Process

  • Project Management Group

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

Pareto Analysis, cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in quality.

Select one of the following:

  • Control.

  • Assurances.

  • Planning.

  • Verification.

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

In a multi-cultural environment, it is critical to establish a corporate culture that facilitates:

Select one of the following:

  • Problem-solving through different approaches.

  • Learning and communication

  • Partnerships, strong alliances and joint ventures

  • Negotiations.

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is:

Select one of the following:

  • Conflict of interest

  • Favoritism

  • Resolved prior conflicts

  • Both A and B

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

The contemporary view of conflict is that:

Select one of the following:

  • Conflict is bad.

  • Conflict is caused by trouble makers.

  • Conflict should be avoided.

  • Conflict is often beneficial

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

In general a project charter covers:

Select one of the following:

  • Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedule, and any imitations that top management wants to apply.

  • Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, detailed project schedules, estimates, and detailed procurement schedules responsibilities, a project schedule, and any limitations that top management wants to apply.

  • Project justification, description, details of sponsor and project manager,, budget, assumptions and constraints, boundaries to apply.

  • Project scope, objectives, available resources, responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedules, and any limitations that top management wants to apply.

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

A project manager has increased project costs by US $75,000, but completed the project six weeks earlier than planned. What tool is best described here?

Select one of the following:

  • Resource leveling

  • Duration compression

  • Crashing

  • Fast tracking

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Which of the following is most true?

Select one of the following:

  • Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor.

  • Lag may be determined by making a forward pass

  • Lag is delay in start time, caused by delay in finish of predecessor activity.

  • Lag is the maximum amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the project.

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

As project manager you should dedicate a primary focus to:

Select one of the following:

  • Managing all changes immediately as they surface.

  • Formally documenting all changes.

  • Communicating authorized changes to senior management and key stakeholders.

  • Preventing unnecessary changes

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

The behavioral responsibilities of a project manager may also include dealing with:

Select one of the following:

  • Regulatory Personnel

  • The legal environment

  • Environmental Issues

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

The major purpose of project status reports is to:

Select one of the following:

  • Organize and summarize the information so that all stakeholders are informed

  • Inform upper management of the project problems

  • Inform the client about the changes that have completed

  • Provide information to management and client

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Most project management leadership theories focus on all of the following except :

Select one of the following:

  • Personal characteristics of the project manager

  • Personal traits of the subordinates

  • Behavioral styles of the project manager

  • Usefulness of authority and power and leadership

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Summary budget is arrived at during the______ phase of the project:

Select one of the following:

  • Initiation

  • Planning

  • Implementation

  • Execution

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Historical records during closing are useful to __________ and ____________ for future projects:

Select one of the following:

  • Predict trends, highlight problems

  • Analyze successes, shortfalls

  • Analyze strengths, document results

  • Justify results, set standards

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Your client informs that his company has a problem with the current design specs of your product and how it will interface with the existing systems. If this occurs, it could be a major problem for your project. The client is coming to your office in a week to discuss the problem and to see what your team can do to overcome this setback. All previous meetings were informal with this client, but now he wants a formal meeting. What should you do to prepare for this meeting:

Select one of the following:

  • Update the schedules and assume an active role since the client has not given you the specifics of the potential problem

  • Make sure that the team has increased productivity so the client can see how efficient your team is performing

  • Assemble the team and ask them to prepare an agenda for topics to discuss

  • Make sure that each team member has his assignment in preparation for any handouts and needed plans

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

The definitive terms of a contract are written during which of the following contract phases?

Select one of the following:

  • Contract phase

  • Post award phase

  • Award phase

  • Requirement phase

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

A document that formally recognizes the existence of a project is a :

Select one of the following:

  • Gantt Chart

  • WBS

  • Project Charter

  • Scope statement

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

Some organizations are now using 6 Sigma for quality control compared to the usual:

Select one of the following:

  • 2 sigma

  • 3 sigma

  • 4 sigma

  • 5 sigma

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the possibility of its occurrence is:

Select one of the following:

  • Risk avoidance

  • Risk acceptance

  • Risk mitigation

  • Contingency planning

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

In which of the following project management process groups are the most time and money typically spent?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating

  • Planning

  • Executing

  • Controlling

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

A supplier has withdrawn from your project. A new supplier has been added. His labor forces are due to arrive at the job site tomorrow. You should:

Select one of the following:

  • Meet with the supplier along with his team and establish yourself as the authority in charge.

  • Bring your team in for introductions and establish a communications exchange

  • Bring out the communication management plan

  • Bring out the project plan.

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

A supplier has withdrawn from your project. A new supplier has been added. His labor forces are due to arrive at the job site tomorrow. You should:

Select one of the following:

  • Meet with the supplier along with his team and establish yourself as the authority in charge.

  • Bring your team in for introductions and establish a communications exchange

  • Bring out the communication management plan

  • Bring out the project plan.

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

A new project manager is about to begin creating the project's scope of work. One stakeholder wants to add many items to the scope of work. Another stakeholder only wants to describe the functional requirements. The project is important for the project manager's company but a seller will do the work. Which of the following would you advise the project manager to do?

Select one of the following:

  • The scope of work should be general to allow the seller to make its own decisions.

  • The scope of work should be general but the management must allow clarifications later.

  • The scope of work should be detailed to allow clarifications later.

  • The scope of work should be as detailed as necessary for the type of project.

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

After the kickoff meeting, two team members engage in a casual conversation about the project objectives and deliverables. It is clear they heard different messages during the meeting. One member is so adamant that the other member gives up arguing the point. After talking to the project manager, the second member confirms that the first member is mistaken. At this point, what is the BEST course of action?

Select one of the following:

  • The second team member should send the other team member an e-mail describing what he discovered.

  • At the next project meeting, the team member should ask the mistaken team member to describe his interpretation so the project manager can get everyone on the same page.

  • The project manager should send out an e-mail to the team restating the project objectives and deliverables

  • At the next project meeting, the project manager should spend time reviewing a documented scope statement with the goal of identifying this and other false assumptions.

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

During project execution, a project team delivers a project deliverable to the customer. However, the customer neither acknowledges the deliverable nor says if it is acceptable, although an approval is required. What is the BEST thing to do?

Select one of the following:

  • Continue with the project

  • Document the situation

  • Contact management for help

  • Call a meeting of the team

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

You are managing a six-month project and have held bi-weekly meetings with your project sponsors. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and budget, but the sponsors are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion by one month. The MOST important process that could have prevented this situation is:

Select one of the following:

  • Risk monitoring and control.

  • Schedule control

  • Regular walkthroughs and sign-offs

  • Scope change control

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

When you are closing out a project, what must you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Provide project feedback to the team

  • Obtain sign off from the customer

  • Review project documentation for completeness

  • Update the project plans

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Financial controls that need to be considered for project plan development do not include:

Select one of the following:

  • Time reporting

  • Standard contract provisions

  • Process audits

  • Accounting codes

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

A project manager has been working on a project for six months with the same team yet the team still shows a lack of support for the project. The best thing for the project manager to do would be to?

Select one of the following:

  • Re-evaluate the effectiveness of the reward system the project manager has put in place

  • Talk to each team member's boss

  • Re-plan the project

  • Tell the team he needs its support

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed several deadlines in the past causing Team D to have to crash the critical path several times. As the project leader for Team D, what should you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Meet with management alone

  • Meet with the project manager alone

  • Meet with the project manager and management

  • Meet with the project manager and the team C leader

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

The current update to the schedule performance report shows no schedule variance. Based upon the reporting, you have told the client that the project is on time. However, your team members know that a major milestone has just been missed and that the project will not meet its startup date. This is an indication of poor?

Select one of the following:

  • Communication management planning

  • Scope management planning

  • Team trust

  • Schedule planning

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

A project manager is assigned a project with a team that has already been selected. The first thing the project manager should find out about the team is?

Select one of the following:

  • What is each team member's favorite color

  • Each team member's objectives for working on the project

  • A list of each team member's tasks

  • Each team member's role in the project plan

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

An advisor to a new project manager tells the project manager to create lessons learned document at the end of a project. A lessons learned document includes?

Select one of the following:

  • Any variances and the causes of the variances

  • Reports from the customer

  • Reports from management

  • A list of all the plans

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

Abdullah, a project manager in XYZ Company is managing a project on IT and is looking for historical data on the usage of the previous software and applications in the company; he will get it in.

Select one of the following:

  • Newspaper Archives

  • Organizational Process Assets

  • Management Information System

  • Enterprise Environmental Factors

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

The project is completed and the final deliverable given to the customer but the customer refuses to take any action to give final acceptance on the project. The project manager should?

Select one of the following:

  • Repeatedly ask for final acceptance

  • Ask the team for assistance

  • Document the situation

  • Do nothing because there is nothing that can be done

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

What do knowledge, skills, tools and techniques stand for when applied to the activities of a project, if it also entails effective management of a process.

Select one of the following:

  • Human Resource Management

  • Project Management

  • Financial Management

  • Project Management Process

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

The Precedence Diagramming Method :

Select one of the following:

  • has finish-to-start task relationships and provides the flexibility of lead and lag time to the activities;

  • has the activity on the arrow

  • is also known as Arrow Diagramming Method

  • is used to make precedence diagrams

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

Gantt charts are great for:

Select one of the following:

  • Showing tasks relationships

  • Tracking actual vs planned

  • Optimum Resource utilization

  • b and c

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

Ultimate responsibility for quality management in the project rests with the?

Select one of the following:

  • Project engineer

  • Purchasing agent

  • Quality manager

  • Team members

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Design of experiments?

Select one of the following:

  • identifies which factors may influence specific variables of a process or product

  • identifies which variables don't have any influence on quality

  • determines what a quality outcome is

  • is a method for research and development

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

You are a project manager for a major information systems project. Someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a quality audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete the project as soon as possible, takes objection to the audit. You should explain to the team that the purpose of a quality audit is?

Select one of the following:

  • part of an ISO 9000 investigation

  • to check if the customer is following its quality process

  • to identify lessons learned that can improve performance on the project

  • to check the accuracy of the costs submitted by the team

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

You manage a project whose team members have diverse skills and expertise. You want to encourage your staff to pool its knowledge on project issues to make the best decisions possible. The most appropriate management style to use is:

Select one of the following:

  • Laissez-faire

  • Democratic

  • Autocratic

  • Directive

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

The types of power that have substantial influence on both subordinates and upper management are:

Select one of the following:

  • Formal & expert

  • Reward & penalty

  • Expert & referent

  • Formal & referent

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Your preferred resource is not available at the time needed. What is the best thing to do?

Select one of the following:

  • Negotiate with management to get the resource

  • Assess your alternatives

  • Begin the task early

  • Use reserves to increase resources assigned to those tasks

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

An important piece of hardware will be late. What is the first thing to do?

Select one of the following:

  • Discuss with team

  • Use schedule reserves

  • Use alternate vendor

  • Go to customer or management

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems, staff attrition, and slow client reviews. The project is 40% complete and has used 60% of the available calendar time. What is the FIRST thing you should do?

Select one of the following:

  • Re-baseline the schedule to reflect the new date

  • Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or crash the schedule

  • Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management

  • Identify tasks that have required more time than planned

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

functional manager wants to make a change to the time associated with a task, but there is not enough reserve to accommodate the change. Who should authorize the change?

Select one of the following:

  • Senior management

  • The functional manager

  • The project manager

  • The team member performing the work

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

During the course of a project you have motivated team members, managed conflict, performed personnel administrative functions and negotiated for more resources. These are examples of:

Select one of the following:

  • General Project Management

  • Project Human Resource Management

  • Project Execution

  • A Projectized organization

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

You have been promoted to Manager, Continuous Process Improvement. Your new position:

Select one of the following:

  • Is a project because the work will be performed by people

  • Is not a project because Continuous Process Improvement will continue indefinitely

  • Is a project because it is constrained by limited resources

  • Is a project because improvements must be planned, executed, and controlled

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a Project Management knowledge area?

Select one of the following:

  • Project Quality Management

  • Project Procurement Management

  • Project Configuration Management

  • Project Risk Management

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

The state of being totally answerable for the satisfactory completion of a specific assignment is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Authority

  • Accountability

  • Responsibility

  • Fiduciary

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

You are responsible for the communication controls for the Genesis series of satellites. Your current assignment is:

Select one of the following:

  • Project management

  • Functional management

  • Facility management

  • Program management

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

Work packages are used to :

Select one of the following:

  • Represent units of work at a level where work is performed.

  • Distinguish one package from all others assigned to a single functional group.

  • Limit work to be performed to relatively short periods of time.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Network planning methods(PERT/CPM/PDM):

Select one of the following:

  • Are usually too complicated for practical use on most projects

  • Require highly trained specialists for effective use

  • Always require computer support to be practical

  • Are based on flow charts and they allow observation of what happens to the project schedule when changes occur to a task's start and stop dates

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Earned value can be described as:

Select one of the following:

  • The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the current date

  • The sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on the project date

  • A method of measuring project performance

  • A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

A role of the change control board (CCB) is to:

Select one of the following:

  • issue change requests

  • represent top management interests in initiating innovation

  • review the impact of change requests on project costs, schedule, and specifications

  • identify new areas of project work

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

Quality control is:

Select one of the following:

  • identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them

  • monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance

  • evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards

  • taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Cost of quality is a concept that includes:

Select one of the following:

  • the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements

  • the life cycle cost of the project

  • all research and development costs related to the project

  • only the cost of the quality control function

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

The pillars) of quality is (are) :

Select one of the following:

  • Quality is free

  • Doing it right the first time

  • Zero defects

  • B and C

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Quality assurance is:

Select one of the following:

  • top management's intention regarding quality

  • functions determining implementation of the quality policy

  • actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements

  • responsibilities and processes which implement quality management

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

The zero defects concept:

Select one of the following:

  • is a performance standard for management

  • is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time"

  • is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do things right the first time

  • A and C

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

When appointed, a project manager has the inherent forms of legitimate power conveyed to him. The three forms of legitimate power are:

Select one of the following:

  • absolute, direct, and indict

  • direction, coordination, and liaison

  • formal, informal, and persuasive

  • formal, reward, and penalty

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

The five types of conflict resolution are listed below and represent, in general order of importance, the methods a project manager should use to manage conflict. The one used most often by project managers to resolve conflict is:

Select one of the following:

  • confrontation

  • compromise

  • smoothing

  • forcing

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

The process of getting a group of diverse individuals to work effectively together as a team is the definition of

Select one of the following:

  • leadership

  • project management

  • the project manager's responsibilities

  • team building

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

Which contract type should be used by the owner on a high risk project?

Select one of the following:

  • Cost plus percentage of cost

  • Cost plus incentive fee

  • Lump sum

  • Fixed price plus incentive fee

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

The technique used under the Quantitative Risk Analysis that helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project is called

Select one of the following:

  • Sensitivity Analysis

  • Expected Monetary value Analysis

  • Modeling and Simulation

  • Expert Judgment

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Project risk is characterized by three factors:

Select one of the following:

  • Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact

  • Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact

  • Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake

  • Occurrence, frequency and cost

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP:

Select one of the following:

  • PMI Policy of Ethics

  • PMI Code of Ethical Conduct

  • PMI Code of Professional Ethics & Standards

  • PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Which is not another term for contract?

Select one of the following:

  • Agreement

  • Purchase Order

  • Proposal

  • Memorandum of Understanding

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Which of the following situations describes a violation of the Project Management Institute Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?

Select one of the following:

  • Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in.

  • Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision.

  • Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management services are provided

  • Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that may have an appearance of impropriety.

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

You are working in a country where it is customary to exchange gifts between contractor and customer. Your company code of conduct clearly states that you cannot accept gifts from any client. Failure to accept the gift from this client may result in termination of the contract. The action to take in this case would be:

Select one of the following:

  • Provide the customer with a copy of your company code of conduct and refuse the gifts

  • Exchange gifts with the customer and keep the exchange confidential

  • Report the matter to your project sponsor and /or your legal office for assistance.

  • Ask the project sponsor or project executive to exchange gifts.

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

An example of a conflict of interest would be:

Select one of the following:

  • As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit you personally

  • You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate

  • Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the company strategy

  • Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team.

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

The strategies under the tool of Strategies for negative Risks or Threats and which typically deal with threats or risks that may have negative impacts on project objectives if they occur includes all except:

Select one of the following:

  • Avoid

  • Mitigate

  • Transfer

  • Accept

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by:

Select one of the following:

  • Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process

  • Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property

  • Promote the use of ad hoc project management

  • Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

For a festival, you give your government client a leather brief case which is against the law. You are in violation of the responsibility to:

Select one of the following:

  • Complete your work within the budget

  • Comply with regulations.

  • Provide accurate information.

  • Save company costs.

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

You have just changed jobs and discovered that your new employer routinely violates OSHA/EPA and affirmative action requirements on projects. You should first:

Select one of the following:

  • Do nothing. It's not your problem

  • Start by asking management if they are aware that regulations are being violated

  • Talk to the corporate legal department

  • Inform the appropriate government agencies about the violations

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

During your assignment as project manager, you add a new member to your project team. This new team member was recently hired from a competitor and offers to share a substantial amount of proprietary information from his previous company. This information could put you and your team in a very strong position for future business. You are aware of a non-compete clause in the new hire's condition of employment. You should:

Select one of the following:

  • Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new hire.

  • Review the condition of employment with the new hire and advise him to reconsider the offer.

  • Review the information and only accept only what may have a direct impact on the project's financial status.

  • Ignore the offer to share and move forward with the project

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should:

Select one of the following:

  • Determine the risks associated with the violation

  • Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation

  • Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results

  • Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

A response to a negative risk event is known as a:

Select one of the following:

  • Work Item

  • Work Package

  • Workaround

  • Work breakdown structure

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Qualitative Risk Analysis will be performed under :

Select one of the following:

  • Initiation Process Group

  • Planning Process Group

  • Executing Process Group

  • Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Acquire Project team process will be performed under:

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating Process Group

  • Planning Process Group

  • Executing Process Group

  • Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

The objectives of Project Risk Management includes

Select one of the following:

  • To increase the likelihood and impact of positive events

  • To decrease the likelihood and impact of negative events

  • Only A

  • Both A & B

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

In a group of 4 members, 1 member has been added. How many communication channels are there now :

Select one of the following:

  • 5

  • 3

  • 10

  • 20

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • There are only some core processes and some facilitating processes in the PMBOK

  • PMI is not responsible for producing the PMBOK.

  • PMBOK will be changed every year in December

  • PMBOK has 10 process groups and 47 processes

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Which of the following is not an input to Develop Project Charter:

Select one of the following:

  • Contract

  • Project Statement of Work

  • Enterprise Environmental Factors

  • Project Management Information System

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

Which of the following is a technique used to Create WBS:

Select one of the following:

  • Organizational Process Assets

  • Decomposition

  • WBS Dictionary

  • Configuration Management System

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

Which of the following is not an input to Define Activities process:

Select one of the following:

  • WBS Dictionary

  • Organizational Process Assets

  • Project Scope Statement

  • Schedule Network Templates

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

Which of the following is not an output of Estimate Activity Resources:

Select one of the following:

  • Activity Resource Requirements

  • Resource Breakdown Structure

  • Resource Categories and Types

  • Resource Management Plan

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

Which of the following is a tool used in Estimate Activity Durations:

Select one of the following:

  • Analogous Estimating

  • Work Breakdown Structure Templates

  • Critical Path Method

  • Schedule Network Templates

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

Crashing, and Fast tracking are techniques used in the following process:

Select one of the following:

  • Schedule Development

  • Activity Definition

  • Create WBS

  • Resource Allocation

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

Which is not a technique used for Estimate Costs process:

Select one of the following:

  • Analogous Estimating

  • Bottom-up Estimating

  • Parametric Estimating

  • Resource Leveling

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Which is not a tool used in Quality Planning process :

Select one of the following:

  • Cost-Benefit Analysis

  • Benchmarking

  • Design of Experiments

  • Process Analysis

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

What are three tools used in Control Quality process:

Select one of the following:

  • Benchmarking, Cost of Quality (COQ) and Cause and Effect Diagram

  • Cost of Quality (COQ), Cause and Effect Diagram and Control Charts

  • Control Charts, Flowcharting and Process Analysis

  • Pareto Chart, Control Charts and Cause and Effect Diagram

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Which of the following Human Resource process generates Roles & Responsibilities:

Select one of the following:

  • Plan Human Resource Management

  • Acquire Project Team

  • Develop Project Team

  • Manage Project Team

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Co-Location is a techniques which means:

Select one of the following:

  • Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team.

  • Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to reduce the cost of the project

  • Performing a complete project at a single location

  • Performing a project at various locations

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Manage Stakeholders is a part which of the following knowledge area:

Select one of the following:

  • Human Resource Management

  • Project Integration Management

  • Project Scope Management

  • Project Stakeholder Management

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

Which of the following is not correct about Communications Management Plan document:

Select one of the following:

  • It contains Stakeholder communication requirements

  • It contains the details of Person responsible for communicating the information

  • It contains Frequency of the communication, such as weekly

  • It contains total cost of communication

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

Which is not a tool used for Plan Risk Responses process:

Select one of the following:

  • Risk Audits

  • Avoidance

  • Transfer

  • Mitigate

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Advertising is a technique used in which of the following process:

Select one of the following:

  • Select Sellers

  • Request Seller Responses

  • Contract Administration

  • Contract Closure

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Which of the following definition is not correct:

Select one of the following:

  • Plan Human Resource Management - Identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships, as well as creating the staffing management plan.

  • Acquire Project Team - Obtaining the human resources needed to complete the project

  • Develop Project Team - Improving the competencies and interaction of team members to enhance project performance

  • Team Building - Forming a team from scratch for a new project

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Which of the following definition is not correct:

Select one of the following:

  • Contract Closure - completing and settling each contract, including the resolution of any open items, and closing each contract.

  • Plan Purchases and Acquisitions - selecting a buyer to purchase any product or service.

  • Select Sellers - reviewing offers, choosing from among potential sellers, and negotiating a written contract with a seller.

  • Request Seller Responses - obtaining information, quotations, bids, offers, or proposals, as appropriate

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Which of the following is not correct:

Select one of the following:

  • PMO - Program Management Office

  • RBS - Resource Breakdown Structure

  • RAM - Resource Assignment Matrix

  • RFP - Request for Proposal

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Which of the following is not correct :

Select one of the following:

  • Cost of Quality (COQ): Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality

  • Crashing: A specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration.

  • Total Quality Management: A common approach to implementing a quality improvement program within an organization

  • Simulation: prototyping of a project to check if proposed design will work or not.

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Delphi

  • PERT

  • CPM

  • Monte Carlo Analysis

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

What is critical path?

Select one of the following:

  • The shortest path through the network, which represents the longest amount of time in which a project can be completed.

  • The path with zero float.

  • The longest path through the network, which represents the shortest amount of time in which a project can be completed.

  • The path with the most activities with the longest durations.

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

In the communication process, "noise" is the word used to describe factors and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties. Noise includes all of the following but __________

Select one of the following:

  • Culture

  • Behavior

  • Traditional way of doing things

  • Loud talking

Explanation

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