Taylor Carre-Riddell
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Psychology Quiz on DevPsych w1-7 Research methods, Cognitive theory, prenatal development, infant development, ToM, child development, preadolescent development, Intelligence, Genetics, Brain Development, created by Taylor Carre-Riddell on 20/04/2017.

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Taylor Carre-Riddell
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DevPsych w1-7 Research methods, Cognitive theory, prenatal development, infant development, ToM, child development, preadolescent development, Intelligence, Genetics, Brain Development

Question 1 of 47

1

An advantage of microgenetic research design is:

Select one of the following:

  • ntensive observation of changes while they are occurring can reveal processes of change
    Reveals individual change patterns over short periods in considerable detail

  • Reveals individual change over long periods

  • Quick and easy to administer (sometimes…)

  • helps establidh biological criteria for the DSM

Explanation

Question 2 of 47

1

Themes of development include:

Select one of the following:

  • deelopment occurs on a spectrum

  • Nature and Nurture

  • Children’s roles in their own development

    Continuity/discontinuity in development

    Mechanisms for Developmental Change

    Socio-cultural context influence

    Individual differences in child development

    Research to improve children’s welfare

  • ensuring ethical treatment of the developing child

Explanation

Question 3 of 47

1

Vgotsky emphaised what in his theory?

Select one of the following:

  • socialistion

  • positive reward stimulus

  • a good role model

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 4 of 47

1

2 key themes that underlie Piaget's theory include

Select one of the following:

  • none of the below

  • Children can't progress to the next stage of development without first succeeding at the previous one

  • Qualitative changes in children’s thought.
    Invariant sequence of patterns of thought.

  • the stages are defined not by task but by age

Explanation

Question 5 of 47

1

Disadv of cross sectional design is:

Select one of the following:

  • Does not reveal individual change patterns over long periods

  • Uninformative about stability in individual differences over time

  • Repeatedly testing people can threaten the external validity of study (generalising results to broader community

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 6 of 47

1

Attatchment and temperment theory states that:

Select one of the following:

  • Anxious-avoidant: despondant to mum leaving or returning

  • Anxious-avoidant: stress when mum leaves, ok when mum returns

  • Anxious-avoidant explores stranger , upset um leave, happy to engage whrn she returns

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 7 of 47

1

What does the infant starter kit include?

Select one of the following:

  • Sensory abilities

  • Focus and reflexes

  • socio-emotional abilities

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 8 of 47

1

Psychotoxemia suggests that:

Select one of the following:

  • Babies need to be breastfed to develop fully

  • Babies need touch to survive

  • Babies need a primary, loving caregiver to survive

  • B and C

Explanation

Question 9 of 47

1

Core knowledge theory states:

Select one of the following:

  • Piaget's theory is correct: infants only learn after birth

  • Areas of cognition relevant in human evolution. Children are born with many specialized – not only general – learning abilities.

  • Areas of cognition relevant in human evolution. Children are born with many specialized learning abilities.

  • Areas of cognition relevant in human evolution. Children are born with a few essential general learning abilities that grow moer complex overtime.

Explanation

Question 10 of 47

1

Observational learning experiments suggest that infants:

Select one of the following:

  • showing they mentally represented the presence of the invisible box- can represent images without stimulus.

  • showing they mentally represented the presence of the invisible box- can represent images without stimulus, but only with conditioning

  • showing they mentally represented the presence of the invisible box- can represent images without stimulus, but only well developed babies will detect this

  • We can't conclude much from experiments

Explanation

Question 11 of 47

1

Negatives of Piaget's theory include:

Select one of the following:

  • Piaget’s theory is vague about the cognitive processes that give rise to children’s thinking and about the mechanisms that produce cognitive growth hence information processing accounts of developmental change.

  • Infants and young children are more cognitively competent than Piaget recognised

  • Stage model depicts children’s thinking as more consistent than it is

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 12 of 47

1

A false belief understanding is:

Select one of the following:

  • the understanding that an individual's belief or representation about the world may contrast with reality

  • to recognize that others can have beliefs about the world that are diverging.

  • A and B

  • A task that tests children's perception

Explanation

Question 13 of 47

1

The difference between first and second order ToM is

Select one of the following:

  • There is no difference, one is a continuation of the other

  • First: require that another person’s mental state is read/understood
    second: require understanding of what two people think sequentially

  • First: require understanding of what two people think sequentially
    Second: require that another person’s mental state is read/understood

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 14 of 47

1

Why is ToM essential?

Select one of the following:

  • Understanding the intentions of others is the basis of nearly all social interactions among people beyond preschool age

  • It an essential biological mechanism to social interaction

  • ToM is a complex cognitive function that requires the integration of information from many sources
    Memory etc

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 47

1

Empathising-systemising hypothesis states:

Select one of the following:

  • Deficits in the normal development of empathy
    Systemizing refers to the drive to analyse, explore and construct systems and rules
    Either intact or superior in autism- rely on it instead of innate sympathy
    Theory may explain impairments in executive function and central coherence

  • abnormally low activity in brain regions involved in social cognition
    abnormally high activity in regions involved in lower-level perceptual processing

  • all Children with ASD are delayed in developing a Theory of Mind

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 16 of 47

1

Inhibitory control is not as well developed in younger children. which example demonstrates high inhibitary control?

Select one of the following:

  • Emma’s brother removes the apple
    (child does not know where the apple is located

  • Emma’s brother removes the apple from the container and places it into the other container

  • neither of the above

  • It's a theory, not a behaviour

Explanation

Question 17 of 47

1

Adults’ ToM is based on belief-desire reasoning

Select one of the following:

  • executive function

  • predictive judgement

  • We understand that our behaviour and that of others, is based on what we know, or believe, and what we want, or desire

  • all of the above and more complexities

Explanation

Question 18 of 47

1

Theory theory states:

Select one of the following:

  • C and D

  • There is no such theory

  • People derive theories about the mental states of others
    -They make theories about how, why and what other people are thinking
    -Mental states are attributed to other people and used to explain and predict behaviour

  • People construct a set of causal/explanatory laws that relate:
    -External stimuli to internal states (perception to belief)
    -Inner states to other inner states (desire to decision)
    -Inner states to behaviour (decision to action)

Explanation

Question 19 of 47

1

Changes that occur in middle childhood (2-7 years include)

Select one of the following:

  • Both B and C

  • Only psychical changes occur in this phase:
    Muscle mass and strength gradually increase; baby fat decreases
    Improvement of fine motor skills during middle childhood
    Increased myelination of the central nervous system

  • Decline in Egocentricism- the realization that one’s own thoughts and feelings are not necessarily shared by others.
    Decentration + Reversibility  Conservation!
    Transformations- the ability to think and reason about change processes
    Classification-the ability to classify objects as belonging to two or more categories at the same time.
    Seriation- ordering based on parameters
    Deductive reasoning- The ability to draw a logical inference from two or more pieces of information.

  • Children develop ToM and EF at increased rates

Explanation

Question 20 of 47

1

The 3 main models for defining intelligence are:

Select one of the following:

  • Intelligence as a Single Trait 

  • Few Basic Abilities

  • An Integrated Model of Intelligence- see diagram

  • There are 4 models, which also include: Intelligence as Several Basic Abilities: intelligence involves seven primary mental abilities.

Explanation

Question 21 of 47

1

Nativists and empiricists have different ideas regarding the growth of children’s biological standing.

Select one of the following:

  • Empiricists: people are born with a biology module

  • Nativists: people are born with a biology module
    Empiricists: children’s biological understanding comes from personal observations and information they receive from other people and their culture

  • None of the above

  • Nativists: children’s biological understanding comes from personal observations and information they receive from other people and their culture

Explanation

Question 22 of 47

1

Terogens:

Select one of the following:

  • .  Timing  of  teratogen  and  structure  formation  
    2.  Gene:cs  and  environment- not everyone will present symptoms  

  • 3.  Same  defect  can  be  caused  by  different  teratogens  
    4.  A  variety  of  defects  can  result  from  a  single   teratogen
      5.  The  longer  the  exposure  or  higher  the  dose,  the   greater  the  harm  

  • 6.  Father  and  mother  exposure  effects  
    7.  Long-­‐term  effects  oaen  depend  on  postnatal   environment  
    8.  Sleeper  effects - symptoms can present later in life     

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 23 of 47

1

Development of “Tools” for Thought include:

Select one of the following:

  • Information Symbols : dual representation--understanding that information can be represented mentally in two ways at the same time, both as a real object and as a symbol for something other than itself eg scale model tasks. Children’s artistic ideas often outstrip their motor and planning capability

  • lassification:
    dividing objects into category hierarchies (i.e., categories related by set-subset relations).
    A key element in infants’ thinking is perceptual categorization, the grouping together of objects that have similar appearances. Based on parts of objects

  • Humaness: Imaginary friends included ordinary but invisible children as well as fanciful creatures. Preschoolers understand inheritance and grasp Essentialism, the view that living things have an essence inside them that makes them what they are

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 24 of 47

1

At what age do children master there 1st L?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 years

  • 4 years

  • 7 years

  • 12 years

Explanation

Question 25 of 47

1

Speech Perception involves

Select one of the following:

  • Categorical Perception: music” of a language.Phonemic contrast ability appears to be innate, present at birth and independent of experience. One month old babies noticed all and only the changes an adult, listener would notic, as well as...

  • Prosody: sounds as belonging to discrete categories.Newborns can discriminate most pure tones, but best discriminations for human speech frequencies.

  • The ability to distinguish mothe's voice from others

  • Intonation change to reflect meanings

Explanation

Question 26 of 47

1

L development involves:

Select one of the following:

  • Phonological development: the acquisition of knowledge about phonemes, the elementary units of sound that distinguish meaning
    Semantic development: learning the system for expressing

  • A and C

  • Syntactic development: learning the syntax or rules for combining words
    Pragmatic development: acquiring knowledge of how language is used, which includes understanding a variety of conversational conventions

  • none of the above: they are mechanisms of speech perception

Explanation

Question 27 of 47

1

How do we measure intelligence?

Select one of the following:

  • IQ

  • Longitudinal studies

  • Tests on different aspects

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 47

1

Polygenic Inheritance is:

Select one of the following:

  • none of the below

  • 2 populations have a different genotype

  • when traits are governed by more than one gene

  • mutiple phenotypes are available

Explanation

Question 29 of 47

1

Mutations are:

Select one of the following:

  • The source of genetic variation and the basis for natural selection

  • There are four main types of mutations
    Base substitutions
    Deletions of DNA
    Insertions of DNA
    Whole or partial chromosomal abnormalities

  • A and B

  • An unkown source of varience

Explanation

Question 30 of 47

1

Garnder's mutiple intelligence theory states:

Select one of the following:

  • individual children learn best through instruction that allows them to build on their strengths.

  • children play a role in development. Children’s IQ scores are positively correlated with the quality of their family environment as measured by the HOME

  • intelligence involves seven primary mental abilities.

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 31 of 47

1

According to the Integrated Model of Intelligence, general intelligence contains elements

Select one of the following:

  • Cognitive intelligence

  • Interpersonal intelligence

  • Maternal/paternal instinct

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 32 of 47

1

DNA methylation is negative as:

Select one of the following:

  • a CpG islet in a promoter region of a gene is methylated (has a CH3 group added), this interferes with the transcription of the gene

  • It changes the process of mitosis

  • Genes can not be properly expressed

  • A and C

Explanation

Question 33 of 47

1

Epigenetics is:

Select one of the following:

  • How genes work together

  • Study of heritable esp via mitosis (but reversible) changes in gene expression. Epigenetic mechanisms regulate gene expression and are sensitive to external stimuli – bridging the gap between environmental and genetic factors.

  • How genes divide

  • How genes manifest in different populations

Explanation

Question 34 of 47

1

Changes in gene expression include:

Select one of the following:

  • Chromosome formation

  • sex linked heritance

  • Changes that are not coded in the DNA sequence but by post-translational modifications in DNA, histone proteins and in microRNA

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 35 of 47

1

Autoimmune disease is an example of how:

Select one of the following:

  • important functional MHC markers are

  • the body's system need to work in union

  • a role for environmental factors contributing to disease development. Interplay between genetic and environmental factors may predispose and progress autoimmune diseases

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 36 of 47

1

Histone modification is important as:

Select one of the following:

  • The winding of DNA has at least two functions: It is a very efficient way to switch on and off genes, depending on their geometric location, allowing access of transcriptional factors to promoter regions on the genes .

  • Any changes in the packing of the DNA can lead to changes in accessibility of different genes for transcription…and therefore gene function .

  • Histones dictate chromsome formation

  • A and B

Explanation

Question 37 of 47

1

Allantois , amniotic sac and Chorion develop from the outer cell mass of the embryro, meaning:

Select one of the following:

  • Umbilical cord; amniotic sac surronded by the membrane that evetualy becomes the placenta

  • the inner cell mass forms the featus: The  top  layer  (ectoderm)   becomes  the  nervous  system,  the   nails,  teeth,  inner  ears,  lens  of  the   eyes  and  outer  layer  of  skin  
    The  middle  layer  (mesoderm)   becomes  the  bones,  muscles,   circulatory  system,  inner  layers  of   skin  and  other  internal  organs
    The  bottom  layer  (endoderm)   develops  into  the  diges:ve  tract,   lungs,  urinary  tract  and  glands
    One  end  of  the  neural tube   will  swell  and  develop  into   the  brain,  and  the  rest  will   become  the  spinal  cord     

  • A and B

  • The featus has a developmental problem

Explanation

Question 38 of 47

1

Egg from ovary into Fallopian tube, send signal to sperm. Sperm must pick right tube via V and uterus. This is the process of

Select one of the following:

  • zygote fertilisation

  • gamate production

  • gamate fertilisation

  • embryo development

Explanation

Question 39 of 47

1

Implantation of the blastocyst (0-14 days) involves:

Select one of the following:

  • The connection of egg and sperm

  • Another name for conception

  • reaches  the  uterine  wall,   these  tendrils  burrow  inward,  tapping  the   woman’s  blood  supply.¾  of  zygotes  fail  to  survive   this  ini:al  phase  of   development .

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 40 of 47

1

Teratogens  are  

Select one of the following:

  • Teratogens  are  external  environmental  agents  that  can   cause  damage  or  death  during  the  prenatal  period   •  Many  teratogens  only  cause  an  effect  if  the  fetus  is   exposed  to  it  in  a  par:cular  developmental  period,  called   a  sensi<ve  period

  • A form of regulatr gene

  • A sum of polygenetic changes

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 41 of 47

1

Glial cells play a major role in communication within the brain by

Select one of the following:

  • influencing the formation and strengthening of synapses
    – Producing myelin, that helps neurons conduct electrical messages along the neural network
    – communicating among themselves in a network separate from the neural network

  • increasing thier rate of mitosis

  • interfering synatpic clefts

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 42 of 47

1

Apart from Shwann cells, there are:

Select one of the following:

  • Microglia – Serve as the immune system in the brain
    • NG2+ cells
    – Precursor cells to oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, and neurons

  • Oligodendrocytes
    – Wraps tips around the axons of neurons and extrudes myelin, creating sheaths that help speed conduction of electrical activity along the axon
    – Myelin is the “white matter” of the brain

  • Astrocytes
    – Most common of the glial cells
    – Mop up excess neurotransmitters emitted from synapses
    – Feed neurons by supplying nutrients and neurotransmitter precursors
    – Control where and when neurons will make new synapses

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 43 of 47

1

Which process described neurogensis correctly:

Select one of the following:

  • The brain starts to develop in weeks 2 and 3, with the folding and fusion of the ectoderm to form the neural tube
    7weeks, signal is received so that two different cells are produced as they divide – another progenitor cell and a brain cell
    The first brain cells are radial glia. They have their body in the ventricular zone and they extend fibres radially outwards. These radial glia have cup-like feet in the ventricular zone and the fibres extend to the pia mater, located at the outer surface of the future cerebral cortex

    C-R cells establish themselves in a layer beneath the pia mater . A second set of neurons form a layer beneath the CR cells, and these neurons constitute the first of 6 layers of the cerebral cortex. The cells leave the ventricular zone, pass the first layers of neurons, and establish themselves just inside the layer of C-R cells. The radial glial cells guide the newborn neurons

  • formation of synapse connections between neurons
    proceeds rapidly during the brain growth spurt. The net number of synapses begins to decrease at puberty. If neurons are not used, then they will die via the process known as apoptosis and their connections with other neurons will die – this process is called synaptic pruning. Neurons and their synapses that receive the most stimulation continue to function. Neurons that are not properly stimulated will die

  • The first process describes neurogensis, the second Synaptogenesis

Explanation

Question 44 of 47

1

Chi square is the minimum possible value for the observed and expected data to be similiar due to association, not chance. This means:

Select one of the following:

  • None of the below

  • Probability of the expected and observed data being the same is higher than 0.05= chance. If lower than 0.05, there is a causal association

  • Probability of the expected and observed data being the same is lower than 0.05= chance. If higher than 0.05, there is a causal association

  • Probability of the expected and observed data being the same is higher than 0.05= chance. the two variables are casually associated

Explanation

Question 45 of 47

1

If the chi-square is .... enough, then we can say that the two variables are associated

Select one of the following:

  • If the chi-square is large enough, then we can say that the two variables are associated

  • If the chi-square is small enough, then we can say that the two variables are associated

  • If the chi-square is similiar enough to the probability, then we can say that the two variables are associated

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 46 of 47

1

chi-square statistic estimates

Select one of the following:

  • chi-square statistic estimates the difference between the observed data and what would be expected if the two variables were dependant

  • chi-square statistic estimates the difference between the observed data and what would be expected if the two variables were independent

  • chi-square statistic estimates the difference between the observed data and what would be expected if the two variables were associated

  • chi-square statistic estimates the difference between the observed data and what would be expected if the two variables were not associated

Explanation

Question 47 of 47

1

Adjusted, standardised residuals are residuals that are standardised so they are equivalent to a z-score in a normal distribution. Meaning...

Select one of the following:

  • We can allow a certain amount of error, and agree that a score greater than 1.96 (positive or negative) is a insignificant effect

  • We can allow a certain amount of deviation, and agree that a score greater than 1.96% (positive or negative) is a significant effect

  • We can allow a certain amount of error, and agree that a score greater than 1.96 (positive or negative) is a significant effect

  • none of the above

Explanation

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