This is a timed quiz.
You have 1 hour 40 minutes to complete the 100 questions in this quiz.
The process of converting the……............. in fuel into ……………. Takes place in the cylinder of reciprocating engine.
Mechanical energy – chemical energy.
Chemical energy – mechanical energy.
Thermal energy – chemical energy.
Kinetic energy – potential energy.
An air/fuel ratio of 18:1 would be considered as:
Lean
Rich
Chemically correct.
Critically solvent.
For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:
A rich fuel/air mixture.
The circulation of lubricating oil.
A properly functioning thermostat.
A lean fuel/air mixture.
The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order of their occurrence:
Intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust.
Intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust.
Intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust.
Intake, ignition, power, compression, exhaust.
One of the advantages of VOR against NDB is:
Interference - free
more distance coverage
line of sight
B & C are correct
Depending on altitude and line of sight, you can use DME facility:
up to 130 NM
up to 45 NM
up to 199 NM
up to 100 NM
The magnetic heading is 350° and the relative bearing to a radio beacon is 240° what would be the magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon?
050 °
230 °
295 °
320 °
For minimizing the night effect you should:
Use strong power station
Select NDBs with frequency less than 350 MHz.
Fly at higher altitude.
Fly at lower altitude.
Each dot on the scale of CDI deviation represents:
1 degree off course
2 degree off course
3 degree off course
4 degree off course
When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?
5-10
10-12
15-18
18-20
Below 18,000 ft AGL, what is the maximum reception distance of HVOR?
25 NM
40 NM
130 NM
100 NM
Dual VORs (units independent of each other except the antenna) are installed in an aircraft. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indications when one VOR receiver is checked against the other?
Four degrees in flight and six degrees on the ground
Four degrees on the ground and in flight
Six degrees in flight and on the ground
Six degrees in flight and four degrees on the ground
The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the:
Thrust is acting in different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
Use of aileron has increased the drag.
To stop the overbanking tendency as the result of turning.
What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
Increase the camber of the wing.
Reduce speed by increasing drag.
Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
Increase lift and drag simultaneously.
An airplane said to be inherently stable will:
Not spin.
Be difficult to stall.
Require less effort to control.
Not overbanking tendency during steep turns.
The capability of an airplane to respond to the pilot's inputs, especially with regard to flight path and attitude, is:
Stability
Controllability
Maneuverability
None of above.
All stalls in airplane are caused by:
A loss of airspeed.
Exceeding the critical angle of pitch.
Exceeding the critical angle of attack.
Misuse of the elevators.
If two aircraft are turning at the same angle of bank the slower aircraft:
Has a greater turning radius and greater rate of turn.
Has a smaller turning radius and smaller rate of turn.
Has a smaller turning radius and greater rate of turn.
Has a greater turning radius and smaller rate of turn.
Which of the following is correct?
A wing always stalls at the same angle of attack.
A wing may stalls in different attitudes.
A wing can stalls at different airspeeds.
All answers are correct.
An accumulation of frost on the airplane wings will result in:
An increase in lift and drag.
A decrease in lift and increase in drag.
An increase in lift and a decrease drag.
A decrease in lift and drag.
Which of the following components is most important in determining longitudinal static stability?
Fuselage
Wings
Engines
Horizontal tailplane.
When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from takeoff position to fully down position, one will experience:
A large increase in lift and a small increase in drag.
A large increase in lift and a large increase in drag.
A small increase in lift and a small increase in drag.
A small increase in lift and a large increase in drag.
In a level banked turn, the stalling speed will:
Decrease
Increase
Remain the same.
Vary inversely with wing loading.
The purpose of streamlining is:
To reduce form drag.
To reduce induced drag.
To increase lift.
To reduce skin friction drag.
Which location on aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag?
Wing root junction.
Engine cowling.
Wingtip
Landing gear.
If pressure is kept constant and temperature increases, the density will:
Increases
Decreases
Remains constant.
Has no effect.
A wing has a mean chord of 6 meters and a span of 30 meters. The aspect ratio is: .
5 to 1.
30 to 1.
180 to 1.
6 to 1.
Every physical process of weather is the result of:
The movement of air
A pressure differential
A heat exchange
Moisture
Where “St. Elmo’s fire” is usually encountered?
In dry air
While penetrating a warm front
Along coastal areas in clean air
In the vicinity of thunderstorms while in precipitation
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
Cloud coverage increases
Precipitation increases
Abrupt temperature change
Change in wind direction
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A warm moist air mass on the windward side of mountains
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
Warm moist air setting over a warmer surface under no wind conditions
The cloud type associated with the most severe turbulence is:
Cumulus
Cumulonimbus
Altocumulus
Standing lenticular altocumulus
A narrow band of non-frontal thunderstorms that often develops ahead of a fast-moving cold front is known as
Squall line
An occluded front
A steady state thunderstorm
Convective current
In mountain wave turbulence may be marked by …………… clouds:
Rotor cloud
Altocumulus standing lenticular
Towering cumulus
Cap cloud
If the temperature is 55°F and slowly decreasing and the dew point is 51°F what type of weather should you expect?
Frost
Rain showers
Thunderstorms
Fog or low clouds
Which of the following clouds produces severe turbulence?
CB
TCU
Rotor
Roll cloud
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?
It is higher in winter than in summer.
It decreases with height.
It is higher at night than during the day.
It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 Hpa per 8 m.
The Payload is defined as:
The Total Mass of flight crew, passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
The Total Mass of crew and passengers excluding any baggage or cargo.
The Total Mass of passengers, baggage and cargo.
The Total Mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
Define the Useful Load:
Pay Load plus basic empty weight.
Pay Load plus Usable Fuel.
Basic empty weight plus Usable Fuel Load.
That part of the pay Load which generates revenue.
What is the new CG location, if 172 pounds of weight are removed from St. 198"? Airplane gross weight 4200 lbs CG Prior to shift st. 95"
90.6"
100.0"
193.8"
93.8"
What load must be shifted from station 160.0" to station 70.0" to shift CG 0.5 inch forward? Total weight 7400 lbs CG location station 89.0"
41.1 pounds
52.1 pounds
97.4 pounds
61.1 pounds
Takeoff Mass is described as:
The Takeoff Mass subject to departure airfield limitations.
The mass of an aeroplane including everything and everyone contained within it at the start of the takeoff run.
Basic empty weight & fuel but without Payload.
The lowest of performance limited and structural limited TOW.
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
15.7 gallons
16.2 gallons
17.1 gallons
18.4 gallons
The value of variation:
Is zero at the mid-latitude.
Has a maximum value of 180°.
Has a maximum value of 45°E or 45°W.
Cannot exceed 90°.
An Isogonic is a line:
Running through all positions having the same magnetic Inclination.
Running through all positions having the same magnetic longitude.
On the surface of the Earth, running through all positions having the same magnetic latitude.
Running through all positions having the same variation.
Precession in a gyroscope is:
The tendency it has to remain in its plane of rotation.
A caging device.
The angular limits to which the gimbals may travel before the gyro topples and the indication becomes useless.
The reaction at 90° in direction of rotation caused by a applied force to the spinning wheel.
With constant weight and configuration and regardless of an altitude an aircraft always takes off at the same:
Indicated airspeed.
Ground speed
True airspeed.
Equivalent airspeed
If the static intakes are completely clogged up by ice during a climb the VSI shows:
A descent if the outside static pressure is less than the pressure in the VSI gauge.
Zero
A constant rate of climb, even if the aircraft is leveling out.
An increasing rate of climb if the ambient static pressure decreases.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system becomes blocked, the indicated airspeed will generally:
Vary excessively during level flight when the actual airspeed is varied.
Decrease during climbs.
Not change during level flight
Increase during descends.
Compass acceleration and deceleration error is maximum at:
North and south.
East and west.
North and we
East and south.
If a suction gage indicates the pressure to be lower than the minimum limit, which of these air operated instruments would be?
Vertical velocity indicator.
Airspeed indicator.
Pressure altimeter.
Attitude indicator.
Slip is ........
Rate of turn is too slow for bank angle
Rate of turn is too great for bank angle
Ball is in opposite direction of turn
The acceptable altimeter error must be within range of ……. To check altimeter before flight:
± 75m
±75 ft
±25 m
±25 ft
What is the immediate indication of VVI about change in pressure?
Rate
Trend
Trend after 6 to 9 sec
RPM
What would be the TAS when altitude increase or temperature increase?
ncrease
Decrease first then increase
Remain constant
What is the time for heading indicator reset against compass during straight and level unaccelerated flight?
Every 20 minutes.
Every 15 minutes
Every 10 minutes.
Reset is not required in this case.
Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?
The Nervous System.
The Circulatory System.
The Respiratory System.
The Oxidation System.
One of the most common types of spatial disorientation occurs when a rapid correction as made to a bank which may cause to reenter to the original attitude, is:
Coriolis illusion.
Graveyard spiral.
Leans
Somatogravic illusion.
Whenever you are replenishing an aircraft’s oxygen system, always use …………………….. oxygen.
Environmental
Medical breathing.
Aviator's breathing.
When making an approach to a narrower than usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach:
Altitude may be higher than it appears.
Altitude may be lower than it appears.
May result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
May result in shallower approach and long landing.
Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of:
Pitching up.
Pitching down.
Leveling off.
Turning
Breathing large amounts of carbon monoxide can result in:
A warm sensation.
Loss of muscle power.
An increased sense of well-being.
Tightness across the forehead and neck.
When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the:
Proprioceptive sensitivity.
Cochlea
Sense of balance.
Vision
Anxiety and fear can cause:
Spatial disorientation
Hyperventilation
Hypoxia
Hypoglycemia
Given: Pressure Altitude: 28,000 ft Outside Air Temperature: -30°C Calibrated Altitude: 27,800 ft Find True Altitude.
29,800 ft
29,000 ft
27,800 ft
27,000 ft
Given: True Track: 352° Variation: 11° W Deviation: -5° Drift: 10° R What is the compass heading?
078°
346°
358°
025°
During a night flight, you see a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead, the other aircraft is:
Crossing from right to left.
Crossing from left to right.
Approaching head on.
Headed away from you.
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to:
Look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
Scan the visual field very rapidly.
Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.
Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-o’clock position.
Selection of mode C on the SSR provides ATC with information based on:
Aircraft height above the QFE.
Aircraft altitude as indicated in the captain’s altimeter.
Aircraft pressure altitude.
Aircraft position only.
A mode S transponder will:
Not respond to interrogations made on mode A.
Respond normally to mode A or C interrogations.
Respond to mode A interrogation but not mode C.
Respond to mode C interrogations but not mode A.
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport?
Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
Make all turns to the left.
Comply with any ICAO traffic pattern established for the airport.
Make all turns to the right.
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity (Pilot Controlled Lighting System), the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it:
One time within four seconds.
Three times within three seconds.
Five times within five seconds.
Seven times within five seconds.
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
Denotes intersecting runways.
A & B are correct.
Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are:
White
Gray
Yellow
Red
The “stop way” is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of takeoff run available prepared as a suitable area where:
A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff.
An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
What does the word “CANCEL” mean?
Wait and I will call you.
A change has been made to your last clearance.
Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
Consider that transmission as not sent.
You obtain a clearance to descend to an altitude of 2500 feet, the clearance should also include the following pressure setting or settings:
QFE
QNH
QFE or QNH
QNE
What does the phrase "BREAKBREAK" mean?
The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.
My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
A message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE" shall be transmitted:
On the regional guard frequency.
On the frequency presently in use.
On the international emergency frequency.
On all available aeronautical stations.
Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot is performing a missed approach?
Pulling up.
Overshooting
Will make another approach.
Going around
Where the "SELCAL" should be submitted?
operational flight plan
operating manual
departure message
ATS flight plan
For which of the following phrases,"ROGER" is used?
READ BACK
AFFIRM
NEGATIVE
None
The standard of noise certification is contained in?
Annex 18
Annex 16 Vol I
Annex 16 Vol II
Annex 8
All aeroplane on all flights shall carry:
Interception procedures
Flight manual
Current suitable chart
All answers are correct
The instruments and equipment, including their installation in aeroplanes shall be approved or accepted by:
State of Operator
Operator
State
State of Registry
Who is responsible to approve and publish an Instrument approach procedure?
State of the operator
ATC
State of the aerodrome
If the incident occurs and necessitates to report by Pilot-in-command it shall be made normally within:
10 days
90 days
1 month
3 months
In a forecast what does the code "GR" stand for?
Severe icing
Thunderstorm in vicinity and light rain showers
Hail
Embedded thunderstorm with hail
What is the validity of TAF when it issues every 3 hours?
Less than 9 hours
Less than 12 hours
Less than 24 hours
Less than 30 hours
What does the code "VV002" in METAR mean?
Vertical visibility is 200 ft.
Vertical visibility is 200 m.
Vertical visibility is 20 ft.
Vertical visibility is 20 m.
What does the term METAR signify?
A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly or hourly intervals.
A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.
Anti-collision and navigation light shall be displayed on aircraft during:
Sunset to sunrise
Sunrise to sunset
Any other time prescribed by appropriate ATS authority
A and C are correct
Which signal may be initiated by, an intercepted aircraft which is in distress?
Irregular flashing landing lights
Irregular flashing navigation lights
Regular flashing all lights
Irregular flashing all available lights
When an aircraft flying on a route with magnetic track of 315 what shall be its assign flight level (non RVSM airspace)?
310
320
330
340
Which one is not correct?
An aircraft that is aware that another aircraft is approaching to land, shall give way to that aircraft.
An aircraft taxiing on maneuvering area of an aerodrome, shall give way to aircraft taking-off.
An aircraft in flight or operating on the ground shall give way to aircraft on final stage.
An aircraft with medium category shall give way to heavy category aircraft.
Who is the appropriate authority regarding flight over other than the high seas?
State of operator
State of registry
State of occurrence
State of territory being overflown
For which type of operation, the advisory service may be provided?
Controlled IFR
SVFR
CVFR
IFR
How does a decreased pressure altitude at an airport affect airplane performance?
Increased landing distance.
Increased takeoff distance required.
Decreased takeoff distance required.
Increased takeoff run.
For a piston-engine airplane at a constant altitude, angle of attack and configuration, an increased weight will require:
More power but less speed.
More power and the same speed.
More power and more speed.
The same power but more speed.
If tailwind is …… takeoff speed the takeoff distance will increase by …… .
10%-19%
14%-21%
7%-19%
10%-21%