This is a timed quiz.
You have 1 hour 40 minutes to complete the 100 questions in this quiz.
The color of AIP supplement paper is................
Blue
Pink
Red
Yellow
In which chart you can find transition altitude?
Instrument approach
SID
STAR
All answers are correct
If the pilot is not able to make start up by first clearance:
May request another one during the validity of the flight plan.
Can make two more requests.
Is not allowing to request startup.
Shall cancel the flight plan.
Which statement is correct about Vx?
Max altitude gains at short distance.
Increase by altitude increase for piston engine aircraft.
Best angle of climb speed.
All answers are correct.
What is the takeoff distance for piston engine aircraft? Distance between starting point and LOF point = 2000’ Distance between LOF point and 50’ height = 500’
2000’
3000'
500'
2500'
To maintain climb airspeed following an increase in temperature the rate of climb is:
Reduced
Increase
Remain unchanged.
Unaffected
Compared to (Vx and Vy) at lower mass, (Vx and Vy) at higher mass will be:
Lower
Same
Higher
Vx higher and Vy lower.
f the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
No
Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft.
Yes
Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground.
Approach control service is provided for:
All arriving and departing controlled flights.
All arriving IFR traffic.
Traffic within the CTA.
All VFR traffic.
What is the purpose of ACAS?
Provide traffic and resolution advisory to pilot
Provide advice to ATC
Provide weather information
Receive information by ADS
Movement of helicopter/VTOL above the surface of an aerodrome is normally at a ground speed .................. .
More than 20Kt
20Kt
Less than 20Kt
37Km
An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall stop and hold at:
All runway holding positions.
At lighted stop bars.
All marking areas.
A and B are correct.
When operating under visual flight rules in class D airspace at altitudes above 10000 feet AMSL, you must maintain a vertical distance of at least ………. from clouds.
1500 feet
300 feet
1000 feet
1000 meters
What is the minimum clearance of Iranian ATS routes above the highest obstacle within the area concerned?
2000 ft.
1500 ft.
1500 M
2500 ft.
The lowest flight level for VFR is:
200
35
45
50
IMC is a meteorological condition....................
Equal to VMC
Less than minima for VMC
More than minima for VMC
B and C are correct
Steady red signal to an aircraft on the ground means:
Cleared to taxi.
Cleared for take-off.
STOP
Return for landing.
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG=
24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 BR =
15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =
What does the METAR code "R24R/P1500" mean?
Snow clearance in progress on RUNWAY 24-Right, use runway length 1500 meters.
RVR RUNWAY 24-Right is below 1500 meters.
RVR RUNWAY 24-Right is above 1500 meters.
RVR RUNWAY 24-Right is 1500 meters.
The variable wind for wind direction is express when wind direction change …….... within last 10 min before observing weather.
30° or more
45° or more
60° or more
50° or more
Refer to METAR "OIII 151500Z 26010KT 0800 SN SCT035CB BKN100 00/M02 Q1015 A2988" what is the height of ceiling?
1,000 ft.
100 ft.
3,500 ft.
10,000 ft.
The acronym of an automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft is called:
ELT (AP)
ELT (AF)
ELT (AD)
ELT (S)
The amount of fuel required for VFR at day to the aerodrome of intended landing is:
Departure to Destination + at least 30 minutes at normal cruising altitude
Departure to Destination + at least 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude
Departure to Destination + 45 minutes
Departure to Destination + 30 minutes
If a flight crew member capacity is reduced due to lack of oxygen, what is the responsibility of pilot in command?
Continue to destination
Not continue beyond nearest suitable aerodrome
Continue to en-route alternate
Back to departure
A Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) of 300 m (1,000 ft) is applied:
Between FL290 and FL410
Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive
Between FL290 and FL410 exclusive
Above FL290
Who is authorized to change the aircraft radiotelephony call sign temporarily?
Pilot-in-Command
Operator
ATC unit
Dispatcher
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "I WOULD LIKE TO KNOW "or "I WISH TO OBTAIN"?
Confirm
Report
Acknowledge
Request
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee EP-ABC is correct?
Cherokee E-BC
Cherokee EP-BC
Cherokee BC
Cherokee E-ABC
What is the transponder code for radio communication failure?
7200
7600
7500
7700
What does H24 mean?
Continuously operation
Sunrise to Sunset.
Available 24 hours a day by prior notice only.
Aircraft handling available 24 hours a day.
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 ft when indicating an altitude?
Three five double zero.
Three five zero zero.
Three five hundred.
Three thousand five hundred.
The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:
008° and 026° magnetic.
080° and 260° true.
080° and 260° magnetic.
008° and 026° true.
An airport‘s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates:
There are obstructions on the airport.
That weather at the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
The Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
The approach and landing operation can be made in VMC.
What is the purpose of the taxiway/runway hold position sign?
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
Denotes intersecting runways.
Denotes intersecting taxiways.
The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains:
Four modes, each 1024 codes.
Two modes, each of 4096 codes.
Four modes, each 4096 codes.
Three modes, each 4096 codes.
When a mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded and transmitted. This vertical position is referred to:
The sub-scale of the altimeter.
Area QNH
1013.2 hPa.
Area QFE.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use.
Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12 o’clock positions.
A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector off center viewing.
Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.
A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements not exceed 10-degree sector that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.
You are required to uplift 40 US Gallons of AVGAS with specific gravity of 0.72. How many liters and kilograms is this?
109 liters, 151 kg.
182 liters, 131 kg.
182 liters, 289 kg.
151 liters, 109 kg.
A descent is planned from FL340 so as to arrive at FL100 at a distance 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a G/S of 280 kts and a rate of descent of 1200 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
65 NM
99 NM
27 NM
93 NM
Given: P.A: 10,000 ft / OAT: -20 °C / Calibrated Altitude: 12,000 ft / Altitude of ground station: 5,400 ft , Find True Altitude:
9,000 ft
10,000 ft
11,300 ft
12,500 ft
Given: P.A: 40,000 ft / Indicated Air Temperature: -10°C / Calibrated Air Speed: 350 kts , Find True Air Speed:
624
525
425
725
- If the maximum allowable crosswind component for a given aeroplane is 20 Kts and the reported surface wind is 210°/30 Kts . Is it possible to land on RWY 16L?
Given True course: 327° TAS: 520kts / W/V: 250° (T)/90 kts / Calculate the true heading and ground speed.
317°,492 kts
186°,444 kts
123°,420 kts
325°,370 kts
Given: P.A & Calibrated Alt.: 10,000 ft / OAT: +15° C , What is true altitude?
9,260 ft
10,750 ft
8,480 ft
11,830 ft
What is the pressure altitude, if outside air temperature is – 36 °C and density altitude equals 31,000 ft?
32,000 ft
33,000 ft
30,000 ft
29,000 ft
Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
Air pressure increases.
Altitude decreases.
Altitude increases.
Relative humidity decreases.
The effect of hypoxia to vision:
Can only be detected when smoking tobacco.
Is usual stronger on the cones
Is stronger on the rods.
Does not depend on the level of illumination.
A condition where there is insufficient oxygen in your body because there is not enough oxygen in the air is referred to as:
Anemic hypoxia.
Hypoxic hypoxia.
Hyperventilation
Carbon monoxide poisoning.
Signs of stress include:
Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
Lowering of the blood pressure.
Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
High
Low
Shallow
None of above.
If you look directly at an object at night, you will see it?
Less clearly because there are no as many cones as rods.
Less clearly because the fovea is a night blind spot.
More clearly because it is focused in the fovea.
More clearly because rods see better in the dark.
After consuming alcohol heart rate and blood pressure may …………….. while ……………… your central nervous system.
Decrease - depressing
Decrease - stimulating
Increase – depressing
Increase - stimulating
When the pressure altitude is lower than true altitude:
Altimeter setting and temperature above than standard
Altimeter setting or temperature below than standard
Altimeter setting or temperature above than standard
Altimeter setting and temperature below than standard
Which instrument show how fast the ambient pressure increase or decrease?
Altimeter
Airspeed indicator
VVI
A & B & C are correct
What is the change in airspeed indicator when static port be clogged but Pitot tube be open?
Increase during descend
Increase during ascend
Decrease during descend
Drop to zero
What information sense by turn coordinator?
roll-yaw
yaw-bank
Bank & roll
roll & pitch
Which of the following airspeeds is identified by color coding on an airspeed indicator?
The maximum gear operating or extended speed.
The maximum structural cruising speed.
The maximum maneuvering cruising speed.
The stalling speed for all altitudes and configurations.
When an altimeter setting is not available at a departure airport, the sensitive altimeter should be set to indicate:
The elevation of the departure airport corrected to mean sea level.
Pressure altitude corrected nonstandard temperature.
The elevation of the departure airport.
29.92" hg.
Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a:
Temperature altitude.
Density altitude.
Pressure altitude.
True altitude in flight.
If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air mass into colder air:
IAS increases.
TAS increases.
TAS decreases
IAS decreases.
A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon: 1) Bank angle 2) Airplane speed 3) Airplane weight The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
2,3
1,2,3
1,2
1,3
What is the value of magnetic dip at the south magnetic pole?
360°
180°
90°
0°
The "Useful Load" is:
TOW - fuel mass.
BEW plus fuel load.
Basic empty weight plus Usable Fuel Load.
Ramp weight minus Dry Operating Mass.
By adding the payload to the Dry operating weight, we get:
Ramp weight.
Takeoff weight.
Zero fuel weight.
Landing weight.
What can be said about the temperature in the lower stratosphere?
The temperature is constant.
The temperature is increasing.
The temperature is decreasing.
The temperature is first increasing and then decreasing.
A vertical separation of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two flight level Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
More than 1000 ft.
It remains 1000 ft.
Less than 1000 ft.
Without QNH information, it cannot be determined.
Which statement is correct concerning wind direction in the northern hemisphere?
Friction deflects the wind toward areas of higher pressure.
Wind always flows directly from areas of high to areas of low pressure.
Wind flows clockwise around high pressure areas and counterclockwise around low pressure areas.
Wind flows clockwise around low pressure areas and counterclockwise around high pressure areas.
What types of clouds precipitation and visibility are usually associated with unstable air?
Layered clouds shower and poor visibility
Cumuliform clouds, rain showers and poor visibility
Continuous precipitation and poor visibility
Cumuliform clouds rain showers and good visibility outside of shower areas
Steady rain preceding a front is an indication of:
A broad area of frontal discontinuity
Cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
A rapidly approaching cold front with cumuliform type clouds
An approaching warm front with associated stratus and little or no turbulence
Nimbostratus a gray or dark massive cloud layer, belongs to which family of clouds?
High clouds
Middle clouds
Low clouds
Clouds with extensive vertical development
What is the embedded thunderstorms?
Thunderstorms have been visually sighted
Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line
Thunderstorms are predicated to develop in stable air mass
Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Roll cloud
Continuous updraft
Frequent lightning
Beginning of rain at the surface
Which of the following would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming from below
Cooling from below
Decrease in water vapor
Sinking of the air mass
A wing is said to be tapered if:
It is inclined upwards from root to tip.
The chord at the wingtip is less than the chord at the root.
The incidence at the tip is less than at the root.
The camber is increased at the wingtip.
As air flows into the converging section of a venturi:
Static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow decreases.
Static pressure increases, velocity decreases, mass flow is constant.
Static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow is constant
Static pressure decreases, velocity decreases, mass flow decreases.
The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
Parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
Parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
Induced drag is equal to zero.
Induced drag is lowest.
What effect on induced drag does entering ground effect have?
Decrease
Remain the same.
Induced drag will increase, but profile drag will decrease.
Indicated stalling speed ……………. with varying temperature.
Varies
Remains constant
Decreases
The effects of CG position on longitudinal static stability and control response will be:
Forward movement of the CG will reduce stability and increase control response.
Forward movement of the CG will reduce control response and increase stability.
Rearward movement of the CG will increase stability and reduce control response.
Rearward movement of the CG will reduce stability and control response.
Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:
Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
Force produced perpendicular to the relative wind.
Reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air over a curved surface and acting perpendicular to the mean surface.
Partial vacuum produced on top of the wing.
For a certain amount of lift to be created:
There are only one certain airspeed and one certain angle of attack.
There are different combination of airspeed and angle of attack.
There is one certain airspeed.
There is one certain angle of attack.
The most efficient type of flap is the:
Fowler flap.
Slotted flap.
Split flap.
Plain flap.
What should the pilot do to increase rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius of turn?
Shallow the bank and decrease airspeed.
Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
If an increase in power tends to make the nose of the aircraft rise, this is the result of the:
Thrust line being below the center of gravity.
Center of lift being ahead of the center of gravity.
Center of lift and center of gravity being collocated.
Center of gravity being ahead of the center of lift.
Which of the following is considered as primary flight control?
Elevator
Dorsal fin.
Slats
Spoilers
During skidding turn to the right what is relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force and load factor?
Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is decreased.
VOR operates in................... and on Frequency between...................
UHF - 108.00 through 117.95 MHz
UHF - 108.00 through 117.95 kHz
VHF - 108.00 through 117.95 MHz
VHF - 108.00 through 117.95 kHz
Civil aircraft can use TACAN facility, just by using it's:
Distance
Direction
A+B
Heading
If the magnetic bearing changes from 090° to 100° in 2.5 minutes elapsed time, the time to the station would be:
12 minutes.
15 minutes.
18minutes.
22 minutes
When flying on a radial to the station the positive identification of station passage is by:
Fluctuating of CDI.
Changing TO/FROM flag.
OFF flag indication.
Flying in the vicinity of CB clouds and using ADF:
The ANT position of the function switch should be used when listening for NDB identification.
Strong static emitted from the CB may cause the ADF needle to deflect towards the CB.
The static emitted from the CB will fade soon after you have passed it.
What is the minimum lateral distance to intercept R-060° when an aircraft flying on R-052° and DME indicator shows 60NM to station?
6 NM
7 NM
8 NM
9 NM
Specific fuel consumption for piston engine aircraft is defined as the:
Designed fuel consumption for a given RPM.
Mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.
Quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.
Maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor, the low temperature that causes carburetor ice is normally the result of:
Compression of air at the carburetor venture.
Low volatility of aviation fuel.
Vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburetor.
Freezing temperature of the air entering the carburetor.
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is:
Enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.
Weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
Prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
Correct for variations in the fuel air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
Why is it considered good practice to fill the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day?
To force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines.
To prevent moisture from condensing by eliminating air from the tanks.
To prevent expansion of fuel by eliminating air from the tanks.
A & C are correct.
The use of carburetor heat:
Enriches the Fuel/air mixture because the heated air is denser than the outside air that had been entering the cylinder.
Enriches the Fuel/air mixture because the heated air is less dense than the outside air that had been entering the cylinder.
Will not enrich the fuel/air mixture.
The fuel/air mixture to become leaner.
An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
Control the carburetor inlet air flow.
Control the cylinder head temperature.
Assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.
Control the fuel temperature.
Vortices from large aircraft in flight sink at a rate of about:
200 to 300 feet per minute.
300 to 400 feet per minute.
400 to 500 feet per minute.
900 to 1000 feet per minute.
What is the characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?
Best angle of climb.
Maximum range and maximum glide distance.
Maximum endurance.