The major components of an emotional response include:
Feelings and behaviour
Behaviour and moods
Hormonal secretions and cognition
Behavioural and physiological components
The autonomic component of an emotional response functions to:
Mobilise energy for vigorous movement
Restore physiological balance after an emotional experience
Promote digestion of nutrients
Facilitate healing of damaged tissue
The neural systems that comprise fear are integrated by neurons within the:
Hypothalamus
Amygdala
Ventromedial prefrontal cortex
Thalamus
Activation of the _______ nucleus of the _______ elicits an emotional response:
Lateral; Amygdala
Central; Amygdala
Medial; Hypothalamus
Central; Hypothalamus
The expression of an emotional response is inhibited by the input of the:
Lateral amygdala
Central amygdala
Which drug would be expected to inhibit aggression:
Haloperidol
Cocaine
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Amphetamine
A human male who has a long record of assault, arson and murder, would be expected to show __________ levels of ___________ in his cerebrospinal fluid:
elevated; 5-HIAA
reduced; 5-HIAA
elevated; GABA
reduced; GABA
Phineas Gage, who was injured when a steel rod was accidentally driven through his skull, exhibited impulsive, emotional behavior as a result of widespread damage to his:
Occipital Cortex
Cingulate Cortex
Which of the following is a moral dilemma:
Changing the ingredients of a recipe
Throwing another person into a grenade to save many others
Walking away from a fight
Watching someone else throw another person into a grenade to save many others
Elevated levels of which neurotransmitter inhibits aggression:
Glutamate
GABA
Dopamine
Serotonin
A combination of inadequate activation of the ___________ and enhanced activation of the ____________ may result in excessive anger that results in harm to other people:
Prefrontal cortex; hypothalamus
Prefrontal cortex; amygdala
Amygdala; prefrontal cortex
Hypothalamus; prefrontal cortex
The proposition that facial expressions of emotion are innate is supported by the observation that:
The same facial expression for an emotion is observed in all cultures
Blind children show different facial emotional expressions that sighted children
Some facial expressions are only expressed in adulthood
Facial expression of emotion change over time in a culture
A chimeric face is:
A happy face
A wrinkled face
Created by pasting different facial images to form a single unit
Recognisable when upside-down
The ability to recognise negative emotions expressed by others is most likely to be impaired after damage to:
Right hemisphere
Somatosensory cortex
Cerebellum
Basal Ganglia
According to the James-Lange theory, feelings of emotion are:
Culturally determined responses to stimuli
Produced by feedback from the behaviours and physiological responses caused by emotion-producing situations
Dependent upon the genetic makeup of an individual
Produced by activity within the thalamus in response to sensory cues
Which of the following is true of the sex chromosomes?
Factors coded on the Y chromosome control the development of the male sex glands
The Y chromosome contains the blueprint for the female foetus
The sex chromosomes are the largest among the 23 pairs
The mother donates her Y chromosome to form a male foetus
_____________________ exert(s) a defeminising action during prenatal development:
Testosterone
Anti-Müllerian hormone
Estradiol
Estrogens
The size of the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis is an indicator of:
Prenatal androgenisation
Sexual orientation
Ambivalent sexuality
Gender identity
The key factor that determines whether the undifferentiated gonads develop into testes is:
The SRY gene located on the Y chromosome
The secretion of testosterone from the adrenal glands
The SRY gene located on the X chromosome
The secretion of androgens from the gonads
A pheromone is a:
Chemical located on the tongue that detects sugar
Chemical that is released by one animal that affects the behaviour of another animal
Type of enzyme that deactivates cyclic nucleotides
Chemical that is released in the body that affects the behaviour of the individual that released it
Which of the following is true of pheromone action in humans?
Menstrual cycles are delayed by exposure to human sweat
Women are attracted to the underarm sweat from men
Men prefer the smell of t-shirts worn by women during their fertile phase
Men and women show decreased sexual behaviour after exposure to pheromones
A hormone that promotes the prenatal development of the Woffian system is said to have a(n):
Defeminising effect
Activational effect
Masculinising effect
Feminising effect
The prenatal development of the internal reproductive structures of the female:
Requires the suppression of the Müllerian system by the anti- Müllerian hormone
Requires secretion of estradiol by the pituitary gland
Is caused by secretion of progesterone
Requires no hormone
The genetic sex of a foetus is determined by:
The hormones released by the pituitary gland during foetal development
A single gene on the X chromosome
The gonads
The sex chromosome inherited from the father
The key event that starts sexual maturation at the onset of puberty is that:
The ovaries and testes release gonadotropic hormones
Estradiol and testosterone are released from the hypothalamus
The hypothalamus secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormones
LH and FSH are released from the hypothalamus
Which of the following is known to speed up the onset of female puberty:
Low levels of body fat
High plasma levels of leptin
Malnutrition
High plasma levels of Estradiol
An increased prevalence of homosexuality/bisexuality is noted in:
Women with congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Women with Turner’s Syndrome
Men born during the late winter months to stressed mothers
Men born with congenital adrenal hyperplasia
The key effect of luteinising hormone (LH) is to:
Just prior to menstruation
When estradiol levels are lowest
Just after a surge of testosterone from her adrenal glands
At a point in the menstrual cycle when estradiol levels are highest
A human female is more likely to initiate sexual activity with her partner:
The ________________ would not be considered a human sex organ:
Ovaries
Adrenal gland
Testes
External genitalia
The various stages of sleep are easily distinguished by:
Changes in motor movements
Changes in the electrical activity of the brain
The quality and quantity of dreams
Visible changes in respiration
The transition between wakefulness and sleep is marked by the appearance of which type of EEG waves:
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Theta
You are watching the EEG of a person whose output contains 85% delta wave activity. Your best guess is that this person is:
In stage 4 of slow-wave sleep
Dreaming
Making the transition from wakefulness to sleep
In REM sleep
Typically, humans show which pattern of blood flow and cognitive activity during REM sleep:
Cortical blood flow is reduced during REM sleep as blood is shunted to the genitals
Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary visual cortex
Cerebral blood flow is high in the visual association cortex and low in the prefrontal cortex
Cerebral blood flow is high in the prefrontal cortex
It may be inappropriate to treat insomnia with benzodiazepines because:
Medication withdrawal symptoms can result in increased insomnia
Sleeping medication may lead to daytime hangovers
People with insomnia may be underestimating the amount of time they actually sleep
All of the above are correct
Nightmares that are particularly terrifying occur during:
Stage 1 sleep
Stage 2 sleep
Stage 4 sleep
REM sleep
The first day in a new job that is cognitively demanding and which involves the development of new skills, would be expected to:
Produce insomnia
Reduce the amplitude of delta activity in the frontal lobes
Increase the need for REM sleep
Increase the amount of time spent that night spent in slow-wave sleep
A build up of carbon dioxide in the blood is characteristic of the sleep disorder known as:
Narcolepsy
Sleep apnoea (apnea)
Somnambulism
Pavor nocturnus
A person who exhibits sudden paralysis may be suffering from:
A sleep attack
Hynagogic hallucinations
An episode of cataplexy
Human narcolepsy:
Can be treated by using sleep-inducing drugs
Is caused by an absence of orexin in most people with narcolepsy
Involves the intrusion of slow-wave sleep components into the awake state
Is caused by an absence of dopamine in most people with narcolepsy
The occurrence of SLEEP ATTACKS in narcolepsy can be alleviated by drugs that:
Impair the release of orexin in the brain
Block hypocretin 2 receptors in the hypothalamus
Act as catecholamine agonists
Alleviated the symptoms of depression
Weight gain is a common outcome for a person suffering from:
Sleep-related eating disorder
REM sleep disorder
The primary function of slow-wave sleep is to:
Rest the brain
Promote dreaming
Facilitate brain development
Rest the body
Research has suggested that ___________ sleep is important for ___________
Slow-wave; non-declarative
REM; declarative
Stage 2; declarative
REM; non-declarative
Prolonged sleep deprivation in humans results in:
Impaired concentration
Perceptual illusions
Partial recovery of lost stage 4 sleep
All of the following are positive symptoms of schizophrenia EXCEPT:
Social withdrawal
Auditory hallucinations
Disorganised speech
Visual hallucinations
The negative symptoms of schizophrenia:
Are best illustrated by delusions
Are likely to be caused by excessive brain dopamine activity
Represent the absence of behaviours that are usually present
Are best illustrated by poor abstract thinking
The positive symptoms of schizophrenia may be caused by:
An imbalance of norepinephrine in the brain
A single recessive gene
Excessive activity in forebrain dopamine circuits in the brain
Excessive activity in midbrain dopamine circuits in the brain
The fact that the odds of a child born to two parents, both of whom have schizophrenia, is less than 50% suggests that:
Schizophrenia is associated with infertility
Schizophrenia is not produced by a single gene
Schizophrenia is a metabolic disorder
Schizophrenia is produced by a single dominant gene
Imagine that you have been handed a list of drugs and that beside each drug name is a number that represents the potency of that drug for blocking midbrain dopamine receptors (where a low number means a greater potency at blocking). Which would you choose for the treatment of schizophrenia?:
Potency value = 0.1
Potency value = 0.3
Potency value = 1.0
Potency value = 5.0
Administration of high doses of which of the following drugs would be expected to produce the positive symptoms of schizophrenia:
L-DOPA
Methamphetamine
John has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and has shown improvement in positive symptoms while taking chlorpromazine (CPZ). John may be at risk of his positive symptoms returning if he:
Stops taking CPZ and takes cocaine at a party
Takes double his CPZ does per day
Mixes alcohol with CPZ
Takes reserpine in addition to CPZ
The mesolimbic pathway projects from the ___________ to the __________:
Substantia nigra; caudate
Globus pallidus; ventral tegmental area
Ventral tegmental area; frontal cortex
Ventral tegmental area; nucleus accumbens and amygdala
Clozapine is referred to as an “atypical” antipsychotic drug because it:
Can reverse positive symptoms of schizophrenia without producing tardive dyskinesia
Is more potent at blocking D2 than D4 receptors
Effectively treats schizophrenia but also produces motor side effects
Does not have any effect on dopamine
The negative symptoms of schizophrenia may be related to:
Excessive birth weight
Mild brain damage
Overactivity of dopaminergic neurons
Having an older mother
Which of the following suggests that schizophrenia may be associated with atypical neuroanatomy:
The size of the lateral ventricles increases in people with schizophrenia
The size of the lateral ventricles decreases in people with schizophrenia
Older people, who have already lost substantial numbers of neurons, are more likely to develop schizophrenia than younger people
The neurological symptoms observed in schizophrenia are unique to schizophrenia
The major affective disorders are also known as:
Anxiety disorders
Schizoaffective disorders
Manic-depressive disorders
Mood disorders
_______________ is/are NOT an effective treatment for unipolar depression:
Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine
Sleep deprivation
Lithium salts
Electroconvulsive therapy
The ability of fluoxetine (Prozac) to function as an effective treatment for _____________ is related to its capacity to ____________:
Delusions and hallucinations; block serotonin reuptake
Depression; block serotonin reuptake
Anxiety disorders; inhibit MAO
Obsessive-compulsive disorder; release glycine
A person with ____________ allele(s) of the gene for the _____________ transporter is at risk for depression:
A long and a short; dopamine
Two long; serotonin
Two short; serotonin
Two long; GABA