This is a timed quiz.
You have 1 hour 40 minutes to complete the 100 questions in this quiz.
NOTAM "A" contains information regarding operation of?
International
Domestic
IFR
All answers are correct
Which part of AIP contains the information about "airspace classification"
ENR 3
ENR 1
GEN 3
GEN 1
What is the speed limitation for IFR flights within class "D" airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL?
250 KT IAS.
260 KT IAS.
250 KT TAS.
260 KT TAS.
ICAO personnel licensing rules and regulations are contained in Annex _____ to the Chicago Convention.
17
9
14
1
All flights before entering Iran ADIZ (Tehran FIR) are required to contact the appropriate air defense radar station on ……….…… or ……………, at least 10 minutes prior to entering Tehran FIR.
121.500 MHz – 243.000 MHz
121.000 MHz – 243.000 MHz
127.000 MHz – 135.000 MHz
127.800 MHz – 135.100 MHz
Which statement is not correct about effect of increase weight on an aircraft performance?
Increase service ceiling
Increase Takeoff distance
Decrease climb performance
Decrease acceleration
“Landing distance" is measure from …………... .
35’ height above threshold of landing surface
50’ height above threshold of landing surface
60’ height above threshold of landing surface
70’ height above threshold of landing surface
(Refer to figure P-07) Determine the fuel, time and distance for a normal climb from an airport at sea level to a pressure altitude of 8000 feet? OAT: 29 °C (at departing airport) Weight: 3700 pounds.
12 minutes, 24 pounds and 23 NM.
14.4 minutes, 28.8 pounds and 27.6 NM.
14.4 minutes, 42 pounds and 27.6 NM.
14.4 minutes, 44.8 pounds and 27.6 NM.
An aircraft is coming in from the left. Which light will you see first?
Steady red.
Steady green.
Flashing green.
White.
For which type of operation, the advisory service may be provided?
Controlled IFR
SVFR
CVFR
Who is responsible to publish AIP:
Operator
State
ICAO
ATS authority
Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under condition specified by air traffic control unit, is:
ATC clearance
Flight permission number
Controlled clearance
Flight clearance
……….…… is provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue service.
Advisory service.
Alerting service.
Area control service.
Surveillance service.
The vertical position of the aircraft during climb is expressed in terms of ………. until reaching the transition altitude.
Height.
Altitude.
Flight level.
Elevation.
What is the minimum height of VFR, over congested area?
500 ft
1000 ft
1500 ft
2000 ft
IMC is a meteorological condition....................
Equal to VMC
Less than minima for VMC
More than minima for VMC
B and C are correct
Cruising level is a level maintained during:
Flight time.
Flight duty time.
Significant portion of flight.
Take-off or landing.
Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?
SPECI
ATIS
SIGMENT
TAF
The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL050. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6°C?
FL110
FL020
FL100
FL080
Which of the following items are used in TREND?
BECMG
TEMPO
FM
A & B & C are correct
In a forecast what does the code "SG" stand for?
Severe icing
Snow grains
Hail
Embedded thunderstorm with hail
Flight recorder comprises:
Cockpit voice recorder
Flight data recorder
A or B
A and B
Which equipment is able to warn a pilot regarding to excessive altitude loss after take-off or go-around?
Radar altimeter
GPWS
Radio altimeter.
ADS.
The instruments and equipment, including their installation in aeroplanes shall be approved or accepted by:
State of Operator
State of Registry
How many times, the distress signal may be transmitted?
2 Times
3 Times
At least 2 times
At least 3 times
You are making a long straight in approach to land, at what range would you make the call "LONG FINAL"?
2 NM
4 NM
Between 8 and 4 NM
3 NM
What does the phrase "BREAKBREAK" mean?
The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.
My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of:
Flight safety message
Flight regularity messages
Service messages.
Class B messages.
The area up to displaced threshold is used for:
Taxiing, takeoff roll.
Takeoff and landing only.
Landing and taxiing only.
Taxiing, takeoff and landing.
(Refer to figure P-33) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on:
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Runway 22 directly into the wind.
Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Runway 04 directly into the wind.
(Refer to figure P-39) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow
B & C are correct.
Which of the following statements regarding Mode S is incorrect?
Mode S is used to assist in GPS calculations.
Data transmission and exchange is conducted in mode S.
Mode S transponders reduced RT traffic and also provide the aircraft with the data link facility.
A mode S interrogator, when installed, will also collect data from old mode A and C transponders.
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
The other aircraft is flying away from you.
“A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of takeoff run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff” is the definition for:
Runway strip.
Runway end safety area.
Stopway.
Clearway.
You are required to uplift 40 US Gallons of AVGAS with specific gravity of 0.72. How many liters and kilograms is this?
109 liters, 151 kg.
182 liters, 131 kg.
182 liters, 289 kg.
151 liters, 109 kg.
A descent is planned from FL340 so as to arrive at FL100 at a distance 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a G/S of 280 kts and a rate of descent of 1200 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
65 NM
99 NM
27 NM
93 NM
TAS: 95 kts, G/S:87 kts, TC:105°, TH:85°, Find wind direction and velocity
020°, 32 kts
032°, 20 kts
038°, 20 kts
020°, 39 kts
Given: Calibrated Air Speed: 410 kts / P.A: 22,000 ft / Indicated Air Temperature: 20 °C / CT: 1.0 Find True Air Speed.
764
462
664
561
Given: Pressure Altitude: 36,000 ft / Outside Air Temperature: - 40 °C . Find the density altitude.
36,200 ft
35,300 ft
35,800 ft
37,300 ft
Given: Fuel flow: 6.5 t/hr / Specific gravity: 0.80 / Mach number: 0.68 / OAT: -30°C / Headwind component: 25 kts . What is the specific fuel consumption?
16.7 kg/NM air distance.
13.4 kg/NM ground distance.
13.4 kg/NM air distance.
16.7 kg/NM ground distance.
Given: TAS: 465 kts / HDG: 124° (T) / W/V: 170°/80 Kts . Calculate the drift and ground speed.
8°L - 415 kts.
3°L - 415 kts.
3°R - 400 kts.
8°R - 400 kts.
Given: Course: 040° (T) / TAS: 120 kts / Wind speed: 30 kts . Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of:
120
145
115
130
Given: Variation: 7 °W / Deviation: 4 °E / If the aircraft is flying a compass heading of 270°, the true and magnetic headings are:
274°(T); 267°(M).
267°(T); 274°(M).
277°(T); 281°(M).
263°(T); 259°(M)
A fuel amount of 160 US Gal allows endurance of 3 hrs 10 min with a light twin engine piston aircraft. What is the corresponding fuel flow per engine?
25.3 US Gal/hr
50.5 US Gal/hr
51.6 US Gal/hr
25.8 US Gal/hr
11,000 meters equals to ……………… feet.
35,090
36,090
3,590
3,690
What is hypoxia?
A state characterized by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the mask.
The total absence of oxygen in the air.
The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness.
Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition.
The effect of hypoxia to vision:
Can only be detected when smoking tobacco.
Is usual stronger on the cones
Is stronger on the rods.
Does not depend on the level of illumination.
Breathing large amounts of carbon monoxide can result in:
A warm sensation.
Loss of muscle power.
An increased sense of well-being.
Tightness across the forehead and neck.
Signs of stress include:
Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
Lowering of the blood pressure.
Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
Two commonly used stimulant drugs that are not prohibited by ICAOs are ………….………. and ………………… .
Alcohol , Drugs.
Nicotine, Caffeine.
Amphetamines, Caffeine.
Drugs. Nicotine.
The sensory organ(s) in the inner ear responsible for vestibular sense is (are) the:
Utricle
Saccule
Semicircular canals.
Semicircular canals, vestibule (static organ).
……………………….. drugs generally excite the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.
Depressant
Stimulant
Tranquilizer
Anesthetic
Which of the following speed is marked by specific color in airspeed indicator?
VS1
VLE
VLO
VA
When density altitude is equal to pressure altitude?
In non-standard temperature
Standard temperature
Standard atmosphere
Standard pressure
In pressurize airplane the main static port be clogged and the pitot use alternate static port, the airspeed, and VVI may be....
Lower, climb
Lower, descend
Higher, climb
Higher, descend
The ball of inclinometer in turn coordinator is:
Balance indicator
Quality of turn
Coordinate use of aileron & rudder
Which principle of gyro does allow the turn coordinator gyro to sense rate of turn and rate of roll?
Precision
Rigidity
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally, indicate initially a turn toward the west if:
A left turn is entered from a north heading.
A right Turn is entered from a north heading.
An aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is:
Higher than the real altitude.
Lower than the real altitude.
Equal to the standard altitude.
The same .as the real altitude.
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:
Over-read.
Under-read.
Indication will drop to zero.
Freeze on the value it indicated at the time of failure.
When executing a turn by 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon (air-driven) indicates:
Nose up and correct angle of bank.
Attitude and bank angle are correct.
Nose up and bank angle too low.
Nose up and bank angle too high.
The deviation of a compass is described as +4°. This means that:
The deviation may be described as westerly.
Compass heading will always be different by 4 degrees from true heading.
The compass heading will have a lower number in degrees than the magnetic heading.
The compass needle seems to be pointing at a pole located west of the magnetic pole.
Given: Weight D 160 lbs at 45" aft of datum / Weight E 170 lbs at 145" aft of datum / Weight F 150 lbs at 185" aft of datum / Based on this information where would the CG be located?
86.0" aft of datum
117.8" aft of datum
124.2" aft of datum
136.7" aft of datum
How much weight must be removed from station 130.0" to place CG at station 89.0"? Total weight 5100 lbs / CG location station 90.0"
124.4 pounds
122.2 pounds
127.5 pounds
128.2 pounds
By adding the payload to the Dry operating weight, we get:
Ramp weight.
Takeoff weight.
Zero fuel weight.
Landing weight.
The Payload is defined as:
The Total Mass of flight crew, passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
The Total Mass of crew and passengers excluding any baggage or cargo.
The Total Mass of passengers, baggage and cargo.
The Total Mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
The QNH at an airfield located 200 meters above sea level is 1022 Hpa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
Less than 1022 Hpa.
It is not possible to give a definitive answer.
More than 1022 Hpa.
1022 Hpa.
One of the characteristic of the tropopause is?
Abrupt change in temperature laps rate
Abrupt change in visibility
Abrupt change in wind direction
Abrupt change in type of cloud
what is the approximately indicated altitude would you expect to find the bases of cumulus clouds if the surface temperature at 2.500 ft MSL is 95F and the dew point is 67 F?
6200 ft MSL
7400 ft MSL
8800 ft MSL
10,500 ft MSL
Steady rain preceding a front is an indication of:
A broad area of frontal discontinuity
Cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
A rapidly approaching cold front with cumuliform type clouds
An approaching warm front with associated stratus and little or no turbulence
Which statement is true with respect to a high or low pressure system?
A low pressure area trough is an area of descending air.
A high pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air
A high pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air
A low pressure area is a ridge of descending air
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus:
Heavy rain
Very strong turbulence
Heavy icing conditions
An approaching storm
What is the embedded thunderstorms?
Thunderstorms have been visually sighted
Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line
Thunderstorms are predicated to develop in stable air mass
Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen
Frontal waves normally form on:
Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
Slow moving warm fronts or occluded fronts
Rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts
Stationary fronts or occluded fronts
What is the important characteristic of wind shear?
It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms but may be found near a strong temperature inversion
It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction
It occurs primarily at the lower levels and is usually associated with mountain wave
It exists in horizontal direction only and is normally found near a jet stream
A wing is said to be tapered if:
It is inclined upwards from root to tip.
The chord at the wingtip is less than the chord at the root.
The incidence at the tip is less than at the root.
The camber is increased at the wingtip.
Downwash is:
The decrease in the angle of incidence from root to tip of the wing.
The higher speed airspeed behind the propeller.
The downward deflection of the airflow behind the wing.
The downward slope of a wing from root to tip.
At positive angles of attack, a wing produces most lift at:
4° angle of attack.
Wings level.
Just before the stall.
Just after the stall.
Stall Speed in a turn is proportion to:
The square root of the load factor.
Weight.
Lift.
TAS squared.
When Fowler flaps are deployed?
Only the area increases.
They move backwards then downwards.
They move downwards then backwards.
They move forwards.
Dynamic longitudinal stability requires:
An effective elevator.
A small CG range.
Positive static longitudinal stability.
A variable incidence (trimming) tailplane.
Lift is the force acting perpendicular to the:
Chord line
Relative wind
Upper surface of the wing
Lower surface of the wing
Which of the following is correct?
Form drag is the same as parasite drag.
Skin friction is the same as parasite drag.
Induced drag is the part of parasite drag.
None of above.
What is the relationship between true airspeed and angle of attack for generating the same amount of lift as altitude is increased:
The same true airspeed and angle of attack.
A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
The lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
The lower true airspeed and lower angle of attack.
A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing plan form, has a tendency to stall first at the:
Wingtip providing adequate stall warning.
Wing root providing adequate stall warning.
Wingtip providing inadequate stall warning.
All along of span at same rate and quantity.
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
Settling to the surface abruptly during landing.
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff speeds.
A rapid rate of sink and absence of normal cushioning during landings.
Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
Tabs
Rudder
Flaps
Slats
Rotation about the lateral axis of an airplane is known as:
Yawing, and is controlled by the use of rudder.
Rolling, and is controlled by the use of ailerons.
Turning, and is controlled by the use of ailerons.
Pitching, and is controlled by the use of elevators.
Choose the correct answer regarding HVOR standard service volume?
From station site up to 45,000 ft AGL the reception range is 40 NM.
From station site up to 60,000 ft AGL the reception range is 40 NM.
Between 45,000 ft and 60,000 ft AGL the reception range is 130 NM.
Between 18,000 ft and 45,000 ft AGL the reception range is 130 NM.
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the:
Radial 090°
Radial 180°
Radial 270°
Radial 360°
Which one is correct?
RB=MH+MB
MH=RB+MB
MB=MH-RB
MB=MH+RB
The OFF flag comes into view when:
Flying abeam the station.
The signal receiving is too weak.
Flying toward the station with uncorrected selected course.
All answers are correct.
(Refer to Figure P-01) What is the optimum aircraft heading to intercept magnetic bearing 210° to the station?
150°
060°
330°
240°
An moveable card ADF shows the bearing of a NDB as 020° and the heading of the airplane is 020° (M). In order to intercept an outbound course of 330° (from the NDB) at an angle of 40°, the airplanes heading should be altered to:
010°
300°
040°
What is the maximum DME error at a distance 10NM from station?
0.3 NM
0.5 NM
5 NM
A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:
The temperature of the hottest cylinder.
The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading.
The temperature of the coolest cylinder.
The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two.
The auxiliary fuel pumps are:
Mechanically driven by the engine and are connected in series with the main fuel booster pump.
Mechanically driven by the engine and are connected in parallel with the main fuel booster pump.
Electrically driven and are connected in parallel with the main fuel booster pump.
Electrically driven and are connected in series with the main fuel booster pump.
Prolonged running at low RPM may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
Excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
Sparking plugs.
Oil pump.
Fuel filter.
The slipstream effect of a propeller is most prominent at:
Low airspeeds with high power setting.
High airspeeds with low power setting.
High airspeeds with high power setting.
Low airspeeds with low power setting.
The operating principle of the float-type carburetor is based on:
Decrease in air velocity in the throat of a venturi, causing an increase in air pressure.
Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
The shape of the venturi that creates an area of high pressure.
A & C are correct.