Matilda Morrison
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Quiz on ism120-172, created by Matilda Morrison on 11/07/2017.

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Matilda Morrison
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ism120-172

Question 1 of 40

1

What is a benefit of using content addressed storage (CAS) as an archival solution?

Select one of the following:

  • Provides the ability to perform production operations on the CAS

  • Supports location independence using different content IDs for an object

  • Ensures content authenticity and integrity

  • Enables modification of archived data

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

What is determined based on the recovery point objective in an asynchronous remote replication?

Select one of the following:

  • Size of the replica

  • Size of the buffer

  • Response time

  • Location of the source

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about full volume replication?

Select one of the following:

  • Target device is at least as large as the source device

  • Target device is accessible only after the replication sessionstarts

  • Target and source devices should be on different storage arrays

  • Target device requires only a fraction of the space used by the source device

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?

Select one of the following:

  • Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created

  • Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time

  • Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM

  • Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

What is a benefit of deploying a multi-site storage system-based remote replication solution?

Select one of the following:

  • Requires low networkbandwidth to perform synchronous replication

  • Provides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time

  • Enables a consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures

  • Ensures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site
    failures

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX3 storage systems?

Select one of the following:

  • ProtectPoint

  • MirrorView

  • SnapSure

  • SRDF

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

What determines how far back the recovery points can go in a continuous data protection (CDP)
solution?

Select one of the following:

  • Size of the CDP appliance used for replication

  • Type of write splitter used for replication

  • Amount of space that is configured for the journal

  • Size of the source and replica volumes

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?

Select one of the following:

  • Improves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system

  • Balances storage utilization by redistributingVMs across different storage systems

  • Enables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure

  • Reduces the overall storage systemcapacity requirements for organizations

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about hypervisor-based continuous data protection (CDP)?

Select one of the following:

  • Journal and replica use the same storage volume

  • Journal is stored in a virtual machine

  • Write splitter is embedded in the hypervisor

  • Virtual appliance runs on a storage system

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

What is an example of an active attack on an IT infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • Attempt to gain access to the data in transit

  • Attempt to gain unauthorized access into the system

  • Attempt tocopy the data from the storage system

  • Attempt to modify information for malicious purposes

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • Integrity

  • Confidentiality

  • Availability

  • Repudiation

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about a denial-of-service attack?

Select one of the following:

  • Intentional misuse of privileges to compromisedata security

  • Prevents legitimate users from accessing resources or services

  • Captures a user’s credentials and then sends to the attacker

  • Gaining unauthorized access to a user’s accounts and data

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

Which attack is carried out by sending a spoofing e-mail and redirecting a user to a false website?

Select one of the following:

  • Repudiation

  • Man-in-the-middle

  • Denial-of-service

  • Phishing

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

What accurately describes an attack vector in an IT infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • Amount of effort required to exploit vulnerabilities in the infrastructure

  • Various entry points that can be used to launch an attack

  • Series of steps that must be followed in order to complete an attack

  • Process of identifying the system components under attack

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

What is a benefit of deploying a Defense in Depth strategy?

Select one of the following:

  • Provides additional time for organizations to detect and respond to an attack

  • Eliminates the attack vector from the IT infrastructure

  • Enables organizations to deploy a unified security solution

  • Eliminates the attack surface from the IT infrastructure

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a particular switch port cannot
function as an E_Port and cannot be used to create an interswitch link. Which security mechanism
should the administrator use?

Select one of the following:

  • Port binding

  • Port type locking

  • Persistent port disable

  • Fabric binding

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled
even after a switch reboot?

Select one of the following:

  • Port binding

  • Port locking

  • Port type locking

  • Fabric binding

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restricting device
communications to a group?

Select one of the following:

  • Security identifier

  • Demilitarized zone

  • NIC teaming

  • iSNSdiscovery domain

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

How do VSANs ensure security in an IT infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • By authenticating a new switch thatjoins a fabric

  • By limiting the number of switches in a fabric

  • By providing isolation over a shared infrastructure

  • By prohibiting an unused switch port from being used

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?

Select one of the following:

  • Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code

  • Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider

  • Allows a client to access protectedresources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

  • Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
control?

Select one of the following:

  • Enables initiators and targets to authenticateeach other by using a shared secret code

  • Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography

  • Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource
    owner

  • Enables anorganization to use authentication services from an identity provider

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about OpenID control?

Select one of the following:

  • Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of aresource owner

  • Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code

  • Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography

  • Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an insecure
network?

Select one of the following:

  • One-way hash function

  • Shared secret

  • Secret-key cryptography

  • OpenID control

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

Which method does an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) use to identify intrusions
by scanning and analyzing events to detect if they are statistically different from normal events?

Select one of the following:

  • Profile-based

  • Anomaly-based

  • Signature-based

  • Device-based

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

Which method is used to establish a VPN connection between a primary and remote data center
to perform secure remote replication?

Select one of the following:

  • Remote access VPN connection

  • Intra-site VPN connection

  • Long distance VPN connection

  • Site-to-site VPN connection

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

What is an activity in the risk assessment step of risk management?

Select one of the following:

  • Plan and deploy security controls

  • Continuously observethe existing risks

  • Determine the likelihood of a risk

  • Identify the sources of threats that increase the risks

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • Evaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks

  • Tracking the amount of storage infrastructure resources used and available

  • Tracking configuration changes to the storage infrastructure elements

  • Identifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

Which EMC product enables management for Vblock systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Unified Infrastructure Manager

  • MirrorView

  • Service Assurance Suite

  • ViPR SRM

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management

Select one of the following:

  • Performing trend analysis of storage space consumption

  • Tracking configuration changes to storage components

  • Designing a new replication solution for data redundancy

  • Specifying storage space quotas for users

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

Which EMC product provides automated monitoring and reporting of a software-defined storage
infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • FAST VP

  • Avamar

  • SnapSure

  • ViPR SRM

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery?

Select one of the following:

  • Standardizes on-going infrastructure management activities and assesses potential risks of the
    activities

  • Createsan inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the components

  • Classifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructuremanagement best practices stored in data
    lakes

  • Detects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to
    eliminate the attacks

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

Which data center characteristic ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was
received?

Select one of the following:

  • Data integrity

  • Security

  • Scalability

  • Manageability

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?

Select one of the following:

  • File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster

  • Upto four file systems can be created across the cluster

  • Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster

  • Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a
limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings.

Select one of the following:

  • Incremental

  • Cumulative

  • Full

  • Differential

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased cluster performance

  • Reduced capital expenditure

  • Simplified cluster management

  • Decreased data duplication

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

Why should a replica be consistent with its source?

Select one of the following:

  • Ensure the usability of the replica

  • Reduce the need to create multiple replicas

  • Ensure the security of the replica

  • Reduce the size of the replica

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

What is an example of a security management task in a storage infrastructure?

Select one of the following:

  • Configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN

  • Enforcing storage space quotas to restrict users from overprovisioning resources

  • Restricting the number of simultaneous client access to application servers

  • Enabling sending messages to a support center in the event of resource failure

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

In an object-based storage system, which elements are associated with an object?

Select one of the following:

  • Metadata, object ID, attributes, and file path

  • Metadata, LUN ID, data, and object ID

  • Object ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path

  • Metadata, object ID, data, and attributes

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

In continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication, where are the two split write I/Os of an
incoming write I/O directed?

Select one of the following:

  • One I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica

  • One I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume

  • One I/O goes to the compute system and the other I/O goes to the production volume

  • One I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

What describes an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?

Select one of the following:

  • Enable restoration to any point-in-time

  • Increase backup device performance

  • Reduce the backup window

  • Eliminatethe need for data deduplication

Explanation

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