Jakub Sabacinski
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Quiz on ISM 80 - 119, created by Jakub Sabacinski on 11/07/2017.

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Jakub Sabacinski
Created by Jakub Sabacinski about 7 years ago
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ISM 80 - 119

Question 1 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about VSAN trunking?

Select one of the following:

  • Allows network traffic from multiple VSANs to traverse a single interswitch link

  • Enables an F_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic over a single port channel

  • Provides VSANIDs to F_Ports to include them in the VSANs

  • Forwards FC frames between F_Ports that belong to the same VSAN

Explanation

Question 2 of 41

1

What accurately describes the flow control mechanism in an FC SAN?

Select one of the following:

  • Both transmitting and receiving ports agree on the number of buffers available during port login

  • Negotiation occurs between an E_Port and an F_Port, and between two N_Ports

  • Credit value is incremented when a frame is transmitted and decremented upon receiving a response

  • Receiver Ready (R_RDY) is sent from the receiving port if available credits reach zero

Explanation

Question 3 of 41

1

What is enabled by the N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV)?

Select one of the following:

  • A single physical N_Port to obtain multiple FC addresses

  • A single virtual N_Port to act as a physical Ethernet port

  • A virtualization layer to map virtual volumes to LUN IDs

  • A single physical N_Port to act as a virtual HBA port

Explanation

Question 4 of 41

1

What is a benefit of N_Port virtualization (NPV)?

Select one of the following:

  • Reduces the number of domain IDs in a fabric

  • Eliminates the overhead of fabric services in an FC SAN

  • Enables online expansion of virtual volumes

  • Allows an N_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic

Explanation

Question 5 of 41

1

Which fabric login type enables two N_Ports to exchange service parameters to establish a session?

Select one of the following:

  • PLOGI

  • PRLI

  • FLOGI

  • WWPN

Explanation

Question 6 of 41

1

Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel SAN environment?

Select one of the following:

  • FLOGI

  • PLOGI

  • PRLI

  • WWPN

Explanation

Question 7 of 41

1

Which fabric login type occurs between two N_Ports to exchange FC-4 upper layer protocol related parameters?

Select one of the following:

  • PRLI

  • FLOGI

  • PLOGI

  • WWNN

Explanation

Question 8 of 41

1

How does an iSCSI initiator discover its targets?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiator sends a query to an iSNS server for a list of available targets

  • Initiator receives the iSCSI names of its targets from the primary DNS server

  • Initiator uses the data center bridging exchange protocol for the discovery

  • Initiator sends SCSI commands and the target responds by sending its name

Explanation

Question 9 of 41

1

What is a benefit of configuring EX_Ports on each Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP) gateway in an FCIP tunnel implementation?

Select one of the following:

  • Enables FC-FC routing through the FCIP tunnel without merging the fabrics

  • Merges the fabrics at either end of the FCIP tunnel to create a single large fabric

  • Transfers VSAN tagged traffic over the FCIP tunnel without FC protocol overhead

  • Creates eight virtual FC links on the FCIP tunnel that can be paused and restarted independently

Explanation

Question 10 of 41

1

Which lossless Ethernet functionality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network?

Select one of the following:

  • Data center bridging exchange protocol

  • Enhanced transmission selection

  • Priority-based flow control

  • Congestion notification

Explanation

Question 11 of 41

1

In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth to different network traffic classes?

Select one of the following:

  • Enhanced transmission selection

  • Priority-based flow control

  • Congestion notification

  • Data center bridging exchange protocol

Explanation

Question 12 of 41

1

What is a component of an FCoE switch?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethernet Bridge

  • Virtual N_Port

  • Converged Network Adapter

  • FCIP Forwarder

Explanation

Question 13 of 41

1

What is a function of a Fibre Channel Forwarder in an FCoE SAN?

Select one of the following:

  • Applies zoning configurations and provides fabric services

  • Transfers FCoE traffic over an FC SAN

  • Encapsulates IP packets into FC frames

  • Provides both NIC and FC HBA functionality

Explanation

Question 14 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about VLANs and VSANs in an FCoE environment with an existing FC SAN?

Select one of the following:

  • A dedicated VLAN must be configured for each VSAN

  • VLANs configured for VSANs must carry regular LAN traffic

  • Default VLAN must map to all VSANs defined in the FCoE switch

  • A minimum of four VLANs must be created to isolate VSAN traffic

Explanation

Question 15 of 41

1

Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?

Select one of the following:

  • VN_Ports obtain FC addresses

  • Nodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder

  • Initialization protocol starts transporting FC data

  • VN_Port to N_Port pairing is established

Explanation

Question 16 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an FCoE SAN

Select one of the following:

  • FCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login

  • FC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery

  • Compute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches

  • Both VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches

Explanation

Question 17 of 41

1

What is determined by the recovery point objective in a business continuity solution?

Select one of the following:

  • Frequency of the backup

  • Type of backup devices

  • Type of disaster recovery site

  • Distance between the primary and disaster recovery sites

Explanation

Question 18 of 41

1

A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM
Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM
What is the mean time between failures on component 3 for that week?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 hours

  • 35 hours

  • 40 hours

  • 51 hours

Explanation

Question 19 of 41

1

A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 1 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 11 AM
Thursday = 8 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 9 AM
What is the mean time between failures on component 1 for that week?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 hours

  • 37 hours

  • 40 hours

  • 53 hours

Explanation

Question 20 of 41

1

In which stage of the business continuity planning life cycle does an organization identify critical business processes and assign recovery priorities?

Select one of the following:

  • Analyzing

  • Establishing objectives

  • Designing and developing

  • Implementing

Explanation

Question 21 of 41

1

What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to function based on business expectations during its specified time of operations?

Select one of the following:

  • Information availability

  • Disaster recovery

  • Compliance adherence

  • Business agility

Explanation

Question 22 of 41

1

What is a benefit of backing up data to a disk library?

Select one of the following:

  • Provides improved backup and recovery performance

  • Provides built-in portability to meet offsite requirements

  • Supports the shoe shining effect for improved backup performance

  • Pre-configured and dedicated appliance is only used for backups

Explanation

Question 23 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?

Select one of the following:

  • Backup data is sent directly from NAS to the backup device

  • Backup data is sent to the backup device through the application servers

  • A dedicated backup device is required for each NAS

  • All NAS systems should have the same operating environment

Explanation

Question 24 of 41

1

An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and cumulative backups on the remaining days. On Thursday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies. How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

Explanation

Question 25 of 41

1

An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and incremental backups on the remaining days at 9:00 AM. However, at 10 PM on Friday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies. How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 4

  • 5

  • 6

Explanation

Question 26 of 41

1

An administrator has defined a backup policy. Full backups will be performed at 8 PM every Monday and incremental backups performed at 8 PM the remaining days. How many backup copies are required to restore the files if they were accidentally deleted on Friday morning?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

Explanation

Question 27 of 41

1

What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?

Select one of the following:

  • Reads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device

  • Reads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device

  • Instructs the NAS head to start the backup operation

  • Instructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device

Explanation

Question 28 of 41

1

Which component is required for a “recovery-in-place” backup approach?

Select one of the following:

  • Disk-based backup target

  • Agent-based backup client

  • NDMP server

  • Data deduplication server

Explanation

Question 29 of 41

1

What is a benefit of a “recovery-in-place” backup approach in a virtualized data center?

Select one of the following:

  • Provides instant recovery of a failed virtual machine

  • Reduces the recovery point objective

  • Eliminates redundant data during virtual machine backups

  • Eliminates the backup window

Explanation

Question 30 of 41

1

What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?

Select one of the following:

  • Facilitates faster restores

  • Facilitates faster backups

  • Reduces the storage space required for backups

  • Eliminates the need for full backups

Explanation

Question 31 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about a virtual tape library?

Select one of the following:

  • Legacy backup software can be used without additional modules or changes

  • Portability of physical tapes to offsite locations is supported

  • Only sequential data access for both backup and recovery is supported

  • Regular maintenance tasks associated with a physical tape drive are required

Explanation

Question 32 of 41

1

An organization plans to deploy a new backup device in their data center. The organization wants the new backup device to support their legacy backup software without requiring any changes to the software. In addition, the organization wants the backup device to provide random data access for better performance. Which backup device should be recommended?

Select one of the following:

  • Virtual tape library

  • Tape-based backup appliance

  • Tape library

  • Optical juke box

Explanation

Question 33 of 41

1

What contains the information about backup configuration and backup metadata?

Select one of the following:

  • Backup catalog

  • Proxy server

  • Tracking database

  • Backup image

Explanation

Question 34 of 41

1

What is an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?

Select one of the following:

  • Reduces the backup window

  • Enables restoration to any point-in-time

  • Eliminates the need for data deduplication

  • Increases backup device performance

Explanation

Question 35 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about incremental forever backups?

Select one of the following:

  • Requires only one initial full back up

  • Requires periodic full back ups

  • Backup is not created directly from the production data

  • Copies the data that has changed since the last full back up

Explanation

Question 36 of 41

1

Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?

Select one of the following:

  • Ensure disaster recovery

  • Provide operational recovery

  • Ensure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements

  • Provide flexibility to use stub files for production operations

Explanation

Question 37 of 41

1

An organization has several virtual machines (VMs) deployed in their data center. The VM files are stored on a block-based storage system. The applications on the VMs are impacted during VM backup because the backup agents on the VMs are consuming a large amount of resources. Which alternate backup solution is recommended to address this issue?

Select one of the following:

  • Image-based backup

  • Three-way NDMP backup

  • Two-way NDMP backup

  • Target-based deduplication backup

Explanation

Question 38 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?

Select one of the following:

  • Backup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads

  • Each NAS head should have a dedicated backup device

  • Backup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device

  • Backup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present

Explanation

Question 39 of 41

1

Which type of storage system is built specifically for storing fixed content?

Select one of the following:

  • Content addressed storage

  • Block-based storage

  • File-based storage

  • Unified storage

Explanation

Question 40 of 41

1

An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup application. They are concerned about the application servers’ performance and a long backup window during backups. Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization?

Select one of the following:

  • Post-process

  • Source-based global deduplication

  • Variable-length segment and source-based

  • Fixed-length block and source-based

Explanation

Question 41 of 41

1

What is an accurate statement about the function of an archiving server?

Select one of the following:

  • Enables the ability to configure policies for archiving data

  • Installs agents on the archiving storage device

  • Scans the data that can be archived on application servers

  • Creates stub files on an archiving storage device

Explanation

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