Copy and Edit

Safe Meds Practice Quiz

Description

Quiz on Safe Meds Practice Quiz, created by Stewart Thompson on 07/10/2017.
Stewart Thompson
Quiz by Stewart Thompson, updated more than 1 year ago
Stewart Thompson
Created by Stewart Thompson about 7 years ago
153
1
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What does TGA stand for?
Answer
  • Therapeutic goods association
  • Therapeutic goods administration
  • Therapeutic goods analgesics
  • The Good administration

Question 2

Question
What is the TGA responsible for?
Answer
  • Evaluating, assessing and monitoring therapeutic goods in Australia
  • Prescribing medications to patients
  • Educating patients about the safety of drugs
  • Checking the validity of drug orders

Question 3

Question
Schedule 2 drugs are:
Answer
  • Pharmacist only e.g. panadiene
  • Controlled drugs e.g. morphine
  • Pharmacy medicine e.g. paracetamol
  • Prescription only e.g. antibiotics

Question 4

Question
Schedule 4 drugs are:
Answer
  • Pharmacist only e.g. panadiene
  • Prescription only e.g. antibiotics & hypertensive drugs
  • Controlled drugs e.g. morphine & endone
  • Pharmacy medicine e.g. paracetamol & ibuprofen

Question 5

Question
What are some considerations involved with schedule 8 - controlled drugs? (2 answers)
Answer
  • Can be administered by 1 RN
  • Are kept in an unlocked cupboard
  • Administration needs 2 RNs
  • Need to be kept in a locked cupboard

Question 6

Question
Generally schedule 3,4 & 8 medication are not advertised in the popular media except inhaled corticosteroids, vaginal anti-infective agents and nicotine to treat smoking dependence.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 7

Question
What are the 6 rights of drug administration?
Answer
  • Right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, right route, right to refuse
  • Right patient, right drug, right time, right dose, right hand, right to restrain
  • Right colour, right flavour, right drug, right dose, right patient, right route
  • Right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, right route

Question 8

Question
Which of the following are necessary for a medication order to be valid? (Pick 5 answers)
Answer
  • It needs to be dated
  • Is the drug name there?
  • Does NOT need to be legible
  • Signed by a nurse
  • Dose and unit of measurement need to be present
  • Route needs to be documented
  • Signed by a doctor, nurse practitioner or dentist

Question 9

Question
Which answer is not correct regarding roles and responsibilities of the healthcare team when administering drugs?
Answer
  • Doctor can diagnose and prescribe
  • Nurse can Prescribe and dispense
  • Nurse can assess, administer and evaluate
  • Pharmacist can advise and dispense

Question 10

Question
The generic name is also called the trade name, when drug companies market a drug they select a name and copyright it.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 11

Question
The Brand name is the official drug name, approved name given by the manufacturer and local authority.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 12

Question
Enteric coated preparations are not:
Answer
  • designed so disintegration occurs in the intestines rather than the stomach
  • Abbreviated EC on the container
  • to be crushed

Question 13

Question
Capsules can be either Hard gelatine capsules containing a drug as a solid, or soft gelatine capsules which can be opened and are useful for liquids drugs, or those that do not dissolve easily in water
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
What type of drug form is released slowly in the GIT and consists of layers of a drug enclosed in successive layers of inert coating?
Answer
  • Controlled release
  • Capsules
  • enteric coated preparations
  • Sustained/slow release

Question 15

Question
what type of drug has a semi permeable membrane coating, and can end up in faeces as a "ghost tablet"
Answer
  • Oral liquids
  • Controlled release tablets
  • topical preparations
  • Enteric coated preparations

Question 16

Question
A nicotine patch would be considered a(n)
Answer
  • oral liquid
  • Topical preparation
  • Capsule
  • Ointment

Question 17

Question
Linctus - is a syrup specially formulated for coughs Elixers - is an alcoholic solution that is used when the required drug is water insoluble
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 18

Question
Intradermal, subcutaneous, IM, IV, intraarterial & intrathecal are all what forms of administration?
Answer
  • Enteral
  • Parenteral
  • Transdermal
  • Gastro-intestinal

Question 19

Question
Pharmacodynamics is:
Answer
  • What the body does to the drug
  • What the drug does to the body
  • How the drug is altered as it travels through the body

Question 20

Question
Pharmacokinetics is:
Answer
  • What the drug does to the body
  • What the body does to the drug
  • the integration at a molecular level - between the drug molecules and the target cell, receptor where it will stimulate or inhibit the natural chemicals of the body
  • The drugs interaction with structural proteins

Question 21

Question
what is not 1 of the 4 aspects of pharmacokinetics:
Answer
  • Absorption - movement of drug molecules into the body from the site of administration
  • Distribution - the drug enters the bloodstream, and travels to the site of action, will be improved if the drug binds to albumin + globulins in the blood.
  • Disruption to the cellular membrane
  • Metabolism - alters chemical properties of drugs making them less lipophilic (fat soluble) and more readily excreted
  • Excretion - Excreted from the system in various ways e.g. urine, saliva, sweat, tears, breathing

Question 22

Question
Factors affecting; absorption - chemical nature of the drug, pH of the stomach, Surface area available for absorption & route/solubility of drug Distribution - lipid solubility Metabolism - Hepatic 1st pass effect (oral meds)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
What is the term for the fraction of the drug available to the systemic circulation, and is measured on a scale of 0 - 1 (1=100%)
Answer
  • Half life
  • Absorption percentage
  • Bioavailability
  • Hepatic first pass effect

Question 24

Question
Oral meds have a bioavailability of 1 or 100% and IV drugs have a bioavailability of <1
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
The following are listed in order of ________ to ________ regarding Rate of absorption liquids syrups parenteral suspensions powders capsules tablets coated tablets enteric coated tablets
Answer
  • Fasted - Slowest
  • Slowest - Fasted

Question 26

Question
Where is the major site of metabolism?
Answer
  • Brain
  • Anus
  • Spleen
  • Liver

Question 27

Question
What is not efficient as a barrier to drugs, and may result in congenital abnormalities?
Answer
  • Blood brain barrier
  • Semipermeable membrane
  • Placental Barrier
  • Swiss cheese model

Question 28

Question
Metabolism occurs in 2 phases Phase 1 - enzymes modify chemical structure of the drug Phase 2 - the phase 1 metabolite is joined (conjugated) with another molecule to render the product soluble for excretion
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 29

Question
The hepatic first pass effect
Answer
  • Removes the drug entirely
  • Increased bioavailability
  • Does not remove entire drug but it does reduce the bioavailability
  • recruits the cremaster muscles to aid in the metabolism of drugs

Question 30

Question
The kidneys, GIT as well as saliva, sweat, tears, breath and breast milk are all sites of excretion (drug clearance)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
If the blood concentration of a drug is 1000mg/L at a 12pm, and this level drops to 500mg/L by 4pm. What is the half life?
Answer
  • 2 hours
  • 4 hours
  • 6 hours
  • 8 hours

Question 32

Question
An antihypertensive medication reducing a patients blood pressure too much and causing hypotension would be an example of a drug having:
Answer
  • The correct response
  • Too little response
  • Too much response
  • a nightmare

Question 33

Question
The use of many drugs at once, the use of drugs with no apparent indication, & the duplication of medication taking would indicate _________, which presents a major health care risk to patients
Answer
  • Polydrugs
  • Polydynamesis
  • Polysynthesis
  • Polypharmacy

Question 34

Question
The systems approach to errors identifies that : (pick 3 answers)
Answer
  • Errors occur just because people are dumb
  • Humans are fallable (capable of making mistakes)
  • Errors are deemed as causes not consequences
  • errors are deemed as consequences not causes
  • Investigations are needed to seek new ways of completing tasks.

Question 35

Question
The Swiss cheese model identifies that there are holes in the layers of defence which include:
Answer
  • Active conditions & Latent failures
  • Active failures & Latent conditions

Question 36

Question
Active failures may lie dormant for some time before combining with a latent condition to create an opportunity for error and if identified they can be remedied before these errors occur (e.g. staffing issues, inexperience or inadequate equipment/training) Latent conditions are unsafe acts committed by people in direct contact with the patient (e.g. slips, trips, lapses, fumbles, mistakes & procedural violations)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 37

Question
The ANS (autonomic nervous system) is divided in the Sympathetic nervous system (rest & digest) and the Parasympathetic nervous system (fight or flight).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 38

Question
The sympathetic nervous system has short pre-ganglionic neurons that release _______ and long post-ganglionic neurons that release _____________ or noradrenaline onto the effector organ. These nerves are adrenergic
Answer
  • Adrenaline - Renin
  • Acetylcholine - Adrenaline
  • Adrenaline - Acetylcholine
  • Renin - Angiotensin II

Question 39

Question
The parasympathetic nervous system has long pre-ganglionic neurons that release ___________ and short post-ganglionic neurons that release ___________ . These nerves are cholinergic
Answer
  • Acetylcholine - Acetylcholine
  • Adrenaline - Adrenaline
  • Adrenaline - Acetylcholine
  • Acetylcholine - Adrenaline

Question 40

Question
The sympathetic nervous system dilates pupils, inhibits flow of saliva, accelerates heartbeat, dilates bronchi, inhibits peristalsis + gastric secretions, coverts glycogen to glucose (glycolysis), releases adrenaline + noradrenaline, and inhibits bladder contractions.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 41

Question
The parasympathetic nervous system stimulates flow of saliva, slows HR, contracts bronchi, stimulates peristalsis + gastric secretions, stimulates release of bile, contracts pupils and contracts the bladder.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
Sympatholytics are Agonist drugs that will stimulate and induce the effects of fight or flight
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
Sympathomimetics are Antagonist drugs that will inhibit sympathetic stimulation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
Select the adrenergic receptors:
Answer
  • Nicotinic (responds to stimulation by nicotine, located in smooth + cardiac muscle as well as neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle)
  • Alpha 1 (abundant on major arteries, associated with vasoconstrictive responses and increased BP)
  • Muscarinic (acetylcholine receptors, acting as the main end-receptor stimulated by acetylcholine released from postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic nervous system.)
  • Beta 2 (abundant on bronchiolar smooth muscle and blood vessels within skeletal muscle, heart, brain and kidneys. Associated with bronchodilation and increased tissue perfusion)
  • Beta 1 (located on myocardium, smooth muscles, GIT sphincters and renal arterioles. Associated with rate/force of heart contraction)
  • Alpha 2 (Abundant on presynaptic terminal, involved with autoregulation of synaptic activity)

Question 45

Question
The roles of ___________ receptors include vasoconstriction (increased BP) , pupil dilation + contraction, urinary retention, glucose release, generalised sweating & GIT constriction (decrease motility).
Answer
  • Alpha 2
  • Alpha 1
  • Beta 1
  • Beta 2

Question 46

Question
The role of __________ receptors are bronchodilation, vasodilation, insulin release and decreased GIT motility.
Answer
  • Alpha 1
  • Alpha 2
  • Beta 1
  • Beta 2

Question 47

Question
The role of _________ receptors are increased HR, increased contractility of the heart, increased atrioventricular conduction, increased renin release and vasoconstriction.
Answer
  • Alpha 1
  • Alpha 2
  • Beta 1
  • Beta 2

Question 48

Question
Alpha 1 ________ drugs would cause ____________ , increased BP, pupil dilation, glucose release, sweating and reduced GIT motility.
Answer
  • Antagonist - vasodilation
  • cholinergic - vasoconstriction
  • agonist - vasoconstriction
  • blocker - vasoconstriction

Question 49

Question
Alpha 1 __________ drugs would cause __________ , reduced BP, pupil constriction, impotence, increased urination and increased GIT motility.
Answer
  • Agonist - vasoconstriction
  • Antagonist - vasoconstriction
  • Antagonist - vasodilation
  • Agonist - vasodilation

Question 50

Question
Alpha 2 agonist drugs can be used to treat ____________
Answer
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperglycaemia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Diabetes mellitus

Question 51

Question
_________ agonist drugs would increase HR and CO, reduce GIT motility and stimulate the release of renin (increase blood flow and BP)
Answer
  • Alpha 1
  • Alpha 2
  • Beta 1
  • Beta 2

Question 52

Question
Select the incorrect statement from the following regarding phases of clinical trials:
Answer
  • Phase 1 clinical trials involve 20-80 health volunteers
  • Phase 2 clinical trials involve 100-150 volunteers with the targeted illness
  • Phase 3 clinical trials involve 1000-3000 volunteers with the targeted illness
  • Phase 4 clinical trial involves comparisons with other treatments and ongoing safety monitoring whilst out on the market.
  • Phase 1 clinical trials - drugs are tested on individuals from a lower socioeconomic background

Question 53

Question
__________ antagonist drugs (beta blockers) __________ HR, SV, and CO, increase GIT motility and inhibit renin release. Side effects can be dizziness, lethargy, insomnia, diarrhoea, bradycardia and hypotension.
Answer
  • Beta 2 - decrease
  • Alpha 1 - increase
  • Beta 1 - reduce
  • Beta 1 - increase

Question 54

Question
_______ agonist drugs cause _________ , an increase in skeletal muscle excitability (tremors), vasodilation, relaxation of the uterus, reduced bile secretion and increase glycogenolysis.
Answer
  • Beta 1 - vasoconstriction
  • Beta 2 - bronchodilation
  • Beta 1 - bronchodilation
  • Alpha 2 - bronchodilation

Question 55

Question
Ach (acetylcholine) is removed from the synaptic gap by an enzyme called ________________.
Answer
  • Acetylcholinesterase
  • Acetylcholinogen
  • Acetylcholinogenolysis
  • Acetylcholine converting enzyme

Question 56

Question
some side effects of Beta 2 agonist drugs include fine muscle tremors, nervousness, tachycardia, increased BGL + insulin levels and hypokalaemia (low k+)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 57

Question
Nicotinic agonists increase the feeling of relaxation and well being, also increase skeletal muscle tone (tremors)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 58

Question
What drug inhibits the breakdown of AcH and therefore enhances the effects of AcH at nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?
Answer
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
  • Acetylcholinesterase agonists
  • Autocoids
  • Muscarinic agonists

Question 59

Question
I am classed as an autocoid, I am a locally acting substance, I am released and confined to the same tissue and I am found in high concentration in the lungs, skin, GIT and CNS. what am I?
Answer
  • Prostaglandin
  • White blood cell
  • a robot
  • Histamine

Question 60

Question
Histamines are released from ________ and ________ when an allergen, foreign body, or injury is encountered.
Answer
  • G cells - red blood cells
  • enteroendocrine cells - basophils
  • Mast cells - Basophils
  • Sail cells - neutrophils

Question 61

Question
Histamines play a vital role in allergic and inflammatory reactions, some effects can be anaphylaxis, stimulation of pain receptors (nociceptors), vasodilation, and increased capillary permeability (leads to swelling).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 62

Question
1st generation anti-histamine drugs:
Answer
  • can cross the Blood brain barrier, causing drowsiness and possibly sedation.
  • can only cross the blood brain barrier in small amounts and are therefore not sedating

Question 63

Question
2nd generation anti-histamine drugs:
Answer
  • can only cross the blood brain barrier in small amounts and are therefore not sedating
  • can cross the blood brain barrier, causing drowsiness and sedation

Question 64

Question
___________ can reduce acid stimulation in the stomach so these are beneficial when treating __________ and GORD (gastro - oesophageal reflux disease)
Answer
  • H1 agonists - hypertension
  • H2 antagonists - Peptic ulcers
  • H3 antagonists - peptic ulcers

Question 65

Question
NSAIDs block the synthesis of _____________ by interfering with the ________ and _________ enzymes.
Answer
  • histamines - COX 3 - COX 4
  • Prostaglandins - DIX 1 - DIX 2
  • Prostaglandins - COX 1 - COX 2
  • Histamines - COX 1 - COX 2

Question 66

Question
Regarding Chemical mediator communication which answer is most correct:
Answer
  • Endocrine signalling - molecules travel from signalling cell through the bloodstream to the target cell
  • Paracrine signalling - Signalling cell and the target cell are close together
  • All of these
  • Autocrine signalling - Signalling and target cell are the same cell.

Question 67

Question
all of the following are non-specific COX inhibitors, except:
Answer
  • Aspirin
  • Ibuprofen
  • Diclofenac
  • Celecoxib
  • Indomethicin

Question 68

Question
Prostaglandins do not cause constriction of smooth muscle, vasodilation, aggregation of platelets, increased sensitivity of neurons to pain, the mediation of inflammation, fever (pyrogenic) or the inhibition of acid secretion in the stomach.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 69

Question
Which of the following is not a cardiac medication (antihypertensive)
Answer
  • ACE inhibitors (suffix "pril")
  • Beta blockers (suffix "olol")
  • Calcium channel inhibitors
  • Anti diuretics
  • Loop diuretics

Question 70

Question
The inhibition of COX in peripheral tissue will reduce pain + inflammation. The inhibition of COX in the stomach removes the protective effect of PG (prostaglandin) and results in damage to the GI mucosa.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 71

Question
When a patient is on multiple medications that affect the metabolism, synthesis or uptake of serotonin, what happens to serotonin levels.
Answer
  • Builds up
  • Breaks down
  • No issues
  • Patient gets cooked

Question 72

Question
Serotonin builds up in the neurons of the CNS and it can cause:
Answer
  • A change in mental status
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperpyrexia
  • All of these
  • Ataxia (lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements)

Question 73

Question
Noradrenaline, adrenaline and dopamine are known as catecholamines
Answer
  • True
  • False
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

The Norman Conquest 1066-1087
adam.melling
GCSE Music Revision 2
georgie.proctor
The English Language Techniques
craycrayley
GCSE REVISION TIMETABLE
TheJileyProducti
GCSE AQA Biology 2 Genetics
Lilac Potato
GCSE REVISION TIMETABLE
holbbox
Molecular Biology
Fadila Farag
GCSE AQA Chemistry 1 Fuels & The Environment
Lilac Potato
Weimar Republic - Problems facing it from 1918 - 1923
Kiya Bhayani
An Inspector Calls - Quotes and Context
James Holder
Browse Library