USA - Pharm Final

Description

Flex - Fall 2017 Based heavily upon the amazing study guide by H. Glauben.
Ben Williams
Quiz by Ben Williams, updated more than 1 year ago
Ben Williams
Created by Ben Williams over 6 years ago
22
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Involuntary, continuous tonic contraction resulting in increased tension in skeletal muscle after injury and inflammation; generally, more orthopedic and localized in nature
Answer
  • Spasm
  • Spasticity
  • Seizure

Question 2

Question
UMN lesions interrupt control of stretch reflex, leading to a neurologically induced, velocity-dependent, exaggerated muscle stretch reflex
Answer
  • Spasticity
  • Spasm
  • Seizure

Question 3

Question
Which of the following drugs/drug types given for spasms, causes general sedation and muscle relaxation by potentiating the inhibitory effect of GABA?
Answer
  • Diazepam
  • Benzodisepines
  • Centrally Acting Antispasm Drugs
  • Baclofen
  • Dantrolene sodium
  • Tizanidine

Question 4

Question
As with the Centrally-Acting Anti-spasm Drugs, Diazepam should only be used to treat muscle spams in the short-term, due to a plethora of side effects, including sedation, decreased psychomotor ability, physical dependence, and, during sudden withdrawal, anxiety/seizures/death.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
Which of the following anti-spasticity drugs would be the best choice for chronic pain or headaches?
Answer
  • Tizanidine
  • Baclofen
  • Diazepam
  • Botulinum Toxin

Question 6

Question
Which of the following are advantages of intrathecal administration of baclofen versus oral administration?
Answer
  • Localized effect
  • Less side effects
  • Better for long-term usage
  • Affects both LE and UE to the same extent
  • Favors UE over LE

Question 7

Question
The effects of which of the following anti-spasticity drugs is limited to just one muscle and carries no generalized effects?
Answer
  • Botulinum Toxin
  • Diazepam
  • Intrathecal Baclofen
  • Dantrolene Sodium

Question 8

Question
Which of the following is the most likely reason that a patient is taking a mixed agonist-Antagonist analgesic rather than a full agonist (strong or mild)?
Answer
  • Less risk of addiction and overdose
  • Less expensive
  • Mixed Agonist-Antagonists are more effective for some patients
  • Mixing the agonist with an antagonist reduces the risk of potential side effects, like hallucinations

Question 9

Question
Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Strong Agonists?
Answer
  • Morphine
  • Fentanyl
  • Methadone
  • Codeine
  • Naloxone
  • Petnazocine
  • Hydrocodone

Question 10

Question
Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mild-Moderate Agonists?
Answer
  • Codeine
  • Hydrocodone
  • Oxycodone
  • Morphine
  • Fentanyl
  • Naloxone
  • Methadone
  • Pentazocine

Question 11

Question
Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mixed Agonist-Antagonists?
Answer
  • Pentazocine
  • Morphine
  • Fentanyl
  • Methadone
  • Codeine
  • Naloxone
  • OxyContin

Question 12

Question
Of the following, which are opiod analgesic antagonists?
Answer
  • Naloxone
  • Codeine
  • Fentanyl
  • Pentazocine
  • OxyContin

Question 13

Question
Select the potential side effects of opiod analgesics.
Answer
  • Sedation
  • Dizziness
  • Respiratory Depression
  • GI Distress
  • Agitation
  • Exophthalmos
  • Dry Skin
  • Delusions of Grandeur

Question 14

Question
Inhibition of the Cox 1 enzymes causes which of the following side effects?
Answer
  • Gastrointestinal erosions
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Increased risk of cardiovascular events
  • Hemorrhage

Question 15

Question
Inhibition of the Cox 2 enzymes causes which of the following adverse effects?
Answer
  • Gastrointestinal erosions
  • Increased risk of cardiovascular events
  • Cancer
  • Inflammation

Question 16

Question
Which of the following are Non-Selective COX-Blockers?
Answer
  • Aspirin
  • Ibuprofen
  • Celebrex
  • Diclofenac

Question 17

Question
Which of the following are COX2-Blockers?
Answer
  • Diclofenac
  • Celebrex
  • Aspirin
  • Ibuprofen

Question 18

Question
How does Tylenol differ from Aspirin?
Answer
  • Tylenol is not associated wit GI Issues
  • Tylenol treats pain and inflammation
  • Tylenol is not an antiinflammatory or anticoagulant
  • Tylenol can be safely used by children
  • Tylenol is less effective at treating osteoarthritis

Question 19

Question
Combining Naloxone with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
Combining Droperidol with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 21

Question
With PCEA, the analgesic is delivered directly to the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord at a specific level.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 22

Question
With PCEA, the analgesic is delivered directly to the epidural space of the spinal cord at a specific level.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
[blank_start]Loading dose[blank_end] - A single large dose is given initially to establish analgesia. [blank_start]Demand dose[blank_end] - The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates the PCA delivery mechanism. [blank_start]Lockout interval[blank_end] - The minimum amount of time allowed between each demand dose. [blank_start]Background infusion rate[blank_end] - In some patients, a small amount of the analgesic is infused continuously to maintain a low background level of analgesia.
Answer
  • Loading dose
  • Demand dose
  • Lockout interval
  • Background infusion rate
  • Starter dose
  • Rest interval
  • Drip
  • Continuous administration

Question 24

Question
When reviewing the chart of a new patient you notice that the number of total PCA demands is much higher than the number of successful demands. What does this most likely indicate?
Answer
  • The PCA parameters are not effective in providing adequate analgesia
  • The PCA pump is malfunctioning
  • This is not possible, there is no difference between successful and total demands.
  • The PCA pump is providing too much analgesia with each dose.

Question 25

Question
[blank_start]Antitussive[blank_end] - Cough Suppressant [blank_start]Decongestant[blank_end] - Reduce Mucus Production by binding to Alpha-1 receptors [blank_start]Antihistamine[blank_end] - Reduce allergic reactions by binding to H1 receptors [blank_start]Mucolytics[blank_end] - Decrease Mucus Viscosity [blank_start]Expectorants[blank_end] - Facilitate production and ejection of mucus
Answer
  • Antitussive
  • Decongestant
  • Antihistamine
  • Mucolytics
  • Expectorants
  • Anticoagulant
  • Anticholinergics

Question 26

Question
Guaifenesin belongs to which category of respiratory drugs?
Answer
  • Antitussives
  • Decongestant
  • Antihistamines
  • Mucolytics
  • Expectorants

Question 27

Question
[blank_start]Beta-2 adrenergic agonists[blank_end] (-terol) – cause bronchodilation and relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle [blank_start]Glucocorticoids (corticosteroids)[blank_end] - control inflammation-mediated bronchospasm; Most effective treatment for Asthma [blank_start]Leukotriene (LOX) inhibitors[blank_end] - mediate airway inflammation that underlies bronchoconstriction [blank_start]Cromones[blank_end] - prevent bronchoconstriction by inhibiting the release of inflammatory mediators
Answer
  • Beta-2 adrenergic agonists
  • Glucocorticoids (corticosteroids)
  • Leukotriene (LOX) inhibitors
  • Cromones
  • Anticholinergics

Question 28

Question
Which of the following is/are most effective in promoting healing of ulcers?
Answer
  • H2 receptor blockers
  • Antacids
  • Proton pump inhibitor
  • Cimedtidine

Question 29

Question
What is a potential problem with prolonged and excessive use of antacids?
Answer
  • Acid production may increase
  • Altered pharmacokinetics
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • All of these

Question 30

Question
Steroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
Answer
  • Amino acid links
  • Lipids, such as cholesterol
  • Bisphosphonates

Question 31

Question
An individual with hypothyroidism will present with all of the following EXCEPT?
Answer
  • Weight gain
  • Bradycardia
  • Lethargy
  • Tachycardia

Question 32

Question
Hyperthyroidism symptoms can be suppressed by beta-adrenergic blockers.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
Which of the following inhibits osteoclast activity?
Answer
  • Calcitonin
  • Bisosphonates
  • Vitamin D
  • Teriparatide

Question 34

Question
A primary adverse effect of mineralcorticoid therapy?
Answer
  • Hypertension
  • Catabolic effect on bone and other tissues
  • Muscle wasting
  • Increased blood glucose

Question 35

Question
Which patient would you be cautious with stretching?
Answer
  • Pt taking Cipro
  • Pt taking Metronidazole
  • Pt taking Sulfonamide
  • Pt taking an Amingoglycoside

Question 36

Question
Tetracyclines, sulonamindes, and fluoroquinolones will not cause increased skin sensitivity to UV light.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 37

Question
[blank_start]Insulin[blank_end] will reduce glucose levels [blank_start]Glucagon[blank_end] will increase glucose levels Generally speaking, Diabetes leads to an uncontrolled [blank_start]increase[blank_end] in glucose levels.
Answer
  • Insulin
  • Glucagon
  • increase
  • decrease
  • Glycogen

Question 38

Question
Prolonged use of cortisol can cause ______.
Answer
  • HTN
  • Increased risk of bone fracture
  • Decreased blood glucose and glycogen
  • Decreased ability in body’s ability to handle stress

Question 39

Question
Just like the Irish girl in this photo, patients taking which of the following medication types are at increased risk of sunburn (aka photosensitivity)?
Answer
  • Antitussives
  • Decongestants
  • Antibacterial
  • Antirheumatics
  • NSAIDs
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