Question 1
Question
1. The fly by ware normal operation modes are:
pg23
Answer
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a) Ground mode, take off mode, in flight mode, flare mode.
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b) Ground mode, take off mode, landing mode, flare mode.
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c) Ground mode, take off mode, landing mode, approach mode.
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d) Ground mode, air mode, take off mode, flare mode.
Question 2
Question
2. According to the ground mode:
pg23
Answer
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a) aircraft is fully protected against exceeding the maximum negative and positive load factors (with and without high lift devices extracted), angle of attack, stall, airspeed/Mach number, pitch attitude, roll rate, bank angle etc.
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b) when the aircraft approaches to ground the control is gradually switched to this mode, where automatic trim is deactivated and modified flight laws are used for pitch control.
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c) pilot has control on the nose wheel steering as a function of speed.
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d) after lift-off the envelope protection is gradually introduced.
Question 3
Question
3. According to the in flight mode:
pg23
Answer
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a) aircraft is fully protected against exceeding the maximum negative and positive load factors (with and without high lift devices extracted), angle of attack, stall, airspeed/Mach number, pitch attitude, roll rate, bank angle etc.
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b) when the aircraft approaches to ground the control is gradually switched to this mode, where automatic trim is deactivated and modified flight laws are used for pitch control.
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c) pilot has control on the nose wheel steering as a function of speed.
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d) after lift-off the envelope protection is gradually introduced.
Question 4
Question
4. According to the Yaw Damper:
pg24
Answer
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a. Each yaw damper has an associated coupler which operates as a rate gyro and senses pitch.
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b. Minimise Duch Roll by automatic rudder displacement proportional to and opposing the amount of yaw experienced.
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c. Minimise Duch Roll by manual rudder displacement proportional to and opposing the amount of yaw experienced.
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d. The duch roll is detected when: directional > lateral stability.
Question 5
Question
5. According to the motion sensors of the FBW System:
Answer
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a) Detect the movement of the aircraft in the air.
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b) Detect higher frequency structural oscillations due to flexible modes.
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c) Detect low frequency structural oscillations due to flexible modes.
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d) Detect rigid body movement of the aircraft on landing configuration.
Question 6
Question
6. What are the differences between analog and digital system of FBW?
pg24
Answer
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a) Digital system allows great flexibility and high complexity functions.
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b) Analog system is affected by inherent delays.
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c) Analog system allows the use of screens and simplify the work in the cockpit.
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d) Digital system is instantaneous.
Question 7
Question
7. Integration of Flight control and Powerplant control systems entails (Select the wrong answer):
pg24
Answer
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a) Improvement of system performances
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b) Efficient energy management
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c) Reduction in equipment space and mass
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d) Improvement of resistance to G-forces.
Question 8
Question
8. According to the in flare mode:
pg24
Answer
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a) aircraft is fully protected against exceeding the maximum negative and positive load factors (with and without high lift devices extracted), angle of attack, stall, airspeed/Mach number, pitch attitude, roll rate, bank angle etc.
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b) when the aircraft approaches to ground the control is gradually switched to this mode, where automatic trim is deactivated and modified flight laws are used for pitch control.
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c) pilot has control on the nose wheel steering as a function of speed.
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d) after lift-off the envelope protection is gradually introduced.
Question 9
Question
1) Regarding the pneumatic de-icing boots, choose the correct answer:
pg25
Answer
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a) They are not used if high aerodynamic efficiency is needed
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b) They are an effective method for ice thickness between 1⁄4 (bridge) and 1⁄2 inch (strength)
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c) Both “a” and “b” are wrong
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d) Both “a” and “b” are right
Question 10
Question
2) Wich of the following cannot be used in helicopters?
pg25
Answer
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a) The pneumatic de-icing boots
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b) The termal anti-icing system
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c) The airframe de-icing fluid system
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d) The electro expulsive de-icing system
Question 11
Question
3) What are the first points to become iced?
pg25
Question 12
Question
4) In which consists an ice detection light?
pg25
Answer
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a) A light in the cockpit warns the pilot that there is ice in the wing
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b) A light that illuminates those parts of the wing that are deemed critical for ice accumulation
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c) An acoustic alarm that warns the pilot that there is ice in the wing
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d) No one is correct
Question 13
Question
5) If we talk about an electric motor that rotates a serrated rotor, being the needed torque a function of the amount of ice, we refer to...
Answer
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a) A serrated rotor ice detector
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b) A smiths ice detector
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c) A hot rod ice detector
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d) An ice detection light
Question 14
Question
6) How does a vibrating rod ice detector work?
Answer
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a) A vibration frequency drops when ice increases
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b) A heater breaks the ice
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c) A vibration frequency drops before the ice increases, preventing it
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d) High pressures destroy the ice formed
Question 15
Question
7) Which of the following statements is true?
Answer
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a) In most cases it is the aircraft itself that triggers the lightning when entering a region with intense electrostatic field
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b) Aircraft accidents caused by lightning are very common
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c) The basic solution to limit damage to a structure and systems from lighting is to make the whole structure a good electrical conductor
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d) No one is true
Question 16
Question
8) The triboelectic effect...
pg26
Answer
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a) Occurs when a lightning hits the aircraft
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b) Happens when certain materials become electrically charged after they come into contact with another different material through friction.
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c) In aircrafts is important in flying across clouds or in an ambient with particles in suspension
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d) Both “b” and “c” are right
Question 17
Question
1. Which of the following statements is true?
pg26
Answer
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a) The fuel system must provide an uninterrupted flow of contaminant free fuel regardless of the aircraft’s attitude.
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b) The gravity center of the aircraft must be preserved even when the fuel is consumed .
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c) Previous two sentences must met regardless of the aircraft’s attitude.
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d) Al three statements are true.
Question 18
Question
2. In what concerns about historical fuel systems:
pg26
Answer
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a) First way of feed the engine was by the use of manual pressure.
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b) Higher performance was related with more complexity.
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c) Jet engines, being more modern than their piston-engines predecessors, need less fuel.
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d) Use of under-wing and under-fuselage ventral tanks was less efficient for the range.
Question 19
Question
3. What was the first method used to know the fuel consumption/ remaining?
pg27
Question 20
Question
4. What were the techniques used to prevent the engine explosion due to fuel tank penetration by enemy fire?
pg27
Answer
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a) Polyurethane reticulated foam installed within the fuel tanks.
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b) Gaseous Nitrogen Inert system.
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c) On Board Inert Gas Generation System OBIGGS (separation O2 /N2) .
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d) Previous three are correct.
Question 21
Question
5. The fuel system has also to ensure safe handling of the engine to prevent (select the WRONG option):
pg27
Question 22
Question
6. JAR 25 rule establishes that:
pg27
Answer
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Each fuel system is able to supply at least 90% of the fuel flow required under each intended operation condition or maneuver.
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Each fuel system is able to supply at least 95% of the fuel flow required the majorityof operation condition or maneuver.
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Each fuel system is able to supply at least 100% of the fuel flow required under the majority of operation condition or maneuver.
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Each fuel system is able to supply at least 100% of the fuel flow required under each intended operation condition or maneuver.
Question 23
Question
7. Select the correct statement about the fuel tanks:
pg27
Answer
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a) To facilitate outboard fuel movement, a number of check valves (non-return valves) are installed along the ribs that form the boundaries between compartments.
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b) The fuel tanks are normally located in the aircraft fuselage and tail.
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c) In fighter aircrafts, there are complex shapes due to the lack of volume
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d) A and C are correct.
Question 24
Question
8. What of the following is not a type of fuel tank?
pg28
Answer
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a) Flexible Tanks
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b) Rigid Tanks
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c) External Tanks
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d) Integral Tanks