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ATP EASA Qatar

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Aviation Interview Quiz on ATP EASA Qatar , created by mmm mmm on 14/05/2018.
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Quiz by mmm mmm, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by mmm mmm over 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
10.1.1.4 (7) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
Answer
  • binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
  • advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
  • binding for all member states
  • binding for all airline companies with international traffic

Question 2

Question
10.1.2.0 (11) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law
Answer
  • may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
  • may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
  • may request such person to disembark
  • may deliver such person to the competent authorities

Question 3

Question
10.5.1.0 (78) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
Answer
  • Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
  • Switching on and off four times the landing lights
  • The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
  • Switching on and off three times the landing lights

Question 4

Question
10.5.1.0 (81) A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
Answer
  • The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
  • The airport is unsafe, do not land
  • Continue circling and wait for further instructions
  • Give way to other aircraft in emergency

Question 5

Question
10.5.1.0 (83) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
Answer
  • Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
  • Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
  • An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
  • The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

Question 6

Question
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
Answer
  • The airliner operator
  • The aircraft owner
  • The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
  • The commander

Question 7

Question
10.5.1.0 (86) Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ? a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • Emergency aircraft
  • Military aircraft
  • VIP (Head of state) aircraft
  • Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention

Question 8

Question
10.5.1.0 (91) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A""
Answer
  • 7 700
  • 7 500
  • 7 600
  • 7 000

Question 9

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (92) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
Answer
  • 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
  • 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
  • 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
  • 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

Question 10

Question
10.5.1.0 (93) Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?
Answer
  • Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
  • Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
  • Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
  • Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

Question 11

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (94) Unless otherwise prescribed , what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
Answer
  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

Question 12

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (96) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Answer
  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
  • Inform the ATC unit immediately
  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

Question 13

Question
10.5.1.0 (96) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable b) Inform the ATC unit immediately c) d)
Answer
  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
  • Inform the ATC unit immediately
  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

Question 14

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (98) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Answer
  • Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
  • Crossing arms extended above his head
  • Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist
  • Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

Question 15

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (99) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
Answer
  • land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
  • adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
  • continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
  • descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

Question 16

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (100) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
Answer
  • Come back and land.
  • Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
  • Dangerous airfield. Do not land
  • Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

Question 17

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (102) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :
Answer
  • it is a deviation from the track.
  • of an emergency.
  • the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
  • the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.

Question 18

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (103) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :
Answer
  • at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
  • at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
  • at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
  • at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

Question 19

Question
10.5.1.0 (105) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
Answer
  • this aerodrome is using parallel runways
  • landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
  • taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,
  • glider flying is performed outside the landing area,

Question 20

Question
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than :
Answer
  • 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
  • 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
  • 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
  • 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

Question 21

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (109) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will :
Answer
  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ,
  • Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination ,
  • Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ,
  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

Question 22

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (111) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft :
Answer
  • must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
  • is cleared to land.
  • must land immediately and clear the landing area.
  • must give way to another aircraft.

Question 23

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (114) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
Answer
  • must vacate the landing area in use.
  • must stop.
  • must return to its point of departure.
  • may continue to taxi to the take-off area.

Question 24

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (115) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
Answer
  • may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
  • must stop.
  • must return to its point of departure.
  • is cleared for take-off.

Question 25

Question
RED ! 10.5.1.0 (116) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
Answer
  • not land because the airport is not available for landing.
  • give way to another aircraft.
  • return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
  • not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

Question 26

Question
10.6.2.0 (117) What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Answer
  • Obstacle identification surface.
  • Obstacle identification slope.
  • Obstruction in surface.
  • Obstacle in surface.

Question 27

Question
RED ! 10.6.2.0 (118) What does the abbreviation DER mean?
Answer
  • Depature end of runway.
  • Distance end of runway.
  • Distance end of route.
  • Departure end of route.

Question 28

Question
RED ! 10.6.2.0 (119) The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
Answer
  • 30 NM
  • 25 NM
  • 10 NM
  • 15 NM

Question 29

Question
10.6.3.0 (121) If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
Answer
  • To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
  • To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
  • To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.
  • To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.

Question 30

Question
10.6.3.0 (122) In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?
Answer
  • Airspace restrictions.
  • Navigation aids.
  • ATC requirements.
  • The terrain surrounding the airport.

Question 31

Question
RED ! 10.6.3.0 (123) In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
Answer
  • 0 ft.
  • 3.3 % gradient.
  • 35 ft.
  • 0.8 % gradient.

Question 32

Question
RED 10.6.3.0 (124) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within:
Answer
  • 15°.
  • 30°.
  • 12.5°.
  • 45°.

Question 33

Question
RED 10.6.3.0 (126) We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within :
Answer
  • 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
  • 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
  • 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
  • 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

Question 34

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (127) Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
Answer
  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

Question 35

Question
10.6.4.0 (128) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
Answer
  • 600m (1968 ft).
  • 450m (1476 ft).
  • 300m (984 ft).
  • 150m (492 ft).

Question 36

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (129) In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
Answer
  • Initial approach segment.
  • Intermediate approach segment.
  • Arrival segment.
  • Final approach segment.

Question 37

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (130) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
Answer
  • FAP.
  • FAF.
  • MAP.
  • IF.

Question 38

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (132) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
Answer
  • When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
  • When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
  • When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
  • When seems possible to land

Question 39

Question
10.6.4.0 (137) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination regrouping all the correct answers is :
Answer
  • 1, 2, 3.
  • 1, 3.
  • 2, 3.
  • 1, 2.

Question 40

Question
10.6.4.0 (135) In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
Answer
  • Mean sea level.
  • Aeredrome reference point.
  • Relevant runway threshold.
  • Aerodrome elevation.

Question 41

Question
10.6.4.0 (140) How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.
Answer
  • Up to 5.
  • Up to 4.
  • 3.
  • 4.

Question 42

Question
10.6.4.0 (141) Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
Answer
  • At the IF.
  • At the IAF.
  • At the FAF.
  • At the final en-route fix.

Question 43

Question
10.6.4.0 (145) In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:
Answer
  • Shuttle.
  • Procedure turn.
  • Racetrack pattern.
  • Based turn.

Question 44

Question
10.6.4.0 (146) In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
Answer
  • 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
  • 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).
  • 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
  • 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

Question 45

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (147) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:
Answer
  • One and a half of scale deflection.
  • A quarter of scale deflection.
  • Half a scale deflection.
  • One scale deflection.

Question 46

Question
10.6.4.0 (148) In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
Answer
  • 6m.
  • 12m.
  • 9m.
  • 3m.

Question 47

Question
10.6.4.0 (149) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Answer
  • Initial, intermediate and final.
  • Arrival, intermediate and final.
  • Initial and final.
  • Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

Question 48

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (150) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
Answer
  • 0.8%.
  • 5%.
  • 3.3%.
  • 2.5%.

Question 49

Question
10.6.4.0 (151) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
Answer
  • At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
  • At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
  • At the missed approach point.
  • At the point where the climb is established.

Question 50

Question
10.6.4.0 (152) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Answer
  • Visual manoeuvring (circling).
  • Aerodrome traffic pattern.
  • Contact approach.
  • Visual approach.

Question 51

Question
10.6.4.0 (154) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
Answer
  • Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
  • For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them
  • Only for categories A and B aircraft.
  • For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

Question 52

Question
10.6.4.0 (155) A circling approach is:
Answer
  • A contact flight manoeuvre.
  • A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
  • A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
  • A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

Question 53

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (156) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
Answer
  • FAF.
  • Landing runway.
  • Final missed approach track.
  • MAP.

Question 54

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (157) If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?
Answer
  • Initiate a missed approach
  • Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact
  • Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude
  • If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

Question 55

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (158) What action should be taken if contact is losT with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?
Answer
  • Initiate a missed approach
  • Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude
  • Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome
  • Request an amended clearance

Question 56

Question
10.6.4.0 (159) Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :
Answer
  • half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
  • half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline.
  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.
  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

Question 57

Question
10.6.4.0 (160) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
Answer
  • the operator
  • the state
  • the pilot-in-command ,
  • the ""flight-operations"" of the company

Question 58

Question
10.6.4.0 (161) On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :
Answer
  • 20 degrees or less
  • 10 degrees or less
  • 30 degrees or less
  • 40 degrees or less

Question 59

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (162) Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :
Answer
  • 5%.
  • 8%.
  • 6,5%.
  • 7%.

Question 60

Question
10.6.4.0 (165) During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
Answer
  • 300 m (984 ft)
  • 120 m (394 ft)
  • 210 m (690 ft)
  • 150 m (492 ft)

Question 61

Question
10.6.4.0 (166) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
Answer
  • 30 m (98 ft)
  • 50 m (164 ft)
  • 90 m (295 ft)
  • 120 m (384 ft)

Question 62

Question
10.6.4.0 (167) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
Answer
  • 30 m (98 ft)
  • 50 m (164 ft)
  • 90 m (295 ft)
  • 120 m (384 ft)

Question 63

Question
10.6.4.0 (168) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :
Answer
  • 50 m (164 ft)
  • 120 m (384 ft)
  • 30 m (98 ft)
  • 90 m (295 ft)

Question 64

Question
10.6.4.0 (169) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
Answer
  • 5 NM
  • 25 NM
  • 10 NM
  • 20 NM

Question 65

Question
10.6.4.0 (170) The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :
Answer
  • ± 12.5 NM
  • ± 2.5 NM
  • ± 5 NM
  • ± 10 NM

Question 66

Question
10.6.4.0 (172) For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
Answer
  • 100 ft
  • 200 ft
  • 250 ft
  • 150 ft

Question 67

Question
RED 10.6.4.0 (174) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
Answer
  • 3.3%
  • 2.5%
  • 2%
  • 5%

Question 68

Question
10.6.5.0 (175) What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
Answer
  • Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
  • it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.
  • a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
  • inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.

Question 69

Question
10.6.5.0 (176) In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
Answer
  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
  • maximum bank angle of 25°.
  • rate of 3°per second.
  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser BANK

Question 70

Question
RED 10.6.5.0 (177) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ?
Answer
  • 230 kt IAS.
  • 230 kt TAS.
  • 240 kt IAS.
  • 240 kt TAS.

Question 71

Question
10.6.5.0 (178) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
Answer
  • To the left.
  • To the right.
  • First right and then to the left.
  • Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

Question 72

Question
RED 10.6.5.0 (179) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
Answer
  • 1 minute
  • 2 minutes
  • 1,5 minutes
  • 30 sec

Question 73

Question
RED 10.6.5.0 (180) You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.
Answer
  • Off set.
  • Direct.
  • Parallel
  • Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"".

Question 74

Question
RED 10.6.5.0 (181) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
Answer
  • 2 minutes 30 seconds.
  • 2 minutes.
  • 1 minute.
  • 1 minute 30 seconds.

Question 75

Question
10.6.5.0 (182) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Answer
  • Course.
  • Bearing.
  • Track.
  • Heading.

Question 76

Question
10.6.5.0 (185) In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
Answer
  • in a direction depending on the entry ,
  • in a direction depending on the wind direction
  • to the left
  • to the right

Question 77

Question
RED 10.6.5.0 (186) Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
Answer
  • Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
  • Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
  • Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
  • Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

Question 78

Question
RED 10.6.6.0 (187) The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
Answer
  • Transition level.
  • Transition altitude.
  • Transition layer.
  • The level specified by ATC.

Question 79

Question
10.6.6.0 (189) The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
Answer
  • according pilot's choice.
  • as hlight level.
  • as height.
  • as altitude.

Question 80

Question
10.6.6.0 (191) During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • altitude above mean sea level during climb
  • flight level during descent
  • altitude above mean sea level during descent
  • either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

Question 81

Question
RED 10.6.6.0 (192) Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
Answer
  • only at transition altitude.
  • at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
  • at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
  • only at transition level.

Question 82

Question
RED 10.6.6.0 (194) At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
Answer
  • Within the transition layer
  • When passing the transition level
  • When passing the transition altitude
  • When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL

Question 83

Question
10.6.7.0 (197) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Answer
  • Mode A code 7500.
  • Mode A code 7600.
  • Mode B code 7600.
  • Mode A code 7700.

Question 84

Question
10.6.7.0 (200) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
Answer
  • 7600.
  • 2000.
  • 7500.
  • 7700.

Question 85

Question
10.6.7.0 (201) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
Answer
  • 7700.
  • 7500.
  • 7600.
  • 7000.

Question 86

Question
10.6.7.0 (204) Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Answer
  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
  • Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
  • Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

Question 87

Question
10.7.1.1 (227) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
  • plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

Question 88

Question
10.7.1.1 (231) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
Answer
  • 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
  • 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
  • 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
  • 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195

Question 89

Question
10.7.1.1 (234) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
Answer
  • Not applicable
  • 260 KT IAS
  • 250 KT IAS
  • 250 KT TAS

Question 90

Question
10.7.1.1 (243) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
Answer
  • Airspace D
  • Airspace E
  • Airspace B
  • Airspace A

Question 91

Question
10.7.1.2 (249) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
Answer
  • 5 minutes.
  • 3 minutes.
  • 10 minutes.
  • 15 minutes.

Question 92

Question
10.7.1.2 (250) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
Answer
  • 15 minutes.
  • 10 minutes.
  • 5 minutes.
  • 3 minutes.

Question 93

Question
10.7.1.2 (251) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
Answer
  • 3 minutes.
  • 10 minutes.
  • 5 minutes.
  • 6 minutes.

Question 94

Question
10.7.1.2 (254) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
  • 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
  • 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
  • 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

Question 95

Question
RED 10.7.1.2 (257) What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraftpreceding a 'Light' aircraft
Answer
  • 10 km
  • 6 NM
  • 3 NM
  • 2 km

Question 96

Question
10.7.1.3 (265) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :
Answer
  • below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
  • below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
  • below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
  • cumulonimbus

Question 97

Question
10.7.1.4 (268) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
Answer
  • uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
  • uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

Question 98

Question
10.7.1.5 (272) Alert phase is defined as follows:
Answer
  • A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
  • A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
  • An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
  • A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

Question 99

Question
10.7.3.0 (277) A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
Answer
  • 10 minutes prior to departure.
  • 60 minutes prior to departure.
  • 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
  • 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

Question 100

Question
10.7.3.0 (278) If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:
Answer
  • Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.
  • Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.

Question 101

Question
10.7.3.0 (280) A strayed aircraft is :
Answer
  • an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
  • only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
  • An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
  • only that aircraft which reports that it is lost

Question 102

Question
RED 10.7.3.1 (283) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Answer
  • Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
  • Crossing arms extended above his head.
  • Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
  • Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

Question 103

Question
BLUE 10.7.3.1 (284) In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
Answer
  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

Question 104

Question
10.7.3.1 (286) The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
Answer
  • Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
  • Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.

Question 105

Question
10.7.3.1 (287) Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
Answer
  • The pilot in command.
  • The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
  • The aircraft operator.
  • The ATC.

Question 106

Question
10.7.3.1 (290) In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:
Answer
  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

Question 107

Question
10.7.3.1 (295) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
Answer
  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of theairport.
  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport
  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport.

Question 108

Question
BLUE 10.7.3.1 (296) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
Answer
  • estimated ground speed (G/S).
  • true air speed at 65% power.
  • indicated air speed (IAS).
  • true air speed (TAS).

Question 109

Question
RED 10.7.3.2 (298) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?
Answer
  • Return to the aerodrome of departure.
  • Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
  • Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
  • Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.

Question 110

Question
10.7.3.2 (301) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
Answer
  • The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
  • The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC.
  • He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
  • He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

Question 111

Question
10.7.3.2 (303) Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
Answer
  • Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
  • the weather permits.
  • Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
  • Decided on pilot's discretion.

Question 112

Question
10.7.3.2 (305) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
Answer
  • 2500 feet (750 m).
  • 1000 feet (300 m).
  • 2000 feet (600 m).
  • 500 feet (150 m).

Question 113

Question
RED 10.7.3.2 (306) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
Answer
  • 4000 feet (1200 m).
  • 1000 feet (300 m).
  • 500 feet (150 m).
  • 2000 feet (600 m).

Question 114

Question
RED 10.7.3.2 (309) Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
Answer
  • 3 000 feet.
  • 1 500 feet.
  • 4 000 feet.
  • 2 000 feet.

Question 115

Question
RED 10.7.3.2 (311) A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on track"" way-point. This minimum is:
Answer
  • 20 NM.
  • 50 NM.
  • 80 NM.
  • 60 NM.

Question 116

Question
10.7.3.2 (316) What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
Answer
  • 500 feet
  • 1000 feet
  • 1500 feet
  • 2000 feet

Question 117

Question
10.7.3.2 (317) Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
Answer
  • Above the transition altitude when applicable
  • only in airspace class A
  • When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
  • if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet

Question 118

Question
10.7.3.2 (323) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
Answer
  • 3 minutes
  • 2 minutes
  • 10 minutes
  • 5 minutes

Question 119

Question
10.7.3.2 (325) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
Answer
  • 10 minutes
  • 15 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • 3 minutes

Question 120

Question
RED 10.7.3.3 (331) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
Answer
  • the pilot is following the published approach procedure
  • the aircraft gets radar vectors ,
  • the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,
  • all mentioned answers are correct

Question 121

Question
RED 10.7.3.3 (343) A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
Answer
  • 3.0 NM
  • 1.0 NM
  • 2.0 NM
  • 5.0 NM

Question 122

Question
10.7.3.3 (345) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :
Answer
  • 30 degrees
  • 25 degrees
  • 20 degrees
  • 15 degrees

Question 123

Question
RED 10.7.3.3 (346) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :
Answer
  • 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
  • 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
  • 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar DISPLAY
  • 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

Question 124

Question
10.7.3.4 (352) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
Answer
  • Medium/poor
  • Good
  • Poor
  • Medium

Question 125

Question
10.7.3.4 (355) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?
Answer
  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
  • light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
  • medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

Question 126

Question
10.7.3.4 (357) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by :
Answer
  • 730 m
  • Less than 730 m
  • 760 m
  • Less than 760 m

Question 127

Question
RED 10.7.3.4 (358) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :
Answer
  • 2 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • 3 minutes
  • 1 minute

Question 128

Question
RED 10.7.3.4 (359) In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
Answer
  • 2 minutes
  • 3 minutes
  • 4 minutes
  • 1 minute

Question 129

Question
RED 10.7.3.5 (362) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
Answer
  • 2 minutes
  • 3 minutes
  • 1 minute
  • 5 minutes

Question 130

Question
10.7.3.6 (364) Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
Answer
  • Code 7500.
  • Code 7700.
  • Code 7600
  • Code 2000.

Question 131

Question
10.7.3.6 (365) Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?
Answer
  • Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
  • ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
  • You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
  • Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

Question 132

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (366) What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation"" after you have been vectored to an airway? a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
  • Radar Service is terminated.
  • Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

Question 133

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (367) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
Answer
  • More than 300 ft.
  • 300 ft.
  • +/- 300 ft.
  • More than 200 ft.

Question 134

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (368) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
Answer
  • 2.0 NM.
  • 3.0 NM.
  • 5.0 NM.
  • 1.5 NM.

Question 135

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (374) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:
Answer
  • You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.
  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
  • Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.
  • You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

Question 136

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (389) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
Answer
  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.

Question 137

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (385) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
Answer
  • 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
  • 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

Question 138

Question
BLUE 10.7.3.6 (386) The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
Answer
  • +/- 250 ft.
  • +/- 300 ft.
  • +/- 200 ft.
  • +/- 500 ft.

Question 139

Question
10.7.3.6 (382) When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
Answer
  • Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from ""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"".
  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"".
  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"".
  • To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"".

Question 140

Question
10.7.3.6 (387) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
Answer
  • 3.0 NM.
  • 5.0 NM.
  • 10.0 NM.
  • 3.5 NM.

Question 141

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (388) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
Answer
  • +/- 300 ft.
  • +/- 200 ft.
  • +/- 150 ft.
  • +/- 250 ft.

Question 142

Question
RED 10.7.3.6 (389) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
Answer
  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level
  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

Question 143

Question
10.7.3.6 (391) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
Answer
  • The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
  • The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
  • The aircraft is subject to positive control
  • Position reports may be omitted

Question 144

Question
10.8.1.0 (403) In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
Answer
  • GEN.
  • RAC.
  • COM.
  • MET.

Question 145

Question
RED 10.8.1.0 (418) The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
Answer
  • RED
  • YELLOW
  • GREEN
  • ORANGE

Question 146

Question
10.8.1.0 (419) Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts
Answer
  • Visibility minima
  • DME-frequencies
  • OCH or OCA
  • Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector

Question 147

Question
10.8.1.0 (421) ASHTAM
Answer
  • GVATAM
  • NAVTAM
  • VULTAM
  • 1999-06-08 0:00

Question 148

Question
RED 10.9.1.1 (432) ""TODA"" take-off distance available is: a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
  • The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided).

Question 149

Question
RED 10.9.1.1 (433) ""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to:
Answer
  • Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
  • Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
  • Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
  • Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

Question 150

Question
RED 10.9.1.1 (439) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
Answer
  • An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
  • A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
  • A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
  • An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

Question 151

Question
RED 10.9.1.1 (440) ""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
Answer
  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) .
  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) .
  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
  • The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).

Question 152

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (442) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
Answer
  • Fixed lights showing variable white.
  • Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
  • Flashing white.
  • Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

Question 153

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (443) Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
Answer
  • Flashing green.
  • Flashing white.
  • Fixed green
  • Fixed white.

Question 154

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (448) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
Answer
  • Fixed lights showing green.
  • Fixed lights showing blue
  • Fixed lights showing yellow.
  • Fixed lights showing white

Question 155

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (449) In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
Answer
  • Fixed lights showing variable white.
  • Flashing lights showing variable white.
  • Fixed lights showing variable green.
  • Flashing lights showing variable green.

Question 156

Question
10.9.1.2 (446) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
Answer
  • 300 m.
  • 150 m.
  • 200 m.
  • 250 m.

Question 157

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (454) Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Answer
  • Fixed showing blue.
  • Fixed showing green.
  • Fixed showing yellow.
  • Flashing showing blue.

Question 158

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (455) Runway end lights shall be:
Answer
  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
  • Fixed lights showing variable red.
  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

Question 159

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (456) Runway threshold lights shall be:
Answer
  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
  • Fixed lights green colours.
  • Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

Question 160

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (459) What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II :
Answer
  • 900m
  • 150m
  • 300m
  • 600m

Question 161

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (461) A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:
Answer
  • a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
  • a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
  • a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
  • a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

Question 162

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (462) When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at :
Answer
  • 300 m from threshold
  • 150 m from threshold
  • 450 m from threshold
  • 600 m from threshold

Question 163

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (463) Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :
Answer
  • of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,
  • always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
  • of flashing lights only,
  • of an arbitrary amount of green lights,

Question 164

Question
RED 10.9.1.2 (464) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
Answer
  • 900 metres
  • 420 metres
  • 1000 metres
  • 1200 metres

Question 165

Question
RED 21.1.5.0 (555) On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:
Answer
  • will wear at the shoulders
  • it's tread will deteriorate faster
  • will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
  • will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

Question 166

Question
RED 21.1.8.3 (602) If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
Answer
  • decreases
  • increases
  • remains constant
  • may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.

Question 167

Question
RED 21.1.8.3 (620) The ""cabin differential pressure"" is: a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
  • approximately 5 psi at maximum.
  • approximately 15 psi at maximum.
  • the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

Question 168

Question
RED 21.3.3.2 (958) In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:
Answer
  • rotor - stator
  • stator - stator - rotor
  • rotor - rotor - stator
  • stator - rotor

Question 169

Question
RED 21.4.5.0 (1097) In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
Answer
  • 100%
  • normal.
  • emergency.
  • on demand.

Question 170

Question
RED 22.1.1.1 (1119) A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to :
Answer
  • react like an altimeter
  • read a little high.
  • read a little low.
  • freeze at zero.

Question 171

Question
RED 22.1.1.1 (1120) A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s) :
Answer
  • altimeter only.
  • airspeed indicator only.
  • vertical speed indicator only.
  • airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

Question 172

Question
RED 22.1.1.2 (1126) If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will:
Answer
  • continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured
  • under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blocked
  • over-read
  • gradually return to zero

Question 173

Question
RED 22.1.1.2 (1123) The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:
Answer
  • position pressure error.
  • barometric error.
  • instrument error.
  • hysteresis effect.

Question 174

Question
RED 22.1.1.2 (1124) If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
Answer
  • continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured
  • gradually indicate zero
  • under-read
  • indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

Question 175

Question
RED 22.1.1.2 (1133) The density altitude is :
Answer
  • the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere
  • the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard temperature
  • the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point
  • the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

Question 176

Question
RED 22.1.1.2 (1135) When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :
Answer
  • overread.
  • underread.
  • be just as correct as before.
  • show the actual height above ground.

Question 177

Question
RED 22.1.1.2 (1136) At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed : a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • +/-60 feet
  • +/-75 feet
  • +/-30 feet
  • +/-70 feet

Question 178

Question
RED 22.1.1.2 (1138) The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :
Answer
  • the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
  • the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system
  • the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board
  • both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

Question 179

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1146) A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:
Answer
  • under-read.
  • over-read.
  • over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
  • under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

Question 180

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1148) If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
Answer
  • over-read
  • read zero
  • continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
  • under-read

Question 181

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1149) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS) :
Answer
  • an instrument and position/pressure error correction.
  • an antenna and compressibility correction.
  • and instrument and density correction.
  • a compressibility and density correction.

Question 182

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1150) VNO is the maximum speed :
Answer
  • not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
  • which must never be exceeded.
  • with flaps extended in landing position
  • at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

Question 183

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1152) VLO is the maximum :
Answer
  • speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
  • flight speed with landing gear down.
  • speed with flaps extended in a given position.
  • cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

Question 184

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1154) With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a :
Answer
  • decreasing speed.
  • constant speed.
  • increasing speed.
  • fluctuating speed.

Question 185

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1159) After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed :
Answer
  • decreases steadily
  • increases abruptly towards VNE
  • increases steadily
  • decreases abruptly towards zero

Question 186

Question
RED 22.1.1.3 (1160) During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :
Answer
  • increases steadily
  • increases abruptly towards VNE
  • decreases stadily
  • decreases abruptly towards zero

Question 187

Question
RED 22.1.1.4 (1176) The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
Answer
  • 661 kt.
  • 1059 kt.
  • 644 kt.
  • 332 kt.

Question 188

Question
RED 22.1.2.4 (1224) A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
Answer
  • Contains its own separate gyro
  • Only works of there is a complete electrical failure
  • Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation
  • Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails

Question 189

Question
RED 22.1.2.5 (1236) The rate-of-turn is the:
Answer
  • yaw rate in a turn
  • change-of-heading rate of the aircraft
  • aircraft speed in a turn
  • pitch rate in a turn

Question 190

Question
RED 22.1.4.0 (1282) During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:
Answer
  • height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
  • height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
  • height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
  • altitude of the aircraft.

Question 191

Question
RED 22.1.5.0 (1284) The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:
Answer
  • weather situation.
  • piloting.
  • engines and alarms.
  • systems.

Question 192

Question
RED 22.2.2.0 (1326) An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...:
Answer
  • ""OPERATIONAL""
  • ""PASSIVE""
  • ""SAFE""
  • ""REDUNDANT"

Question 193

Question
RED 22.2.2.0 (1327) An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL....""
Answer
  • ""PASSIVE""
  • ""OPERATIONAL""
  • ""SAFE""
  • ""REDUNDANT""

Question 194

Question
RED 22.3.3.0 (1377) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:
Answer
  • 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
  • 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
  • 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

Question 195

Question
RED 22.3.3.0 (1375) The GPWS calculator receives the following signals : 1 - vertical speed 2 - radio altimeter height 3 - pressure altitude 4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps position 6 - angle of attack The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
Answer
  • 1,2,5,6
  • 1,2,4,5
  • 1,3,4,5,6
  • 2,3,4,6

Question 196

Question
22.3.3.0 (1376) The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes : 1- excessive descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure 3- excessive angle of attack 4- too high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off 6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 7- excessive glidepath deviation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answer
  • 1,2,5,6,7
  • 3,4,5,6
  • 1,2,4,6,7
  • 2,3,5,7

Question 197

Question
RED 22.3.3.0 (1383) A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of : 1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS. 2 - dangerous ground proximity. 3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach. 4 - wrong landing configuration. 5 - descent below glidepath, within limits. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • 2,3,4,5
  • 2
  • 1,3,4
  • 2,5

Question 198

Question
RED 22.3.3.0 (1384) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from :
Answer
  • the ground to 1 000 ft
  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft
  • 30 ft to 5 000 ft
  • the ground to 500 ft

Question 199

Question
RED 22.3.3.0 (1385) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases : 1- excessive rate of descent 2- excessive ground proximity rate 3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around 4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 5- excessive deviation under the glidepath 6- abnormal airbrakes configuration The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answer
  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  • 2, 4, 5, 6
  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
  • 3, 4, 5, 6

Question 200

Question
RED 22.3.3.0 (1388) The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are: 1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter 3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope) 4- NAV/VOR 5- Flap (position) 6- Angle of Attack 7- Landing Gear (position)The combination of correct statement is:
Answer
  • 1,2,3,5,7
  • 2,3,4,5,7
  • 1,2,5,6,7
  • 1,2,5, 8 7
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