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Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide

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Veterinary Medicine Quiz on Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide, created by Kelly Kinsinger on 11/10/2018.
Kelly Kinsinger
Quiz by Kelly Kinsinger, updated more than 1 year ago
Kelly Kinsinger
Created by Kelly Kinsinger about 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Anesthetic agents and adjuncts can be classified by which of the following?
Answer
  • Route of administration, time period at which they are given, and tidal volume they require
  • Route of administration, time period at which they are given, according to the principal effect, chemistry, and tidal volume they require
  • Route of administration, according to the principal effect, chemistry, and tidal volume they require
  • Route of administration, time period at which they are given, according to the principal effect, and chemistry

Question 2

Question
Any drug that is utilized to induce loss of sensation with or without unconsciousness is known as a(n):
Answer
  • neuromuscular blocker.
  • reversal agent.
  • anesthetic agent.
  • adjunct agent.

Question 3

Question
The common effect of depression and/or stimulation, seen in a patient, after the administration of an anesthetic agent is due to:
Answer
  • pharmacokinetics.
  • pharmacodynamics.
  • pharmacoagents.
  • pharmacometabolism.

Question 4

Question
When acting upon the central nervous system, those agents that bind to more than one receptor type, and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one, are referred to as:
Answer
  • agonist–antagonists.
  • partial agonists.
  • antagonists.
  • agonists.

Question 5

Question
Yohimbine, tolazoline, and atipamezole are best categorized as:
Answer
  • opioid agonists.
  • opioid antagonists.
  • alpha2-agonists.
  • alpha2-antagonists.

Question 6

Question
Incompatible mixtures of anesthetic agents and adjuncts, when combined in the same syringe, can cause which of the following?
Answer
  • Change in dissociation
  • Change in water solubility
  • Change in chemistry
  • Change in physical dependency

Question 7

Question
In the United States, the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) is enforced by the:
Answer
  • RCMP.
  • DEA.
  • AAHA.
  • AVMA.

Question 8

Question
Parasympatholytics are:
Answer
  • noncontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to prevent and treat bradycardia and salivary secretions.
  • controlled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to prevent and treat bradycardia and salivary secretions.
  • controlled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to induce bradycardia.
  • noncontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to induce bradycardia.

Question 9

Question
Drugs such as atropine and glycopyrrolate function in what way?
Answer
  • Act on the CNS and reverse and prevent sympathetic effects
  • Act on the PNS and reverse and prevent sympathetic effects
  • Act on the CNS and reverse and prevent parasympathetic effects
  • Act on the PNS and reverse and prevent parasympathetic effects

Question 10

Question
Effects including arrhythmias and tachycardia, thickening of secretions, bronchodilation, and mydriasis are most likely to be seen with the use of which drug?
Answer
  • Acepromazine
  • Atipamezole
  • Atropine
  • Antisedan

Question 11

Question
The three classes of tranquilizers and sedatives that are often used in veterinary medicine include:
Answer
  • phenothiazines, benzodiazepines, and alfaxalone agonists.
  • phenothiazines, benzodiazepines, and alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists.
  • phenothiazines, barbiturates, and alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists.
  • phenothiazines, barbiturates, and alfaxalone agonists.

Question 12

Question
Post administration of acepromazine, a patient is noted to have an increased heart rate and decreased core temperature. To which common side effect is this attributed?
Answer
  • Peripheral vasodilation
  • Antiarrhythmic effect
  • Penile prolapse
  • Excitement

Question 13

Question
Which of the following groups of drugs, also referred to as minor tranquilizers, are commonly used for their sedative, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant properties?
Answer
  • Alpha2-agonists
  • Opioids
  • Phenothiazines
  • Benzodiazepines

Question 14

Question
Which benzodiazepine is most likely to cause irritation and pain when administered intramuscularly (IM)?
Answer
  • Telazol®
  • Zolazepam
  • Diazepam
  • Midazolam

Question 15

Question
Benzodiazepines exert their primary effects by increasing the activity of the:
Answer
  • CNS
  • GABA
  • CSA
  • DEA

Question 16

Question
The appropriate antagonist to use with benzodiazepines is:
Answer
  • flumazenil.
  • atipamezole.
  • yohimbine.
  • tolazoline.

Question 17

Question
The most appropriate route of administration for alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists is:
Answer
  • orally (PO) or subcutaneous (SC).
  • subcutaneous (SC) or intramuscular (IM).
  • intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV).
  • subcutaneous (SC) or intravenous (IV).

Question 18

Question
Due to their primary metabolic and excretion pathways, caution should be used when administering alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists to patients with which of the following conditions?
Answer
  • Hepatitis and renal dysfunction
  • Renal dysfunction and pruritis
  • Hepatitis and cardiovascular disease
  • Pruritis and cardiovascular disease

Question 19

Question
The most common cardiac arrhythmia observed in which of the following IV administration of alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists?
Answer
  • First- and fifth-degree AV block
  • Second- and fifth-degree AV block
  • First- and second-degree AV block
  • Fifth-degree AV block only

Question 20

Question
During administration of dexmedetomidine, bradycardia is noted. When taking treatment options into consideration, the most appropriate is administration of:
Answer
  • acepromazine.
  • anticholinergics.
  • atipamezole.
  • ketamine.

Question 21

Question
The three major types of opioid receptors are:
Answer
  • mu, kappa, and delta.
  • mu, kappa, and gamma.
  • delta, gamma, and omega.
  • delta, kappa, and omega.

Question 22

Question
In regard to opioids, pure antagonists are known to:
Answer
  • partially stimulate the opioid receptors.
  • not stimulate the mu receptors; they only stimulate the kappa receptors.
  • bind to and stimulate the mu or kappa receptors.
  • bind to but not stimulate mu or kappa receptors.

Question 23

Question
Due to their tendency to increase intraocular and intracranial pressure, it is best to avoid the use of opioids in patients with which of the following conditions?
Answer
  • Mandibular fracture
  • CNS disorders
  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Otitis externa

Question 24

Question
A state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer is referred to as:
Answer
  • general anesthesia.
  • vagally induced bradycardia.
  • renarcotization.
  • neuroleptanalgesia.

Question 25

Question
In regard to narcotics, naloxone can be used for the reversal of:
Answer
  • agonists, partial agonists, or agonist–antagonists.
  • agonists and partial agonists only.
  • partial agonists and agonist–antagonists only.
  • agonist–antagonists only.

Question 26

Question
Drugs that have the ability to produce unconsciousness when given alone are characterized as:
Answer
  • disruptive anesthetics.
  • injectable anesthetics.
  • reversible anesthetics.
  • induction anesthetics.

Question 27

Question
The tendency of a drug to dissolve in fats, oils, or lipids is referred to as:
Answer
  • lipid solubility.
  • protein binding.
  • tissue redistribution.
  • lipid agonists.

Question 28

Question
After administration of propofol, blood flow is responsible for distribution throughout the body and results in which organ system receiving the highest concentration?
Answer
  • Fat
  • Muscle
  • Gastrointestinal tract
  • Brain

Question 29

Question
High doses and rapid administration of propofol are known to cause:
Answer
  • diarrhea.
  • Heinz bodies.
  • apnea.
  • anorexia.

Question 30

Question
Etomidate is best defined as an:
Answer
  • ultrashort-acting nonbarbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
  • ultrashort-acting, controlled, nonbarbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
  • ultrashort-acting barbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
  • ultrashort-acting, controlled, barbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects.

Question 31

Question
After administration of etomidate, which organ is it possible to see depressed for several hours?
Answer
  • Cardiovascular
  • Adrenal gland
  • Respiratory
  • CNS

Question 32

Question
Proper handling and use of alfaxalone and propofol include:
Answer
  • refrigeration.
  • subcutaneous injection as a premedication.
  • intramuscular injection as a CRI.
  • antiseptic technique.

Question 33

Question
Post administration of alfaxalone, it is important to monitor the patient for:
Answer
  • excitement during recovery.
  • hypertension.
  • muscle rigidity.
  • excitement during induction.

Question 34

Question
Which common class of controlled drugs was developed during the 1930s–1950s and was commonly used as general anesthetics?
Answer
  • Narcotics
  • Barbiturates
  • Alpha2-antagonists
  • Opiates

Question 35

Question
The most common use of pentobarbital is:
Answer
  • as a sedative in dogs and cats.
  • control of seizures in horses.
  • as a euthanasia agent.
  • control of seizures in dogs and cats.

Question 36

Question
The most commonly utilized dissociative anesthetic in veterinary medicine is:
Answer
  • morphine.
  • sevoflurane.
  • phencyclidine.
  • ketamine.

Question 37

Question
Dissociative anesthetics should be used with caution in patients with what underlying metabolic condition due to their redistribution and metabolism properties?
Answer
  • Hepatic insufficiency
  • Cardiac insufficiency
  • Neurologic insufficiency
  • Respiratory insufficiency

Question 38

Question
While ketamine is widely used in veterinary medicine, it is currently licensed for use in which species?
Answer
  • Equine
  • Feline
  • Canine
  • Exotics

Question 39

Question
The most common cardiac changes associated with administration of dissociative anesthetics are:
Answer
  • decreased heart rate and output.
  • decreased heart rate and mean arterial pressure.
  • increased heart rate and output.
  • increased heart rate and decreased mean arterial pressure.

Question 40

Question
Tiletamine is sold only in combination with what other drug?
Answer
  • Diazepam
  • Midazolam
  • Lorazepam
  • Zolazepam

Question 41

Question
Dissociatives exert their effects by acting upon:
Answer
  • NMDA receptors.
  • β-endorphin receptors.
  • mu receptors.
  • delta receptors.

Question 42

Question
Which noncontrolled dissociative, commonly used for large animal medicine, has no anesthetic or analgesic properties when used alone?
Answer
  • Ketamine
  • Guaifenesin
  • Tiletamine
  • Telazol

Question 43

Question
The first clinically used inhalation anesthetic was:
Answer
  • chloroform.
  • nitrous oxide.
  • diethyl ether.
  • halothane.

Question 44

Question
The principal organ(s) involved in the elimination of halogenated compounds is(are):
Answer
  • brain.
  • liver
  • kidneys
  • lungs

Question 45

Question
Halogenated compounds readily enter the brain due to what factor?
Answer
  • High lipid solubility
  • Alveoli partial pressure
  • Concentration gradient
  • Diffusion

Question 46

Question
When halogenated agents are exposed to desiccated carbon dioxide absorbent, the results include:
Answer
  • carbon dioxide production.
  • carbon monoxide production.
  • oxygen production.
  • water production.

Question 47

Question
Decreased renal blood flow can be seen when using inhalation agents, secondary to which side effect?
Answer
  • Depressed ventilation
  • Hypothermia
  • Depressed cardiovascular function
  • Muscle fasciculations

Question 48

Question
Vapor pressure is best defined as:
Answer
  • the amount of pressure exerted by the gaseous form of a substance when the gas and liquid states are in equilibrium.
  • both agent and temperature dependent.
  • how readily the liquid condenses in the anesthetic machine.
  • the causative agent for use of a precision vaporizer.

Question 49

Question
Which of the following is responsible for the speed of induction and recovery of a patient?
Answer
  • Vapor pressure
  • Blood–gas partition coefficient
  • Sponge effect
  • MAC

Question 50

Question
During a surgical process, anesthetic agent Z (MAC = 1.3%) was delivered at a setting of 1.3%. Utilizing the theory of MAC, how many dogs out of ten would respond to painful stimuli?
Answer
  • Three dogs
  • Five dogs
  • Seven dogs
  • None

Question 51

Question
Isoflurane is labeled for use in:
Answer
  • exotics.
  • zoo animals.
  • cats.
  • horses.

Question 52

Question
Sevoflurane is labeled for use in:
Answer
  • exotics
  • zoo animals
  • cats
  • dogs

Question 53

Question
Which of the following inhalant anesthetics are going to produce the fastest induction and recovery based on their blood–gas partition coefficient?
Answer
  • Desflurane/0.42
  • Sevoflurane/0.68
  • Isoflurane/1.46
  • Methoxyflurane/15.0

Question 54

Question
The primary reason for the use of nitrous oxide with other inhalant anesthetics is:
Answer
  • it is gas at room temperature.
  • it is easily administered with a flowmeter.
  • it reduces MAC by 20% to 30%.
  • it does not require a vaporizer.

Question 55

Question
Doxapram is best categorized as an:
Answer
  • alpha2-antagonist.
  • analeptic agent.
  • alpha2-agonist.
  • opioid antagonist.
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