Copy and Edit

Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems

Description

Genetic Counseling Quiz on Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems, created by Bailey Sanderson on 03/12/2018.
Bailey Sanderson
Quiz by Bailey Sanderson, updated more than 1 year ago
Bailey Sanderson
Created by Bailey Sanderson almost 6 years ago
9
1
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
All of the following are true about somites except:
Answer
  • They begin to develop in the 6th week
  • They form the craniocaudal sequence for the embryo and are the origin of most of the axial skeleton and associated musculature
  • They develop from the paraxial mesoderm as the neural tube is forming
  • They differentiate into 2 parts, the sclerotome and dermomyotome
  • They appear as bead-like elevations along the dorsolateral surface of the embryo

Question 2

Question
Which of the following structures will eventually form vertebrae and ribs?
Answer
  • Notochord
  • Sclerotome
  • Dermomyotome
  • Meningotome

Question 3

Question
Which answer best describes the kind of bones developed through intramembranous ossification?
Answer
  • Femurs and Humerus
  • Rubs and Sternum
  • Flat bones of the Calvaria/Skullcap, Maxilla, Mandible
  • Malleus, Incus, Stapes, Hyoid

Question 4

Question
All of the following are considered to be lethal birth defects except:
Answer
  • Anecephaly
  • Bilateral renal agensis
  • Pierre Robin sequence
  • Thanatophoric dysplasia

Question 5

Question
All of the following are true regarding Rickets except:
Answer
  • It ca be due to vitamin D deficiency and hypophosphatemia
  • Affected individuals have short stature
  • Affected individuals have abnormal appearing bones/limbs aside from just short stature
  • Affected individuals rarely have other clinical manifestations
  • There are both recessive and X-linked forms

Question 6

Question
Which of the following ultrasound findings is not associated with renal agenesis?
Answer
  • Contractures
  • Brachycephaly
  • Anyhdramnios/Oligohydramnios
  • Absent blood flow to renal arteries

Question 7

Question
Which type of joint is capable of secreting protective fluid to cushion the surrounding bones?
Answer
  • Fibrous joint
  • Cartilaginous joint
  • Synovial joint

Question 8

Question
All of the following are part of the axial skeleton except:
Answer
  • Cranium
  • Vertebral column
  • Ribs
  • Clavicles
  • Sternum

Question 9

Question
In the 5th week the sclerotomes in the vertebral column have loosely arranged cells cranially and densely packed cells caudally. By the ___ week the vertebra are in the cartilaginous stage, arranging bone models and by the ___ week ossification beings. By ___ the bony halves are fused.
Answer
  • 6th, 7th, 3-5 years of life
  • 6th, 10th, the end of the 1st year of life
  • 8th, 12th, birth
  • 8th, 9th, 3-5 years of life

Question 10

Question
All of the following birth defects can be features of Down syndrome except:
Answer
  • Congenital heart defects
  • Pyelectasis
  • Macroglossia
  • Splayed cerebellum/banana sign
  • Congenital megacolon/Hirschsprung's

Question 11

Question
Which structure(s) describe where the cranial sutures meet and enable the bones of the skull to undergo shape changes during birth?
Answer
  • Fontanelles
  • Calvaria
  • Fibrous neurocranium
  • Hyaline cartilage

Question 12

Question
The increase in the size of the skull bones is greatest during which period?
Answer
  • Embryonic period
  • Fetal period
  • Birth-2 years
  • 3 to 5 years

Question 13

Question
All of the following statements are true regarding sex determination except:
Answer
  • The female phenotype requires 2 X chromosomes
  • The male phenotype requires a functional Y chromosome
  • Ovarian and testicular development being around the same embryonic age
  • Hormones are required for male sex determination but not for female sex determination

Question 14

Question
Which of the following causes a long, wedge shaped cranium caused by early closer of the sagittal suture and is the most common type of idiopathic/isolated craniosynostosis?
Answer
  • Scaphocephaly
  • Brachycephaly
  • Plagiocephaly
  • Trignocephaly

Question 15

Question
The most common type of skeletal dysplasia is:
Answer
  • Camptomelic dysplasia
  • Chondrodypslasia punctata
  • Achondroplasia
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta

Question 16

Question
The myotome regions of the somites form _______ and the splanchnic mesoderm forms ______.
Answer
  • Limb muscles; head and neck muscles
  • Skeletal muscles; cardiac and smooth muscles
  • Head and neck muscles; skeletal muscles
  • Cardiac and smooth muscles; limb muscles

Question 17

Question
Which of the following is a risk factor for having a child with a skeletal dysplasia?
Answer
  • Advanced maternal age
  • Advanced paternal age
  • Maternal age <25 years old
  • Uncontrolled type 2 diabetes

Question 18

Question
The appearance and number of sites is used to determine embryonic age.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 19

Question
Intramembranous ossification occurs within a membranous sheath without prior cartilage formation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
Endochondral ossification occurs in preexisting bone models made from cartilage tissue.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 21

Question
Both the diaphyses (center bones) and epiphyses (ends of bone) remain cartilaginous throughout childhood/adolescence until bone growth is completed.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 22

Question
Prenatal detection methods can rarely detect forms of skeletal dysplasia.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
Hyaline cartilage is the most widely distributed throughout the body (ie joints).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 24

Question
Joints develop from condensed mesenchyme and by 8 weeks resemble adult joints.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
Short long bones identified on ultrasound can be a marker for skeletal dysplasia as well as for Down syndrome.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
The FGFR3 gene is implicated in craniosynostosis syndromes but not skeletal dysplasias.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 27

Question
Accessory ribs, absence and/or variation of muscles, and unilateral multicycstic dysplastic kidneys are early common findings and usually of no clinical significance.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 28

Question
The micro deletion in DiGeorge/Velocardiofacial syndrome is [blank_start]22q11.2[blank_end]
Answer
  • 22q11.2

Question 29

Question
A potential cause of arthrogryoposis/joint contractors is [blank_start]CT anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]neuropathic disorders[blank_end]; [blank_start]anhydramnios[blank_end]
Answer
  • CT anomalies
  • neuropathic disorders
  • anhydramnios

Question 30

Question
Describe 3 clinical features of CHARGE syndrome: [blank_start]coloboma[blank_end]; [blank_start]heart disease[blank_end]; [blank_start]atresia choanae[blank_end]; [blank_start]restricted growth[blank_end]; [blank_start]genital anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]ear anomalies[blank_end]
Answer
  • coloboma
  • heart disease
  • atresia choanae
  • restricted growth
  • genital anomalies
  • ear anomalies

Question 31

Question
Describe 3 clinical features of VACTERL association: [blank_start]vertebral anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]anal atresia[blank_end]; [blank_start]cardiovascular anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]tracheoesophageal fistula[blank_end]; [blank_start]esophageal atresia[blank_end]; [blank_start]renal anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]limb defects[blank_end]
Answer
  • limb defects
  • renal anomalies
  • esophageal atresia
  • tracheoesophageal fistula
  • cardiovascular anomalies
  • anal atresia
  • vertebral anomalies

Question 32

Question
[blank_start]Poland sequence[blank_end] is a condition characterized by absence of the pectorals major muscle that results in hypo plastic fused ribs, unilateral absence of breast nipple, areola, hemivertebrae, syndactyly, brachydactylyl, and in some cases dextrocardia.
Answer
  • Poland sequence

Question 33

Question
The most common cytogenetic abnormality observed in spontaneously aborted fetuses is [blank_start]45,X[blank_end].
Answer
  • 45,X

Question 34

Question
A physiological omphalocele should be resolved by the [blank_start]10[blank_end]th week of gestation.
Answer
  • 10

Question 35

Question
A MSAFP value above [blank_start]2.50[blank_end] MoM will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates an increased risk for neural tube/abdominal wall defects.
Answer
  • 2.50

Question 36

Question
A nuchal translucency (NT) measurement greater than [blank_start]3[blank_end] mm will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates a greater than 20% chance for an underlying chromosome abnormality.
Answer
  • 3
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

Cytogenetics, Genetic Counseling, and Risk Assessment
Farrah
PE 1 Multi Choice Questions
Cath Warriner
GCSE Chemistry C1 - Carbon Chemistry ATOMS, MOLECULES AND COMPOUNDS (Easy)
T W
Physics P1
Phoebe Drew
GCSE AQA Chemistry Atomic Structure and Bonding
mustafizk
Physics P3 Fashcards
Holly Bamford
Plant and animal cells
Tyra Peters
Study Tips to Improve your Learning
miminoma
Macbeth Essay Notes
Mel M
GCSE Revision Tips
miminoma
Procedimientos Operacionales
Adriana Forero
Browse Library