NMAT - Biology

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NMAT Reviewer 2018
Ian Geron
Quiz by Ian Geron, updated more than 1 year ago
Ian Geron
Created by Ian Geron over 5 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
An erythrocyte is placed in a beaker with a hypertonic solution. What do you think will happen to the cell after several minutes?
Answer
  • It will crenate.
  • It will plasmolyze.
  • It will become turgid.
  • It will become flaccid.

Question 2

Question
For a few women, normal pregnancy is not possible because of some anatomical and physiological abnormalities. Nowadays, the practice of in vitro fertilization is widely used. This involves the extraction of the secondary oocyte from a woman. The oocyte is then placed in a petri dish. The fertilization and early development occur in vitro (in glass). Arrange the following statements to complete the process of in vitro fertilization. I. It is necessary for the woman to lie down for several hours. II. The embryo is then transferred into the uterus of the female. III. The embryo will be removed from the petri dish. IV. A sperm cell is introduced in the petri dish for germination.
Answer
  • IV - I - III - II
  • IV - II - III - I
  • IV - I - II - III
  • IV - III - II - I

Question 3

Question
Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?
Answer
  • as transport vesicles
  • cell-to-cell communication
  • cell-to-cell recognition site
  • attachment to the cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix

Question 4

Question
Lymphocytes, a subclass of white blood cells, are divided into two types: B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes. What is the role of B-lymphocytes?
Answer
  • chemical defense
  • non-specific defense
  • humoral immune response
  • cell-mediated immune response

Question 5

Question
Mutation is the alteration of the form of a particular gene or chromosome that results in new trait to be inherited. Mutations can occur in chromosome structure or chromosome number. Several types of gene mutations may occur, such as insertion and deletion. Here are examples of changes applied in a sentence: Insertion of "I" THE CAT AND DOG RUN THE CAI AND DOG RUN Deletion of "E" THE CAT AND DOG RUN TH CAT AND DOG RUN From the given examples, we can classify these mutations as
Answer
  • point mutations
  • frameshift mutations
  • carcinogenic mutations
  • none of the above choices

Question 6

Question
Population density is described as population size per unit area/volume. In population density, two kinds of factors are being considered: dependent and independent factors. Which of the following is NOT a density independent factor?
Answer
  • diseases
  • forest fires
  • hurricane
  • climate change

Question 7

Question
Living organisms have the ability to maintain a stable internal environment and transform from an immature to a mature functional form. These attributes are _____________________.
Answer
  • adaptation and growth, respectively
  • homeostasis and growth, respectively
  • adaptation and development, respectively
  • homeostasis and development, respectively

Question 8

Question
Which of the following derivative meristems develops into vascular tissue?
Answer
  • protoderm
  • procambium
  • cork cambium
  • ground meristem

Question 9

Question
Based on the taxonomic classification of organisms, which of the following pairs of organisms is MOSTLY related?
Answer
  • turtle and snake
  • shark and milkfish
  • yeast and mushroom
  • water mold and bread mold

Question 10

Question
Vitiligo is a disorder in which melanocytes (cells that produce melanin pigment) are unable to function. As a result, white patches appear on the skin. Albinism is a chromosomal mutation that may result in the cessation of melanin production or a considerable decline in the amount of melanin. A man who is an intermediate albino (Aa) with vitiligo (Bb) marries a woman who is an albino (aa) but has normal skin (bb). What percent of their offspring is considered as purebred?
Answer
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Question 11

Question
Because of the differences in the surface of blood cells that act as antigens, human blood is classified into four different blood types, namely A, B, AB, and O. Blood type AB is also known as the "universal recipient" because _____________________.
Answer
  • it has antibody against A and B
  • it has no antibody against A and B
  • it has antigen A and antibody against B
  • it has antigen B and antibody against A

Question 12

Question
Which of the following Kingdoms of life has genetic material that is exposed to its cytoplasm?
Answer
  • Kingdom Fungi
  • Kingdom Plantae
  • Kingdom Monera
  • Kingdom Protista

Question 13

Question
Developmental biology deals with the study of the development of animals. It also deals with the processes involved in the transformation of fertilized egg to a more complex individual. Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of the development of a simple cell to a more complex organism?
Answer
  • fertilization - gametogenesis - gastrulation - cleavage - organogenesis - growth and histological differentiation
  • gametogenesis - fertilization - cleavage - gastrulation - growth and histological differentiation - organogenesis
  • fertilization - gametogenesis - cleavage - gastrulation - growth and histological differentiation - organogenesis
  • gametogenesis - fertilization - cleavage - gastrulation - organogenesis - growth and histological differentiation

Question 14

Question
Biome is defined as an ecological community dominated with distinctive plants and animals. Which of the following types of biomes has the greatest number and diverse kinds of species?
Answer
  • taiga
  • estuary
  • savannah
  • tropical rainforest

Question 15

Question
The life cycle of plants includes the alternation of generation, also known as diplohaplontic life cycle. All of the following have a dominant diploid sporophyte EXCEPT ___________________________.
Answer
  • ferns
  • mosses
  • pine trees
  • common weeds

Question 16

Question
A diploid cell has 28 chromosomes. When meiosis occurs, how many chromosomes are there during Prophase I?
Answer
  • 14 chromosomes
  • 28 chromosomes
  • 56 chromosomes
  • 84 chromosomes

Question 17

Question
In order to maintain the beating of the heart, the pacemaker located at the heart's right atrium transfers impulses through the two atria, causing atrial systole and eventually, ventricular systole. Which of the following is the "pacemaker" of the heart?
Answer
  • bundle of His
  • sinoatrial node
  • coronary artery
  • atrioventricular node

Question 18

Question
Which of the following is closest to the enter of a woody eudicot stem?
Answer
  • primary xylem
  • primary phloem
  • secondary xylem
  • secondary phloem

Question 19

Question
The dwarf water buffalo and the maple tree have eukaryotic type of cells. Which of the following organelles is present in the cells of the dwarf water buffalo but absent in the cells of the maple tree?
Answer
  • nucleus
  • centriole
  • cell wall
  • cell membrane

Question 20

Question
Which of the following apples will ripen the fastest?
Answer
  • an apple often flushed with carbon dioxide
  • an apple with an ethylene-releasing banana enclosed in a bag
  • an apple with a beaker of an ethylene-releasing chemical in a plastic bag
  • Choices b and c

Question 21

Question
Organogenesis is the process involved in the formation of organs. Along with this process, the cells choose to become a particular type of cell that will function for a specific organ. This process is called differentiation. Which of the following statements are TRUE about a differentiated cell? I. A differentiated cell utilizes a particular set of proteins to perform its function. II. Cells that are differentiated assume a specific shape to function effectively to the tissue it belongs. III. When the cell differentiates, it deactivates for some time to regenerate the energy and materials spent during differentiation. IV. Muscle cells, nerve cells, and red blood cells are examples of differentiated cells.
Answer
  • I and II
  • I, II, and III
  • I, II, and IV
  • All of the choices

Question 22

Question
The DNA sequence below shows the segment of the gene for human hemoglobin starting with amino acid residue 24. Normal: 5' AGT TGG TGG TGA GGC CCT GGC CAG GCT 3' Which of the following amino acid sequences will change the proline at position 29 to valine, making the sequence mutant? Use the following amino acid sequence: Valine - GTT, GTC Arginine - AGA, AGG Alanine - GCT, GCC Proline - CCT, CGA
Answer
  • 3' AGT TGG TGG GTT GGC CCT GGC CAG GCT 5'
  • 5' AGT TGG GTC TGA GGC CCT GGC CAG GCT 3'
  • 3' AGT TGG TGG TGA GGC GTC GGC CAG GCT 5'
  • 5' AGT TGG TGG TGA GGC GTC GGC CAG GCT 3'

Question 23

Question
Specialized cells that no longer divide are generally locked in which stage of the cell cycle?
Answer
  • G1 phase
  • G2 phase
  • G0 phase
  • S phase

Question 24

Question
The naming of organisms follows the Linnaeus binomial system. Which of the following is the CORRECT way of writing the scientific name of tomatoes?

Question 25

Question
In the process of biological magnification, toxins that are harmful become more concentrated in the successive trophic levels of a food web. The pesticides dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) and polychlorinated biphenols (PCBs) are well-known examples of this. Which of the following organisms will receive the MOST concentration of these harmful substances in their body system?
Answer
  • snakes
  • small fishes
  • zooplanktons
  • fish-eating birds

Question 26

Question
Incomplete dominance is characterized by a cross between a homozygous dominant and recessive genes that will result in an intermediate trait. Assume the following sets of genes in a human being: B - black-colored pupil HH - straight hair bb - blue-colored pupil Hh - wavy hair hh - curly hair A husband and wife, BBHH x bbHh, wants to know the probability of having a child with blue-colored pupil wavy hair. What will you tell them?
Answer
  • These is a 25% chance that the offspring will have blue-colored pupils and wavy hair.
  • There is a 50% chance that the offspring will have blue-colored pupils and wavy hair.
  • There is no chance that the offspring will have blue-colored pupils and wavy hair.
  • Impossible to determine

Question 27

Question
Which of the following substances will easily cross the cell membrane?
Answer
  • starch
  • sodium ion
  • chloride ion
  • carbon dioxide

Question 28

Question
Progesterone is a substance that prepares the endometrium in the uterus for implantation of fertilized egg. Where is this substance secreted?
Answer
  • infundibulum
  • corpus luteum
  • Graafian follicle
  • seminiferous tubule

Question 29

Question
Biologist Charles Darwin emphasized that evolution can best be explained as a consequence of natural selection. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes Darwin's "Natural Selection"?
Answer
  • Chance events results in a change of allele frequencies.
  • As the conditions of nature change, individuals that are fittest and most adaptable will survive and evolve.
  • Populations exchange members to converge toward one another.
  • As the organism continues to use a certain part of its body, it enlarges or elongates.

Question 30

Question
Which of the following is NOT achieved by the cell after cleavage?
Answer
  • formation of blastula
  • increase in cell number
  • development of the neutral crest
  • increase in the amount of genetic material

Question 31

Question
One of the processes that enables cells to harvest the energy stored in food is cellular respiration. Which of the following is FALSE?
Answer
  • It is a catabolic pathway.
  • It is an anabolic pathway.
  • It is an oxidation-reduction process.
  • It occurs in the mitochondria of cells.

Question 32

Question
A unicellular organism undergoes ________________ when its cell divides.
Answer
  • growth
  • development
  • reproduction
  • all of the choices

Question 33

Question
Turner syndrome is a disorder caused by missing or incomplete X chromosomes (XO). As a result, the individual shows the external physical appearance of a female. However, along with it are certain characteristics. Which of the following would be the distinguishing symptom of a person with Turner syndrome?
Answer
  • very pale skin
  • a mousy odor to the urine
  • swelling of the hands and feet
  • secondary sex characteristics do not develop

Question 34

Question
The energy pyramid shows the decreasing pattern of energy from producers to consumers and from one trophic level to another. Producers are placed at the base of the energy pyramid because __________________.
Answer
  • they are used up at a faster rate
  • they have the most amount of energy available
  • they can be found in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem
  • they have pigments available in producing their own food

Question 35

Question
If the patient is suffering from retention of too much urine, there might be a problem regarding the secretion of what hormone?
Answer
  • oxytocin
  • growth hormone
  • antidiuretic hormone
  • adrenocorticotropic hormone

Question 36

Question
The structure of DNA can be described as a double strand twisted with one another to form a spiral staircase. One chain of DNA strand contains 16% A, 24% C, 32% T, and 28% G. What will be the composition of the complementary chain?
Answer
  • 32% T, 12% G, 16% A, and 56% C
  • 32% A, 12% C, 16% T, and 56% C
  • 16% A, 24% C, 32% T, and 28% C
  • 16% T, 24% G, 32% A, and 28% C

Question 37

Question
The eggs of animals are delicate. Therefore, they must be enclosed in a defensive coat. Because of this need, some vertebrates developed extraembryonic membranes. The extraembryonic membranes are yolk sac, chorion, allantois, and amnion. The amnion contains amniotic fluid. What could be the possible purpose of amniotic fluid?
Answer
  • deliver nourishment for the embryo
  • carry nitrogenous wastes away from the embryo
  • supply blood to the blood vessels of the embryo
  • serves as a cushion sac around the embryo against physical trauma

Question 38

Question
Which of the following describes the muscles in the blood vessels?
Answer
  • striated
  • elongated
  • multinucleated
  • nucleus located at the center of the cell

Question 39

Question
In Kingdom Animalia, Phylum Arthropoda consists of animals characterized by jointed legs. It has five classes, namely: Insecta, Crustacea, Arachnida, Chilopoda, and Diplopoda. Crustaceans are arthropods having two pairs of antennae and various pairs of legs. Which of the following animals below belongs to Class Crustacea?
Answer
  • crab
  • scorpion
  • centipede
  • grasshopper

Question 40

Question
Macronutrients are elements needed by plants in relatively large amount. All of the following are macronutrients EXCEPT
Answer
  • zinc
  • nitrogen
  • potassium
  • phosphorus

Question 41

Question
Recombinant DNA is one of the successful application of genetics in our society and the reason behind the mass production of vaccines, hormones, etc. Insulin production is made possible because of recombinant DNA. The insulin gene from human DAN is cut with the use of restriction enzymes. The insulin gene is then combined in a plasmid (secondary DNA) and inserted into another cellular organism. What could be the organism?
Answer

Question 42

Question
Arrange the following events according to sequence during a primary ecological succession. I. Spruce-Hemlock forest II. A rubble left behind by a retreating glacier III. Alders form dense stands IV. Accumulation of mosses and lichens V. Formation of dwarf willows
Answer
  • I, II, III, IV, and V
  • V, IV, III, II, and I
  • I, III, II, IV, and V
  • II, IV, V, III, and I

Question 43

Question
Based on the diagram below, which of the following conditions will NOT cause the short-day plant to flower?
Answer
  • 1 only
  • 1 and 3
  • 1 and 6
  • 1, 4, and 6

Question 44

Question
Oogenesis is the meiosis that occurs in the ovary of female organisms. If 5 oogonia are present, how many active egg cells are produced when 3 out of 5 oogonia undergo oogenesis?
Answer
  • 3
  • 5
  • 6
  • 10

Question 45

Question
In an autonomic nervous system, which of the following is an effect of parasympathetic division?
Answer
  • the trachea widens
  • the heart rate increases
  • the liver is stimulated to release glucose
  • the muscular contractions of stomach increase

Question 46

Question
The germinal layers, which include the ectoderm, the mesoderm, and the endoderm, are rudiments from which the different organs of the body are derived. The outer germinal layer (ectoderm) gives rise to the skin epidermis and organs of the nervous system. The middle layer is the mesoderm, which is considered as the origin of the skeletal muscles and blood vascular system, while the innermost layer (endoderm) develops the digestive tracts and glands. Which of the following organs MOST likely originated from the middle layer?
Answer
  • cloaca
  • pancreas
  • hypophysis
  • vertebral column

Question 47

Question
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder in which blood fails to clot properly due to gene mutations. A person with hemophilia may experience easy bruising and sudden bleeding. The pedigree diagram below shows the inheritance of hemophilia. What could be the possible genotypes and phenotypes of the parents?
Answer
  • XH Y (normal male) and XH Xh (female carrier)
  • Xh Y (hemophilic male) and XH XH (normal female)
  • Xh Y (hemophilic male) and Xh Xh (hemophilic female)
  • Xh Y (hemophilic male) and XH Xh (female carrier)

Question 48

Question
Bull's horn acacias have hollow thorns that house stinging ants of the genus Pseudomyrmex. The ants feed on sugar produced by nectarines on the tree, sting other insects, remove fungal spores, and clip surrounding vegetation that grow close to the foliage of the acacia tree. This illustrates what type of symbiotic relationship?
Answer
  • Predation
  • Mutualism
  • Parasitism
  • Commensalism

Question 49

Question
Uterine contractions force the baby out of the uterus during labor. What hormone is responsible during uterine contraction?
Answer
  • prolactin
  • oxytocin
  • luteinizing hormone
  • follicle-stimulating hormone

Question 50

Question
Carefully examine the image. What structures are common from each animal during the period of development? I. Tail II. Gill pouches III. Hind legs IV. Forelimbs
Answer
  • I and II only
  • I, II, and III
  • I, III, and IV
  • all of the above
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