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7 Level CDC

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Business/Economics Quiz on 7 Level CDC, created by Cody McLaughlin on 28/08/2020.
Cody McLaughlin
Quiz by Cody McLaughlin, updated more than 1 year ago
Cody McLaughlin
Created by Cody McLaughlin about 4 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which Air Force instruction (AFI) provides additional information on requirements approval documents (RAD)?
Answer
  • AFI 63–101.
  • AFI 63–104.
  • AFI 63–138.
  • AFI 64–101.

Question 2

Question
Which Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation (DFARS) part governs commercial item determination (CID)?
Answer
  • DFARS Part 212.
  • DFARS Part 213.
  • DFARS Part 233.
  • DFARS Part 242.

Question 3

Question
Above what price threshold should one conduct a commercial item determination (CID)?
Answer
  • $250,000.
  • $500,000.
  • $1 million.
  • $6.5 million.

Question 4

Question
For small business set asides, what percentage of the cost to manufacture a particular product is the prime contractor required to cover?
Answer
  • 30 percent.
  • 50 percent.
  • 75 percent.
  • 100 percent.

Question 5

Question
When the total cost of the contract is below $10 million, when do you create an acquisition plan?
Answer
  • During routine buys.
  • When there are no incentives to be included.
  • When the acquisition was well researched and there is minimal risk to award and completion.
  • Where there is a history of protests or performance problems.

Question 6

Question
Who is responsible for managing the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) quality controls?
Answer
  • Customer.
  • Contractor.
  • Contracting office.
  • Contracting officer representative.

Question 7

Question
What part of the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) lists performance objectives and standards that must be performed by the contractor?
Answer
  • Surveillance matrix.
  • Sampling guide.
  • Decision tables.
  • Checklists.

Question 8

Question
When developing the request for proposal (RFP), the Department of Defense (DOD) source selection procedures are required for
Answer
  • orders under multiple award contracts.
  • acquisitions using Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 13.
  • acquisitions using FAR Part 15.
  • architect and engineer services solicited and awarded using FAR Part 36.

Question 9

Question
The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method
Answer
  • permits the use of tradeoffs between price and nonprice factors.
  • may include nonprice factors such as technical and past performance.
  • allows the government to accept other than the lowest priced proposal.
  • requires the relative importance of all evaluation factors to be identified in the solicitation.

Question 10

Question
Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation?
Answer
  • Section C.
  • Section K.
  • Section L.
  • Section M.

Question 11

Question
What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation?
Answer
  • Determine the contractor non-responsive.
  • Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range.
  • Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
  • Accept the proposal “as is” only if determined to be one of the most highly rated proposals.

Question 12

Question
Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by
Answer
  • using discriminators.
  • using non-commercial specifications.
  • including as many evaluation factors as possible.
  • tailoring the evaluation criteria contained in Section K.

Question 13

Question
Lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selections are evaluated according to
Answer
  • price only.
  • the acceptability of a product or service only.
  • the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.
  • the rankings of non-price factor/subfactors and the acceptability of a product or service.

Question 14

Question
A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given which rating?
Answer
  • Good.
  • Marginal.
  • Outstanding.
  • Acceptable.

Question 15

Question
One common aspect of past performance relevancy is
Answer
  • the number of contracts performed.
  • financial condition.
  • small business type.
  • dollar value.

Question 16

Question
When considering how many D type contracts to award from one request for proposal (RFP), the contracting officer should consider the
Answer
  • total cost of the contract.
  • small business type of the contractors.
  • expected duration and frequency of the task or delivery orders.
  • ability to alleviate competition among the awardees throughout the contract’s period of performance.

Question 17

Question
Which method is a preferred technique in support of price analysis?
Answer
  • Comparison of proposed price received in response to the solicitation.
  • Analysis of data other than certified cost or pricing data provided by the offeror.
  • Comparison with competitive published price lists.
  • Use of weighted guidelines.

Question 18

Question
Which factor affects comparability during price analysis?
Answer
  • Type of funding being used.
  • Differences in quantities or size.
  • Use of federal supply schedules.
  • Differences in contractor business size.

Question 19

Question
Technical analysis of offeror proposals should
Answer
  • analyze each offeror’s profit margin.
  • only be conducted by the contract officer.
  • review each offeror’s experience on similar projects.
  • examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.

Question 20

Question
Communications between the government and contractors are held after receipt of proposals to
Answer
  • negotiate prices with only those offerors who are in the competitive range.
  • determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range.
  • identify proposal deficiencies and allow offerors to revise its proposal accordingly.
  • discuss aspects of an offeror’s proposal that could, in the opinion of the CO, be altered to materially enhance the proposal’s potential for award.

Question 21

Question
The overall objective of negotiations is to
Answer
  • obtain the lowest price possible.
  • never settle on a price that is outside of the government’s minimum and maximum objective.
  • negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient and economical performance.
  • negotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable for a particular contract requirement while still allowing the contractor to make a profit.

Question 22

Question
In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government’s analysis?
Answer
  • Minimum.
  • Objective.
  • Median.
  • Maximum.

Question 23

Question
What profit analysis method assigns values to various profit factors, resulting in a calculated profit objective?
Answer
  • Price analysis.
  • Weighted guidelines.
  • Profit application guidelines.
  • Contractor cost/risk analysis.

Question 24

Question
When conducting negotiations, the inability to compromise may be avoided by
Answer
  • using concessions to split any differences.
  • threatening to cancel and resolicit the requirement.
  • using other non-price factors to take the focus off price alone.
  • establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.

Question 25

Question
It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when
Answer
  • a reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
  • the government will exceed its maximum price position.
  • the negotiations begin to exceed a reasonable amount of time.
  • the parties cannot agree on price alone, although it is known that a better deal does not exist.

Question 26

Question
When a deficiency is found in an offeror’s proposal, the government must
Answer
  • not further consider the offeror for award.
  • provide suggestions on how to correct the deficiency.
  • identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.
  • discuss every aspect of the proposal that received less than the maximum possible rating.

Question 27

Question
What may the contracting officer request during discussions to clarify the offeror’s position for further discussion?
Answer
  • Proposal revision.
  • Counteroffer.
  • Revised quote.
  • Determination and finding.

Question 28

Question
When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection
Answer
  • compare proposals against each other.
  • the government may not request final proposal revisions from any offerors.
  • the evaluation criteria established in the request for proposal (RFP) must be used.
  • the government may only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors.

Question 29

Question
A comparative analysis must be completed for
Answer
  • all offerors.
  • all offerors in the competitive range.
  • only the offerors outside of the competitive range.
  • only the offerors that source selection authority (SSA) has identified.

Question 30

Question
The source selection decision document (SSDD) represents the source selection authority’s
Answer
  • independent judgment.
  • dependent judgment.
  • comparative assessment.
  • selection of best value proposal

Question 31

Question
The source selection decision document (SSDD) should
Answer
  • be written as a stand-alone document.
  • be signed and posted on the government point of entry (GPE).
  • strictly focus on lowest price and why other offerors were excluded.
  • only identify the factors and subfactors that help sell the authorities’ decision.

Question 32

Question
When preparing an award notice letter, what should be provided?
Answer
  • Award amount.
  • Ranking of other proposals.
  • Date of expected notice to proceed.
  • Amount of offerors and the awarded offeror.

Question 33

Question
Within how many days after receipt of a written request should a post-award debriefing be provided to an unsuccessful offeror?
Answer
  • 3.
  • 5.
  • 7.
  • 10.

Question 34

Question
Post-award debriefings must include
Answer
  • the overall evaluated cost or price and technical ratings of all offerors.
  • the government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.
  • names of individuals providing reference information about the offeror’s past performance.
  • a point by point comparison of the debriefed offeror’s proposal with those of other offerors.

Question 35

Question
Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that
Answer
  • no further questions are permissible.
  • debriefings may be reopened at the discretion of the contract officer (CO).
  • only the most highly rated offers will be retained for use in future acquisitions.
  • requests for additional information must be submitted in writing with three days after conclusion of the debriefing.

Question 36

Question
If an untimely request for a debriefing was received, a contract officer
Answer
  • may decline to provide the debriefing.
  • must limit the debriefing to who received the award and the award amount.
  • must provide a complete debriefing to all offerors who request one regardless of timeliness.
  • is required to provide a debriefing in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.

Question 37

Question
What may contractors receive when site conditions differ from what was indicated in the specifications and drawings?
Answer
  • Time.
  • Money.
  • Time, money or both.
  • Cancelling of the contract.

Question 38

Question
Contractor progress schedules are required
Answer
  • for all construction contracts.
  • for only architect and engineering contracts.
  • when contracts exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 30 days.
  • when contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.

Question 39

Question
Why is the site visit conducted so quickly after issuing the solicitation?
Answer
  • So that interested contractors have time to submit requests for information for clarifications.
  • So that interested contractors have time to submit a protest.
  • Because the site visit is only conducted when contractors request one.
  • Because the site visit allows civil engineering to verify the requirements.

Question 40

Question
What should the contracting officer or contract specialist do when there are discrepancies found during the post-award site visit?
Answer
  • Forward them to contracting officer representative or contractor so they can be addressed.
  • Tell the contractor that payment is being withheld.
  • Document the file and address later.
  • Tell the customer.

Question 41

Question
What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report is used at the end of the first 12-month option period on a 5-year contract?
Answer
  • Final.
  • Interim.
  • Addendum.
  • Annual interim.

Question 42

Question
The Truthful Cost or Pricing Data statue requires contractors to submit cost or pricing data when the procurement is expected to be valued over
Answer
  • the simplified acquisition threshold.
  • $750,000.
  • $2 million.
  • the micro purchase threshold.

Question 43

Question
Certification of cost or pricing data states that
Answer
  • to the best of the contractor’s knowledge, the cost or pricing data is accurate and complete at the date of the agreement.
  • to the best of the contractor’s knowledge, the cost or pricing data is verified by the suppliers.
  • the contractor agrees to the cost or price of the contract.
  • the contractor’s estimates of cost or pricing data is correct.

Question 44

Question
What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors?
Answer
  • Cardinal change.
  • Unilateral change.
  • Restrictive change.
  • Constructive change.

Question 45

Question
A contractor is required to certify any claim
Answer
  • exceeding the micro-purchase threshold.
  • exceeding $100,000.
  • exceeding $1,000,000.
  • when the contract is subject to the Truthful Cost or Pricing Data statue.

Question 46

Question
What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs the use of the government purchase card (GPC)?
Answer
  • AFI 64–105.
  • AFI 64–102.
  • AFI 64–117.
  • AFI 36–2903.

Question 47

Question
The agency/organization program coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for
Answer
  • for oversight of all cardholders under his or her control.
  • initiating government purchase card (GPC) accounts, issuing delegation letters, and providing mandatory training.
  • staying aware of GPC rules, following those rules, and making purchases within their limits.
  • providing training, distributing cards, replacing lost or stolen cards, and providing customer service.

Question 48

Question
Which is not one of the phases of strategic sourcing?
Answer
  • Standup phase.
  • Execution phase.
  • Source selection strategy phase.
  • Management performance phase.

Question 49

Question
What strategic sourcing tool assesses data such as money spent, type of contracts used, size of purchase, item(s) purchased, and so forth?
Answer
  • Cost analysis.
  • Price analysis.
  • Spend analysis.
  • Portfolio management.

Question 50

Question
Two-step sealed bidding is especially useful in
Answer
  • contracts that have a short lead time and need to be award quickly.
  • acquisitions requiring complex technical proposals.
  • cost-plus-fixed fee contracts.
  • construction contracts.

Question 51

Question
One condition why two-step sealed bidding may be used in preference to negotiations is when
Answer
  • definite criteria exist for evaluating technical proposals.
  • only one technically qualified source is expected to be available.
  • there is not sufficient time available for use of the two-step sealed bidding method.
  • a cost-reimbursement contract will be used.

Question 52

Question
The purpose of contract financing is to
Answer
  • assist the contractor in paying costs incurred during the performance of the contract.
  • assist the contractor in getting their business started.
  • help the contractor with lease or rental payments.
  • help the contractor with the cost-type contract.

Question 53

Question
Which is a type of noncommercial contract financing payment?
Answer
  • Lien.
  • Letter of credit.
  • Loan guarantees.
  • Progress payments based on insurance.

Question 54

Question
Commercial advance and interim payments may be made when the
Answer
  • form of contract financing is in the best interest of the contractor.
  • contract item being financed is a commercial supply or service.
  • contract being awarded is under sole-source procedures.
  • contract price is below the SAT.

Question 55

Question
What type of financing has the least amount of risk to the government?
Answer
  • Advance.
  • Private.
  • Partial
  • Cost.

Question 56

Question
Which task falls under contract support integration?
Answer
  • Planning, validating and prioritizing requirements.
  • Contracting support planning and coordinating common contracting actions.
  • Translating requirements into contract terms, and developing, soliciting, executing, and closing out contracts.
  • Planning contractor management, preparing for contractor deployment, deploying or redeploying contractors.

Question 57

Question
Which is Phase III of the operational phase?
Answer
  • Deter.
  • Stabilize
  • Dominate.
  • Reinforce.

Question 58

Question
What is the purpose of the Joint Requirements Review Board (JRRB)?
Answer
  • Review, validate, approve, and prioritize contract support requirements.
  • Ensure contract support actions support the joint force commanders command guidance.
  • Maximize contracting capabilities while minimizing the competition for limited vendor capabilities.
  • Ensure that contracting and other related logistics efforts are properly coordinated across the entire area of responsibility.

Question 59

Question
International agreements between two or more governments that address various privileges, immunities, and responsibilities and enumerate the rights and responsibilities of individual members of a deployed force are known as
Answer
  • status of forces agreements (SOFA).
  • law of armed conflict (LOAC).
  • wartime agreements.
  • host nation laws.

Question 60

Question
Contractors authorized to accompany the force (CAAF)
Answer
  • is a term given to describe local national contractors.
  • is a term used to describe all Department of Defense civilian contractors no matter the location.
  • is a term given to describe local national contractors and third country nationals.
  • are contractor employees who are authorized to accompany the force in applicable foreign contingency operations.

Question 61

Question
Contractors authorized to accompany the force (CAAF) are
Answer
  • subject to all local laws, regardless of status.
  • exempt from all host nation laws during a contingency.
  • exempt from all laws in a contingency environment unless stated in the contract.
  • subject to local laws unless specifically exempted by Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA) security agreements.

Question 62

Question
What is a major element of the air expeditionary force (AEF) structure?
Answer
  • Deployment force.
  • Noninstitutional force.
  • Expeditionary force.
  • Readily available force.

Question 63

Question
What is the purpose of the reclama process?
Answer
  • To request relief from the deployment tasking by asking the authority to reconsider its decision.
  • To guarantee that the unit will be relieved from the deployment tasking.
  • To ensure a unit will not be tasked with a deployment.
  • To ensure the commander can control if his or her Airmen can deploy.

Question 64

Question
When should the contracting officer conduct the mission brief?
Answer
  • As soon as possible.
  • Once you have your office established.
  • Once the rest of your staff arrive on location.
  • Once the deployed commander seeks you out and asks for one.

Question 65

Question
Who is the second person to receive contract authority?
Answer
  • Senior contracting official (SCO).
  • Secretary of Defense (SecDef).
  • President.
  • Head of contracting authority (HCA).

Question 66

Question
Which form explicitly documents a contracting officer’s warrant?
Answer
  • Standard Form (SF) 1400.
  • SF 1401.
  • SF 1402.
  • SF 1403.

Question 67

Question
Which of the following is a main contracting-related option?
Answer
  • Defense Contract Management Agency.
  • Functional Contracting Command.
  • Defense Logistics Agency.
  • Lead service component responsible for theater support contracting.

Question 68

Question
Which contracting-related organizational structure is best suited for long-term missions and missions beyond the capability of a single service?
Answer
  • Service component support to own forces.
  • Geographic contracting command (GCC).
  • Joint theater support contracting command (JTSCC).
  • Lead service component responsible for theater support contracting.

Question 69

Question
Which type of funds will a contingency contracting officer (CCO) mainly use?
Answer
  • Procurement.
  • Military construction (MILCON).
  • Operations and maintenance (O&M).
  • Morale, welfare, and recreation (MWR)/non-appropriated funds (NAF).

Question 70

Question
The primary goal of Defense Base Act insurance is to cover
Answer
  • workers on military bases outside the United States.
  • workers on military bases outside and inside the United States.
  • military personnel on military bases outside the United States.
  • military personnel on coalition bases outside the United States.

Question 71

Question
Which regulation(s) cover expedited contracting procedures?
Answer
  • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 64–105.
  • AFI 64–102.
  • Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 18.
  • FAR Part 18 and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) Part 218.

Question 72

Question
Who normally fulfills the field ordering officer (FOO) role?
Answer
  • Army soldiers.
  • Resource advisors (RA).
  • Contracting officers (CO).
  • Contracting officer representatives (COR).

Question 73

Question
Who appoints field ordering officers (FOO)?
Answer
  • Contractor chief executives.
  • Squadron commanders.
  • Contingency contracting officers (CCO).
  • Contracting officer representatives (COR).

Question 74

Question
What must field ordering officers (FOO) maintain when keeping track of their purchases?
Answer
  • Copy of the purchase request document.
  • Copy of purchase receipt.
  • Appointment letter.
  • Standard Forms 44.

Question 75

Question
Which is a field ordering officer (FOO) violation?
Answer
  • Authorized commitments.
  • Purchases at authorized limits.
  • Purchases outside the purpose of the appropriated funds.
  • Ensuring competition in contracting act requirements (CICA) are met.

Question 76

Question
Who is responsible for determining contractors authorized to augment the force (CAAF)/non-CAAF status?
Answer
  • Contracting officer (CO).
  • Contract specialist.
  • Host-nation liaison.
  • Base commander.

Question 77

Question
In-theater management of contractor personnel is maintained in
Answer
  • security forces.
  • System for Award Management (SAM).
  • Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS).
  • Synchronized predeployment operational tracker (SPOT).

Question 78

Question
Which is a tool that a contingency contracting officer (CCO) can use to research an area of responsibility (AOR)?
Answer
  • Comprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP).
  • Lessons learned plan.
  • Physically flying to the location.
  • The respective combatant command (CCMD) operational contract support integration cell (OCSIC).

Question 79

Question
What is a category of defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)?
Answer
  • Undesignated law enforcement support.
  • International emergencies.
  • Domestic emergencies.
  • Space activities.

Question 80

Question
Humanitarian assistance is the Department of Defense (DOD) term
Answer
  • for relief and development activities that take place in the context of an overseas military exercise, training event, or operation.
  • for domestic emergencies that affect the public welfare, endanger life and property, or disrupt the usual process of government.
  • that allows the DOD to provide aid whenever a military accident happens on a DOD installation.
  • that authorizes the DOD to help state and local governments alleviate the suffering and damage caused by disasters.

Question 81

Question
Which act authorizes the federal government to help state and local governments alleviate the suffering and damage caused by disasters?
Answer
  • Disaster Relief Act of 1974.
  • Department of Defense Disaster Response Act.
  • Overseas Humanitarian, Disaster and Civic Aid Act (OHDACA).
  • Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act.

Question 82

Question
If unable to exercise contingency contracting officer (CCO) skills in a base exercise, who prepares CCOs with unit specific exercises?
Answer
  • Contracting commander.
  • Unit training manager. (UTM).
  • Unit deployment manager. (UDM.)
  • Installation’s wing inspection team (WIT).
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