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Microbiology/Pathology III

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Praxis Tests: Microbiology & Pathology Quiz on Microbiology/Pathology III, created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE on 03/11/2021.
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Quiz by ACAPUN INSTITUTE, updated more than 1 year ago
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE about 3 years ago
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Question 1

Question
Although primary tumors of the heart are quite rare, which of the following is the MOST common primary tumor of the heart in adults and is frequently located in the left atrium?
Answer
  • A) Myxoma
  • B) Papillary fibroelastoma
  • C) Rhabdomyoma
  • D) Chordoma
  • E) Leiomyoma

Question 2

Question
B-cell proliferation for the secondary humoral immune response takes place in
Answer
  • A) Bone marrow sites
  • B) Corticomedullary junctions in the thymus
  • C) Primary follicles of the lymph nodes and of the spleen
  • D) Germinal centers of the lymph nodes and of the spleen
  • E) Paracortex of the lymph nodes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheath of the spleen

Question 3

Question
Which of the following usually gains entry by inhalation of spores where it then invades the walls of blood vessels leading to necrosis, thrombosis and infarction in the lumen and is characteristic for broad nonseptate hyphae?
Answer
  • A) Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • B) Coccidioides immitis
  • C) Sporothrix schenckii
  • D) Rhizopus spp.
  • E) Histoplasma capsulatum

Question 4

Question
The only acceptable plastic that can be used for steam sterilization or autoclave is
Answer
  • A) polypropylene
  • B) polyvinyl chloride
  • C) polystyrene
  • D) polyethylene
  • E) polyurethane

Question 5

Question
The induction of B-cells switching to IgE is stimulated by
Answer
  • A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
  • B) Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
  • C) Interleukin-3 (IL-3)
  • D) Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
  • E) Interleukin-5 (IL-5)

Question 6

Question
Mutations, often inflicted by exposure to mutagens, viruses or radiation, involve aberrant changes made to the genetic material that may affect the structure and function of its coded protein product. If a mutation alters a codon which encodes for an amino acid to a stop codon, then this modification would be considered a
Answer
  • A) Silent mutation
  • B) Missense mutation
  • C) Point mutation
  • D) Nonsense mutation
  • E) Frameshift mutation

Question 7

Question
Which of the following is the only double stranded RNA virus?
Answer
  • A) Retrovirus
  • B) Togavirus
  • C) Orthomyxovirus
  • D) Reovirus
  • E) Rhabdovirus

Question 8

Question
Which of the following antibiotics blocks the transfer of peptidoglycan subunits to the existing cell wall peptidoglycan?
Answer
  • A) D-cycloserine
  • B) Bacitracin
  • C) Clindamycin
  • D) Penicillin
  • E) Tetracycline

Question 9

Question
A ”bright field” microscope is regularly used for cytological tests. When using a ”bright field” microscope, the resolution is dependent on the
Answer
  • A) magnification by the ocular lens and the wavelength of the light
  • B) numerical aperture
  • C) numerical aperture and the wavelength of the light
  • D) level of magnification by the ocular lens
  • E) wavelength of light

Question 10

Question
Which of the following sites is where respiration takes place in bacteria?
Answer
  • A) Endoplasmic reticulum
  • B) Cytoplasmic membrane
  • C) Nuclear membrane
  • D) Golgi bodies
  • E) Mitochondria

Question 11

Question
A patient has recently undergone renal allograft transplantation. He complains that he urinates less frequently, his blood pressure has increased and that serum creatinine concentration has increased since his transplantation. Which of the following are responsible for these clinical manifestations?
Answer
  • A) T lymphocytes
  • B) Basophils
  • C) Natural killer cells
  • D) B lymphocytes
  • E) Preformed antibodies

Question 12

Question
Which of the following is a cytokine that is capable of decreasing inflammation?
Answer
  • A) Interleukin 1 (IL-1)
  • B) Interleukin 6 (IL-6)
  • C) Interleukin 8 (IL-8)
  • D) Transforming Growth Factor - beta (TGF-beta)
  • E) Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF

Question 13

Question
Which of the following bacteria can form endospores?
Answer
  • A) Clostridium and Staphylococcus
  • B) Clostridium and Bacillus
  • C) Mycoplasma and Bordetella
  • D) Streptococcus and Mycoplasma
  • E) Mycoplasma and Bacillus

Question 14

Question
Each of the following is a killed vaccine EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Salk polio vaccine
  • B) Hepatitis B vaccine
  • C) Yellow fever vaccine
  • D) Thyphoid vaccine
  • E) Cholera vaccine

Question 15

Question
Which of the following molecules is necessary to ”present” antigen to a T helper cell?
Answer
  • A) MHC-class I
  • B) MHC-class II
  • C) MHC-class III
  • D) CD4
  • E) CD8

Question 16

Question
Negri bodies is diagnostic of
Answer
  • A) cytomegalovirus
  • B) rabies
  • C) measles
  • D) Leprosy
  • E) poliomyelitis

Question 17

Question
Alpha hemolytic streptococci is the major cause of
Answer
  • A) rheumatic mitral valve disease
  • B) calcific aortic stenosis
  • C) infective endocarditis
  • D) mitral valve prolapse
  • E) chronic cor pulmonale

Question 18

Question
Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is a cystic hygroma MOST commonly associated with?
Answer
  • A) Cri-du-chat syndrome
  • B) Down's syndrome
  • C) Klinefelter's syndrome
  • D) Turner's syndrome
  • E) Edward's syndrome

Question 19

Question
Which of the following concerns a ”compound” microscope?
Answer
  • A) It magnifies in two steps
  • B) It has two specimen stages
  • C) It produces its resolution in two steps
  • D) It can be adjusted to either to polarize or not to polarize light
  • E) It produces both magnification and resolution

Question 20

Question
Which of the following events occurs only in apoptosis and NOT necrosis?
Answer
  • A) Presence of Eosinophils
  • B) Peripheral aggregation of chromatin
  • C) Inflammation
  • D) Disaggregation of polyribosome
  • E) Karyolysis

Question 21

Question
Your patient has swelling of the parotid glands. Which of the following viruses would show this clinical manifestation?
Answer
  • A) Measles virus
  • B) Mumps virus
  • C) Rubella virus
  • D) Respiratory synctial virus
  • E) Parainfluenza virus

Question 22

Question
Which of the following can NOT cause a congenital infection?
Answer
  • A) Treponema pallidum
  • B) Toxoplasma gondii
  • C) Mumps
  • D) Cytomegalovirus
  • E) Rubella virus

Question 23

Question
Which of the following is NOT a serious sequelae of an acute myocardial infarction?
Answer
  • A) Mitral valve dysfunction
  • B) Cardiac rupture
  • C) Ventricular aneurysm
  • D) Pericarditis
  • E) Mural thrombosis with embolus

Question 24

Question
Rheumatic arthritis and Glomerular Nephritis are examples of which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?
Answer
  • A) Type I
  • B) Type II
  • C) Type III
  • D) Type IV

Question 25

Question
Which one of the following toxins is encoded on a plasmid?
Answer
  • A) Tetanus toxin
  • B) Shiga-like toxin
  • C) TSST-1
  • D) Cholera toxin
  • E) Pertussis toxin

Question 26

Question
Syphilis, leprosy, trachoma, and tuberculosis are several human infections that reside in human tissues for long periods of time thus provoking a long drawn-out battle between the microorganism and the defenses of the host. This is called microbial
Answer
  • A) persistence
  • B) latency
  • C) tolerance
  • D) virulence
  • E) opportunism

Question 27

Question
Which of the following conditions will NOT cause the formation of an aneurysm?
Answer
  • A) Syphilis
  • B) Atherosclerosis
  • C) Thromboangiitis obliterans
  • D) Kawasaki's disease
  • E) Polyarteritis nodosa

Question 28

Question
The presence of Koplik spots is an indication of a person infected with mumps. Koplik spots are small irregular red, white and blue colored spots seen in the oral cavity opposite to the maxillary molars.
Answer
  • A) Both statements are TRUE.
  • B) Both statements are FALSE.
  • C) The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.
  • D) The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.

Question 29

Question
Each of the following are correct statements about Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa has peritrichous flagella while Escherichia coli has polar flagella
  • B) Escherichia coli can ferment lactose while Pseudomonas aeruginosa cannot
  • C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces exotoxin A while Escherichia coli does not
  • D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa can synthesize pyocyanin while Escherichia coli cannot
  • E) Both Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Escherichia coli have cytochromes in their electron transport chains

Question 30

Question
Which of the following is the genetic cause for the most common lysosomal storage disease causing mental retardation?
Answer
  • A) Homocystinuria
  • B) Tay-Sachs disease
  • C) Spina bifida
  • D) Down syndrome
  • E) Phenylketonuria

Question 31

Question
The relative percent 3-year survival from common neoplasms is the highest for
Answer
  • A) thyroid
  • B) ovary
  • C) breast
  • D) pancreas
  • E) colon

Question 32

Question
American Burkitt’s lymphoma is described by which of the following statements?
Answer
  • A) At initial presentation, the central nervous system is almost invariably involved
  • B) An older age group is involved in African than American Burkitt's lymphoma
  • C) Usually does not occur in children older than five years of age
  • D) Bone marrow involvement is less frequent in American than African Burkitt's lymphoma
  • E) Isolated jaw involvement is more common in African than American Burkitt's lymphoma

Question 33

Question
Aphthous ulcers typically do NOT occur in the
Answer
  • A) buccal mucosa
  • C) soft palate
  • D) lateral border of the tongue
  • E) floor of mouth

Question 34

Question
Large numbers of inflammatory cells such as lymphocytes are found in the loose connective tissue of the
Answer
  • A) gastrointestinal tract and respiratory system
  • B) respiratory system and urothelial
  • C) skin and gastrointestinal tract
  • D) respiratory and vascular systems
  • E) liver and skin

Question 35

Question
Collagen synthesis as measured by prolyl hydroxylase activity is
Answer
  • A) significantly higher in keloids
  • B) highest in normal skin
  • C) significantly lower in hypertrophic scars
  • D) significantly lower in keloids
  • E) significantly higher in hypertrophic scars than keloids

Question 36

Question
A patient contracts polio and is prescribed a polio vaccine to decrease the polio infection. The difference of the Sabin polio vaccine compared to the Salk polio vaccine is:
Answer
  • A) Salk polio vaccine induces IgA whereas Sabin polio vaccine does not
  • B) Sabin polio vaccine requires only one administration whereas Salk polio vaccine requires three administrations
  • C) Sabin polio vaccine induces cytotoxic T cells whereas Salk polio vaccine does not
  • D) Sabin polio vaccine is safer because it is an inactivated vaccine where Salk polio vaccine is an attenuated live virus
  • E) Sabin polio vaccine is administered through an intramuscular injection whereas Salk polio vaccine is administered orally

Question 37

Question
Which of the following can NOT cause chronic lymphadenitis?
Answer
  • A) Dilantin (diphenylhydantoin)
  • B) HIV infection
  • C) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • D) Rubeola
  • E) Syphilis

Question 38

Question
The mode of action of diphtheria toxin is through
Answer
  • A) activation of adenylate cyclase
  • B) cleavage of 28S ribosomal RNA
  • C) inactivation of elongation factor-2
  • D) activation of guanylate cyclase
  • E) inactivation of DNA polymerase I

Question 39

Question
Which of the following describes viruses?
Answer
  • A) Viruses can not make their own protein or energy
  • B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
  • C) Viruses do not reproduce by binary fission or division
  • D) Viruses are free living saprophytes
  • E) Viruses can be often destroyed by antibiotics

Question 40

Question
The patient presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back. He also claims he is a heavy alcohol drinker. The MOST likely diagnosis of the patient is
Answer
  • A) acute diverticulitis
  • B) acute pancreatitis
  • C) acute cholangitis
  • D) acute proctitis
  • E) acute appendicitis

Question 41

Question
The dentist speculates that the patient presents with Sj_gren’s syndrome. Which of the following types of tumors arise from the onset of Sj_gren’s syndrome, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis or Heliobacter pylori infection of the stomach?
Answer
  • A) Hodgkin's disease
  • B) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma)
  • C) Mantle cell lymphoma
  • D) Mycosis fungoides
  • E) Small lymphocytic lymphoma

Question 42

Question
The patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. Parkinson’s disease is the result of neuronal deficiency in the
Answer
  • A) Substantia nigra
  • B) Caudate
  • C) Globus pallidus
  • D) Amygdale
  • E) Red nucleus

Question 43

Question
The patient is taking prescription medicines such as Fosamax to help reverse bone loss. Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are elevated in each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
  • B) Osteoporosis
  • C) Rickets
  • D) Osteosarcoma
  • E) Paget's disease of the bone

Question 44

Question
The dentist makes a complete denture set for the patient but the patient returns complaining that the denture has caused numerous soft, raised, red, surface bumps. Papillary hyperplasia MOST frequently is found in which of the following areas?
Answer
  • A) anterior gingival tissue
  • B) hard palate
  • C) posterior gingival tissue
  • D) soft palate

Question 45

Question
The dentist asks the patient if he has received this year’s flu shot. The patient believes that last year’s shot has given him life-long immunity. If the influenza A virus isolated in 2007 is H3N2 and those isolated in 2006 are also H3N2 but slightly different from the 2007 strain, therefore requiring a new viral strain for the 2007 vaccine, this would be an example of:
Answer
  • A) antigenic stabilization
  • B) antigenic shift
  • C) antigenic inactivation
  • D) antigenic drift
  • E) antigenic denaturation

Question 46

Question
During the medical history, the sexually active patient reports to the dentist that she contracted with a urinary tract infection last month. Which of the following Staphylococci is MOST responsible for causing this urinary tract infection?
Answer
  • A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
  • B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
  • C) Staphylococcus haemolyticus
  • D) Staphylococcus hominis
  • E) Staphylococcus aureus

Question 47

Question
The dentist examines the tongue of the patient and spots oral hairy leukoplakia. The lesions seen in oral hairy leukoplakia are NOT
Answer
  • A) characterized by epithelial dysplasia
  • B) characterized by little or no associated inflammation
  • C) most commonly seen on the lateral borders of the tongue
  • D) typically asymptomatic
  • E) commonly associated with candidal organisms in the parakeratin

Question 48

Question
Because the patient is sexually active and has unprotected sex, the patient believes she might be infected with Hepatitis B. She has not been vaccinated and wishes to take a blood test. Since the patient may be in the window period, clearance of which of the following serological markers indicates the start of the window period and confirms a possible HBV infection?
Answer
  • A) Anti-HBeAg
  • B) HBcAg
  • C) HBsAg
  • D) Anti-HBs
  • E) Anti-HBc

Question 49

Question
The patient also opts to take an HIV test. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of infections caused by human immunodeficiency virus?
Answer
  • A) Human immunodeficiency virus infects monocytes
  • B) CD4 to CD8 ratio is increased
  • C) GP120 protein on the viral envelope binds to CD4 protein receptor on target cell
  • D) Human immunodeficiency virus causes functional inactivation and lysis of helper T cells
  • E) Human immunodeficiency virus can be acquired via sexual contact and blood products

Question 50

Question
The patient recently overcame a Salmonella infection from eating raw eggs. However, the patient may be in a carrier state as Salmonella organisms have been known to persist for years in which of the following organs?
Answer
  • A) Gall bladder
  • B) Liver
  • C) Spleen
  • D) Pancreas
  • E) Kidney
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