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Pharmacology I

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Praxis Tests: Pharmacology Quiz on Pharmacology I, created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE on 07/11/2021.
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Quiz by ACAPUN INSTITUTE, updated more than 1 year ago
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE about 3 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Each of the following drugs is present in the POMP regimen EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Prednisone
  • B) Oncovin
  • C) Methotrexate
  • D) Purinethol
  • E) Paclitaxel

Question 2

Question
A 36 yr old man presents with symptoms of compulsive disorder. He must repeatedly align and realign the item on his desk throughout the day. If anything is out of order he feels work will not be accomplished effectively. Which of the following drugs can be helpful to treat this patient?
Answer
  • A) Phenelzine
  • B) Duloxetine
  • C) Trazodone
  • D) Fluvoxamine
  • E) Imipramine

Question 3

Question
Each of the following drugs is used in a 42 yr old man with a history of angina who has been admitted in the emergency department with a recent myocardial infarction EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Acebutolol
  • B) Atenolol
  • C) Nitrendipine
  • D) Nitroglycerin
  • E) Isosorbide dinitrate

Question 4

Question
In order to produce a 1:100,000 concentration of vasoconstrictor
Answer
  • A) 1ml of 1:10,000 concentration is added to 9ml of solvent
  • B) 10ml of 1:10,000 concentration is added to 9ml of solvent
  • C) 10ml of 1:1000 concentration is added to 9ml of solvent
  • D) 10ml of 1:1000 concentration is added to 10ml of solvent
  • E) 1ml of 1:1000 concentration is added to 100ml of solvent

Question 5

Question
Drugs that contain codeine are classified by the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) into the following pair of schedules EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Schedule I and Schedule IV
  • B) Schedule II and Schedule III
  • C) Schedule III and Schedule IV
  • D) Schedule IV and Schedule V
  • E) Schedule I and Schedule V

Question 6

Question
Each of the following statements about H1 antihistamines is true EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) H1 antihistamines acts on H1 receptors decreasing cognitive performance
  • B) H1 antihistamines acts on Dopamine receptors increasing the dizziness
  • C) H1 antihistamines acts on alpha-adrenergic receptors increasing reflex tachycardia
  • D) H1 antihistamines acts on cholinergic receptors increasing sinus tachycardia
  • E) H1 antihistamines acts on serotonin receptors increasing appetite

Question 7

Question
A 48 yr old male patient with osteogenic sarcoma has been managed with a morphine pump. Which of the following drugs is used to ameliorate his pain incase of morphine tolerance?
Answer
  • A) Fentanyl
  • B) Propoxyphene
  • C) Methadone
  • D) Mepiridine
  • E) Nalbuphine

Question 8

Question
Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short acting drug?
Answer
  • A) Secobarbital
  • B) Thiopental
  • C) Phenobarbital
  • D) Pentobarbital
  • E) Amobarbital

Question 9

Question
All of the following drugs are predisposing factors to digoxin toxicity EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Amiodarone
  • B) Verapamil
  • C) Quinidine
  • D) Corticosteroids
  • E) Spironolactone

Question 10

Question
By inhibiting cytochrome p450, ketaconazole can potentiate the toxicity of all the drugs EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Cyclosporine
  • B) Phenytoin
  • C) Tolbutamide
  • D) Warfarin
  • E) Rifampin

Question 11

Question
Information about differences in the sensitivity of individuals to increasing doses of a drug is determined by:
Answer
  • A) Biological equivalence
  • B) Therapeutic equivalence
  • C) Therapeutic index
  • D) Graded dose-response curve
  • E) Quantal dose-response curve

Question 12

Question
A 26yr old female patient has failed to become pregnant after 3 yrs of unprotected intercourse. Which of the following drugs would be effective in treating infertility due to anovulatory cycle?
Answer
  • A) Clomphene
  • B) Estradiol
  • C) Estrogen
  • D) Tamoxifen
  • E) Combination of estrogen and progestin

Question 13

Question
The amide group local anesthetic that has its site of biotransformation in lungs is:
Answer
  • A) Prilocaine
  • B) Bupivacaine
  • C) Mepivacaine
  • D) Ropivacaine
  • E) Centbucridine

Question 14

Question
If a class II drug, like sulfonamide, is added in excess to the tolbutamide regimen, it results in:
Answer
  • A) An increase in the tissue concentration of tolbutamide
  • B) No change in the tissue concentration of tolbutamide
  • C) A decrease in the volume distribution of tolbutamide
  • D) An increase in the serum concentration of tolbutamide
  • E) A decrease in the half-life of tolbutamide

Question 15

Question
Which of the following drugs are used in the diagnosis and chronic management of myasthenia gravis respectively?
Answer
  • A) Neostigmine and Ambenomium
  • B) Pyridostigmine and Neostigmine
  • C) Edrophonium and Pyridostigmine
  • D) Edrophonium and Pilocarpine
  • E) Physostigmine and Neostigmine

Question 16

Question
A 48 yr old male patient complains of painful joints to his physician. His medical history reveals history of duodenal ulcers. The safest NSAID that can be prescribed for relieving his pain symptoms is
Answer
  • A) Ketoprofen
  • B) Ketorolac
  • C) Diclofenac
  • D) Sulindac
  • E) Mifepristone

Question 17

Question
A 30 yr old female patient presents with seizures resulting in loss of consciousness followed by continuous contraction and then rapid contraction and relaxation. Her prior medical history shows that she is suffering from trigeminal neuralgia. Which of the following is the drug of choice for this patient?
Answer
  • A) Phenytoin
  • B) Carbamazepine
  • C) Primidone
  • D) Oxcarbazepine
  • E) Ethosuximide

Question 18

Question
Which of the following statement is true about Heparin and Low molecular weight heparin?
Answer
  • A) Low molecular weight heparins can cross placental barrier unlike heparin
  • B) Anticoagulant effect is predictable for heparin and low molecular weight heparin
  • C) Unlike heparin, low molecular weight heparins cannot be used in an outpatient setting
  • D) Intravenous half life value for heparin is two times that of Low molecular weight heparins
  • E) Low molecular weight heparins are less likely than heparin in activating resting platelets

Question 19

Question
A 20 yr old female patient gives a history of sulfonamide drug allergy. Which of the following NSAID is contraindicated in her case?
Answer
  • A) Ibuprofen
  • B) Naproxen
  • C) Celecoxib
  • D) Diclofenac
  • E) Aspirin

Question 20

Question
Each of the following antibiotics exhibits its antibacterial action by inhibiting 50S ribosome EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Chloramphenicol
  • B) Streptomycin
  • C) Clindamycin
  • D) Erythromycin
  • E) Azithromycin

Question 21

Question
A 20yr old female patient was diagnosed with viral fever and was put on antiviral therapy, which resulted in chills, fever and muscular aches. The drug treatment probably administered was
Answer
  • A) Acyclovir
  • B) Ganciclovir
  • C) Ribavirin
  • D) Interferon
  • E) Rimantadine

Question 22

Question
All of the following statements are true about atropine EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Atropine has a half-life of about 4 hours
  • B) Atropine is used to treat organophosphate poisoning
  • C) Atropine is contraindicated in wide-angled glaucoma
  • D) Atropine causes marked Xerostomia at a given dose of 5.0mg
  • E) With higher doses of Atropine, M2 receptors on the SA node are blocked

Question 23

Question
Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes a system having spare receptors?
Answer
  • A) The number of spare receptors determines the maximum effect
  • B) Spare receptors are sequestered in the cytosol of the cell
  • C) Spare receptors are active even in the absence of agonist
  • D) Agonist affinity for spare receptors is less than their affinity for the non-spare receptors
  • E) Single drug receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated

Question 24

Question
A 20yr old female patient has been given an appointment for root canal treatment for tooth #30 by her endodontist. While taking her medical history she reveals that she is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which one of the following vasoconstrictors should be MOST avoided while giving an inferior alveolar nerve block?
Answer
  • A) Levonordefrin
  • B) Epinephrine
  • C) Felypressin
  • D) Phenylepinephrine hydrochloride
  • E) Isoproterenol

Question 25

Question
A 40 yr old man who has been injured in a truck accident is brought to the emergency center. His blood alcohol level on admission is 290 mg/dL. His wife confirms that he has been drinking heavily for 6 weeks. What drug treatment should be provided to the patient if he goes into withdrawal?
Answer
  • A) Buspirone
  • B) Secobarbital
  • C) Flurazepam
  • D) Phenytoin
  • E) Zolpidem

Question 26

Question
A 55 yr old man presents to the emergency department with acute heart failure. His hospital records show a history of hypertension. The immediate drug therapy that may be beneficial is
Answer
  • A) Methoxamine
  • B) Phenylephrine
  • C) Clonidine
  • D) Albuterol
  • E) Dobutamine

Question 27

Question
All of the following statements are true about Cyclosporine EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Cyclosporine cannot be given intramuscularly
  • B) Cyclosporine when administered dampens the IL-3 production
  • C) Cyclosporine preferentially suppress cell-mediated immune reactions
  • D) Nephrotoxicity is the most common and important adverse effect of cyclosporine
  • E) Viral infections due to herpes group and cytomegalovirus may be seen in cyclosporine users

Question 28

Question
Drugs A and B with similar therapeutic equivalence will always have:
Answer
  • A) Comparable efficacy
  • B) Comparable efficacy and safety
  • C) Comparable efficacy, but not safety
  • D) Comparable potency and safety, but not efficacy
  • E) Comparable efficacy and potency, but not safety

Question 29

Question
A 30 yr old male patient with a recent history of interstitial nephritis complains of pain, fever and headache. Which of the following drug treatment is beneficial in ameliorating his pain symptoms?
Answer
  • A) Diclofenac
  • B) Meloxicam
  • C) Celecoxib
  • D) Tolmentin
  • E) Aspirin

Question 30

Question
Close monitoring of which of the following serum levels should be done in patients concurrently being treated with both thiazide diuretics and digitalis glycosides?
Answer
  • A) Sodium
  • B) Calcium
  • C) Magnesium
  • D) Uric acid E) Potassium
  • E) Potassium

Question 31

Question
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated during prodromal phase of migraine attacks for a patient with concomitant coronary artery disease?
Answer
  • A) Timolol
  • B) Divalproex
  • C) Verapamil
  • D) Amitriptylline
  • E) Dihydroergotamine

Question 32

Question
A 22 yr old male patient presents with a history of purulent urethral discharge and dysuria since 3 days after his return from Netherlands. Which of the following is an appropriate drug treatment to initiate if it is diagnosed to be a sexually transmitted disease?
Answer
  • A) Ceftriaxone
  • B) Norfloxacin
  • C) Tetracycline
  • D) Co-trimoxazole
  • E) Penicillin G

Question 33

Question
Pentazocaine acts as:
Answer
  • A) an agonist on kappa receptors
  • B) an agonist on Mu-type receptors
  • C) an agonist on delta receptors
  • D) a strong antagonist on Mu-type receptors
  • E) a strong antagonist on kappa receptors

Question 34

Question
Which of the following is a metabolite of lidocaine that produces sedation?
Answer
  • A) 2, 6-xylidide
  • B) Monoethylglycine xylidide
  • C) 4-hydroxy-2, 6-dimethylaniline
  • D) Monoamino-3-methylbenzoic acid
  • E) 3-hydroxy-monoethyl glycinexylidide
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