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Pharmacology VII

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Praxis Tests: Pharmacology Quiz on Pharmacology VII, created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE on 08/11/2021.
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Quiz by ACAPUN INSTITUTE, updated more than 1 year ago
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE about 3 years ago
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Question 1

Question
Which of the following drugs is often administered to treat life-threatening arrhythmias?
Answer
  • a. quinidine
  • b. lidocaine
  • c. verapamil
  • d. propranolol

Question 2

Question
A male patient who is receiving Coumadin therapy presents for an elective extraction. His protrhombin time (PT) is prolonged. Which of the following methods is preferred for reducing the PT to an acceptable level?
Answer
  • a. administering vitamin K (Aqua Mephyton)
  • b. Withdrawing Coumadin for two days
  • c. reducing Coumadin to one half the usual dose for two days
  • d. administering a Coumadin antagonist, such as heparin
  • e. administering a platelet transfusion to enhance coagulability

Question 3

Question
Each of the following drugs has a significant anti-inflammatory property except one. Which one is the exception?
Answer
  • a. aspirin
  • b. cortisol
  • c. acetaminophen
  • d. ibuprofen
  • e. indomethacin

Question 4

Question
A patient has a history of significant cardiovascular impairment. The maximum safe dose of epinephrine that can be administered to this patient is:
Answer
  • a. 1 cc, 1: 50,000
  • b. 2 cc, 1: 50,000
  • c. 1 cc, 1: 100,000
  • d. 2 cc, 1: 100,000

Question 5

Question
Which of the following is the current drug of choice for status-epilepticus?
Answer
  • a. diazepam (Valium)
  • b. phenytoin (Dilantin)
  • c. chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
  • d. carbamazepine (Tegretol)
  • e. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is an example of an enteral route of administration?
Answer
  • a. oral
  • b. submucosal
  • c. inhalation
  • d. subcutaneous
  • e. intramuscular

Question 7

Question
Propranolol (Inderal) exerts its major antianginal effect by
Answer
  • a. dilating coronary arteries
  • b. dilating systemic blood vessels
  • c. increasing cardiac contractility
  • d. stimulating vagal slowing of the heart
  • e. blocking beta-adrenergic receptors of the heart

Question 8

Question
Bradycardia is MOST commonly treated with which of the following drugs?
Answer
  • a. atropine
  • b. epinephrine
  • c. a diuretic
  • d. a potent vasodilator

Question 9

Question
Which of the following best explains why drugs that are highly ionized tend to be more rapidly excreted than those that are less ionized? The highly ionized are
Answer
  • a. less lipid soluble
  • b. less water soluble
  • c. more rapidly metabolized
  • d. more extensively bound to tissue

Question 10

Question
Which of the following groups of drugs is CONTRAINDICATED for patients who have glaucoma?
Answer
  • a. adrenergic
  • b. cholinergic
  • c. anticholinergic
  • d. adrenergic blocking

Question 11

Question
Low dose aspirin therapy prevents the formation of thromboemboli by preferentially inhibiting which of the following?
Answer
  • a. phospholipase A2 in the blood vessel walls
  • b. prostacyclin synthetase in the blood vessel walls
  • c. thromboxane synthetase in the platelets
  • d. vitamin K in the liver

Question 12

Question
A patient who is receiving an IV diazepam sedation has upper eye-lid ptosis (Verill’s sign). The dentist should
Answer
  • a. assist respiration immediately
  • b. consider the patient to be adequately sedated
  • c. place the patient in the Trendelenberg position
  • d. administer one more increment of diazepam and proceed with the treatment

Question 13

Question
A dentist is considering the use of nitrous-oxide conscious sedation for a patient. However, this type of sedation will be CONTRAINDICATED, should the patient have a history of which of the following?
Answer
  • a. dental anxiety
  • b. psychotic care
  • c. controlled hypertension

Question 14

Question
The correct total liter flow of nitrous oxide- oxygen is determined by
Answer
  • a. a standard 6 liter per minute flow
  • b. the patient’s metabolic oxygen requirements
  • c. the amount necessary to keep the reservoir bag 1/3 to 2/3 full
  • d. the largest volume that the patient can exchange within one minunte

Question 15

Question
Which of the following sympathomimetic agents is the most potent bronchodilator?
Answer
  • a. amphetamine
  • b. norepinephrine
  • c. phenylephrine
  • d. isoproterenol
  • e. methoxamine

Question 16

Question
Succinylcholine blocks neuromuscular transmission by
Answer
  • a. inhibiting cholinesterase
  • b. inhibiting the central nervous system
  • c. depolarizing the motor endplate of skeletal muscle
  • d. inducing the formation of cholinesterase at the endplate
  • e. blocking release of acetylcholine at the endplate

Question 17

Question
Which of the following effects are common to pentobarbital, diazepam, and meperidine?
Answer
  • a. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
  • b. analgesia and relief of anxiety
  • c. sedation and ability to produce dependence
  • d. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation

Question 18

Question
The onset of action of a drug is primarily determined by the rate of
Answer
  • a. excretion
  • b. absorption
  • c. distribution
  • d. biotransformation

Question 19

Question
Injection of a local anesthetic into an inflamed area usually has a less than optimal result. Which of the following best explains why?
Answer
  • a. the prostaglandins stabilize the nerve membrane
  • b. inflammation reduces the availability of the free base
  • c. the drug will be absorbed more rapidly because of the increased blood supply
  • d. the chemical mediators of inflammation will present a chemical antagonism to the anesthetic

Question 20

Question
The major effect of a drug is produced by the amount of the drug that is
Answer
  • a. free in plasma
  • b. excreted by the kidney
  • c. detoxified in the liver
  • d. bound to plasma protein

Question 21

Question
A 4 yr old child is shy, timid, and fearful. Which of the following will be MOST appropriate for the restorative appointments for this child?
Answer
  • a. Naloxone
  • b. Nitrous oxide/oxygen
  • c. Promethazine
  • d. Hydroxyzine hydrochloride (atarax) or hydroxyzine pamoate (Vistaril) in divided doses
  • e. Meperidine (Demerol), promethazine (Phenergan) and chlorpromazine (Thorazine) combined

Question 22

Question
A primary advantage of intravenous sedation is which of the following?
Answer
  • a. fewer side effects from the sedation
  • b. slower biotransformation for prolonged action
  • c. the ability to titrate individualized dosage
  • d. a smooth and more gradual onset of sedation

Question 23

Question
Each of the following is true regarding drug biotransformation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • a. the rate may differ significantly in various animal species
  • b. it primarily occurs in the liver microsomal enzyme system
  • c. it usually converts a drug to its lipid soluble, nonionized form
  • d. it generally involves alterations of the chemical structure of the drug

Question 24

Question
Which of the following drugs causes the LEAST CNS depression and impairment of psychomotor skills?
Answer
  • a. diazepam
  • b. buspirone
  • c. alprazolam
  • d. chloral hydrate

Question 25

Question
A patient who has which of the following conditions is most likely to have postoperative bleeding after multiple extractions?
Answer
  • a. angina
  • b. diabetes
  • c. cirrhosis
  • d. rheumatic fever
  • e. chronic bronchitis

Question 26

Question
Local anesthetics aid in reducing the flow of saliva during operative procedures by
Answer
  • a. blocking the cholinergic nerve endings
  • b. blocking innervation to major salivary glands
  • c. blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways
  • d. reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth preparation

Question 27

Question
Which of the following combinations of agents would be necessary to block the cardiovascular effects produced by the injection of a sympathomimetic drug?
Answer
  • a. atropine and prazosin
  • b. atropine and propranolol
  • c. prazosin and propranolol
  • d. phenoxybenzamine and curare
  • e. amphetamine and propranolol

Question 28

Question
When compared therapeutically to penicillin G, penicillin V has a
Answer
  • a. slower renal excretion
  • b. more reliable oral absorption
  • c. broader antibacterial spectrum
  • d. greater resistance to penicillinase
  • e. lower potential for allergic reaction

Question 29

Question
Each of the following is a common side effect of prolonged tetracycline therapy EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • a. diarrhea
  • b. superinfection
  • c. photosensitivity
  • d. visual disturbance
  • e. discoloration of newly forming teeth

Question 30

Question
To reduce a patient’s salivary flow, a dentist has prescribed atropine. As a result of this medication, the patient might experience which of the following side effects?
Answer
  • a. sedation
  • b. diarrhea
  • c. bradycardia
  • d. blurred vision
  • e. stomach cramping

Question 31

Question
Of the following local anesthetics, which has intrinsic vasoconstrictive actions?
Answer
  • a. cocaine
  • b. procaine
  • c. xylocaine
  • d. bupivacaine

Question 32

Question
Which of the following antibiotics is found at much higher concentrations in crevicular fluid than in serum?
Answer
  • a. clindamycin
  • b. penicillin
  • c. metronidazole
  • d. tetracycline

Question 33

Question
When administered as oral centrally acting analgesics, which of the following is considered to have the highest dependence liability?
Answer
  • a. codeine
  • b. oxycodone (in Percodan)
  • c. propoxyphene (Darvon)
  • d. pentazocine (Talwin)

Question 34

Question
Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of which of the following?
Answer
  • a. herpangina
  • b. angina pectoris
  • c. recurrent apthous stomatitis
  • d. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

Question 35

Question
Auditory nerve deafness is associated with the use of
Answer
  • a. polymixin B
  • b. chloramphenicol
  • c. amphotericin B
  • d. gentamycin

Question 36

Question
The maximal or ceiling effect of a drug is also correctly referred to as the drug’s
Answer
  • a. agonism
  • b. potency
  • c. efficacy
  • d. specificity

Question 37

Question
Which of the following agents found in tobacco products cause addiction?
Answer
  • a. tar
  • b. formaldehyde
  • c. nicotine
  • d. carbon monoxide

Question 38

Question
Allergic reactions to local anesthetics are caused by
Answer
  • a. rapid absorption
  • b. slow detoxification
  • c. an antigen-antibody reaction
  • d. improper administration technique

Question 39

Question
Which drug group is the LEAST likely to cause xerostomia?
Answer
  • a. opioids
  • b. antidepressants
  • c. antihistamines
  • d. benzodiazepines
  • e. anticholinergics

Question 40

Question
Currently, the BEST oral sedative drugs for dentistry fall into the class of
Answer
  • a. narcotics
  • b. barbiturates
  • c. phenothiazines
  • d. benzodiazepines

Question 41

Question
Which of the following best describes the drug-receptor activity of naloxone? In Terms of: Affinity | Intrinsic | Activity
Answer
  • a. high high
  • b. low high
  • c. high none
  • d. none low

Question 42

Question
Which of the following types of chemical bonding is the least likely to be involved in a drug-receptor interaction?
Answer
  • a. covalent bonding
  • b. hydrogen bonding
  • c. dipole-dipole bonding
  • d. electrostatic bonding
  • e. van der Waal’s forces

Question 43

Question
After a threshold stimulus, the cell membrane becomes permanently altered. The liberation of which of the following transmitter substances causes this alteration?
Answer
  • a. acetylcholine
  • b. cholinesterase
  • c. hydroxycholine
  • d. acetylsalicylic acid

Question 44

Question
Which of the following compounds is used as an antiviral agent?
Answer
  • a. amantadine (Symmetrel)
  • b. novobiocin
  • c. miconazole (monistat)
  • d. amphotericin B

Question 45

Question
With an overdose of a cholinergic drug, one would expect to see each of the following signs EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • a. sweating
  • b. urination
  • c. mydriasis
  • d. bradycardia
  • e. copious serous saliva

Question 46

Question
Cephalosporins are definitely CONTRAINDICATED for penicillinallergic patients who exhibit
Answer
  • a. immediate-type reactions
  • b. nausea and vomiting with erythromycin
  • c. any type of reaction to the penicillins

Question 47

Question
Which of the following is a beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent used for the treatment of hypertension?
Answer
  • a. prazosin (Minipress)
  • b. clonidine (Catapress)
  • c. atenolol (Tenormin)
  • d. hydralazine (Aprezoline)
  • e. verapamil (Calan)

Question 48

Question
In which of the following categories are ephedrine, tyramine, and amphetamine classified?
Answer
  • a. anticholinesterases
  • b. alpha-adrenergic blocking agents
  • c. indirect-acting sympathomimetics
  • d. direct-acting parasympathomimetics

Question 49

Question
Thiazides, which are used in the treatment of hypertension, may require supplemental administration of
Answer
  • a. sodium
  • b. chloride
  • c. calcium
  • d. potassium

Question 50

Question
Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious?
Answer
  • a. hypotension
  • b. hepatotoxicity
  • c. uterine neoplasia
  • d. thromboembolic disorder
  • e. decreased resistance to infection

Question 51

Question
The supraspinal analgesic activity of morphine is mediated primarily through its influence upon which opioid receptor subtype?
Answer
  • a. mu
  • b. kappa
  • c. delta
  • d. sigma
  • e. epsilon

Question 52

Question
Which pair of anesthetics is most likely to show cross-allergenicity?
Answer
  • a. lidocaine-mepivacaine
  • b. prilocaine-tetracaine
  • c. procaine-mepivacaine
  • d. procaine-lidocaine
  • e. lidocaine-benzocaine

Question 53

Question
Thrombophlebitis, which occurs after intravenous administration of diazepam, is usually attributed to which of the following substances in the mixture?
Answer
  • a. benzoic acid
  • b. ethyl alcohol
  • c. propylene glycol
  • d. sodium metabisulfite

Question 54

Question
Each of the following is a pharmacologic effect of phenothiazines EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • a. sedation
  • b. an antiemetic effect
  • c. alpha-adrenergic effect
  • d. potentiation of the action of narcotics
  • e. an anticonvulsant

Question 55

Question
Epinephrine antagonizes the effects of histamine by
Answer
  • a. preventing the release of histamine
  • b. acting on the central nervous system
  • c. producing physiologic actions opposite to that of histamine
  • d. competitively blocking histamine at the cellular receptor site

Question 56

Question
Which of the following represents the drug-of-choice in the treatment of candidiasis for an HIV-infected patient?
Answer
  • a. acyclovir
  • b. nystatin
  • c. AZT
  • d. chlorhexidine

Question 57

Question
A patient presents for treatment of a large fluctuant mass in the submandibular space as a result of extension of odontogenic infection. He has a temperature of 38.5 degrees C (101 degrees F). Initially, the dentist should treat this patient with which of the following?
Answer
  • a. salicylate therapy to reduce the temperature
  • b. alternate application of heat and cold to the area to improve circulation
  • c. incision and drainage and a culture for antibiotic sensitivity
  • d. antibiotic therapy to reduce the swelling and infection

Question 58

Question
The only local anesthetic that increases the pressor activity of both epinephrine and norepinephrine is
Answer
  • a. cocaine
  • b. procaine
  • c. dibucaine
  • d. lidocaine
  • e. mepivacaine

Question 59

Question
Corticosteroid therapy for arthritis is contraindicated for a patient who also has which of the following conditions?
Answer
  • a. anemia
  • b. nephritis
  • c. alcoholism
  • d. peptic ulcer
  • e. rheumatic heart disease

Question 60

Question
Which of the following is the first symptom that is usually perceived by the patient being administered nitrous oxide?
Answer
  • a. nausea
  • b. euphoria
  • c. giddiness
  • d. tingling of the hands

Question 61

Question
Each of the following, EXCEPT one, is a good reason for using sedation. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • a. to allay apprehension, anxiety or fear
  • b. to decrease the amount of local anesthesia that is required for a given procedure
  • c. to alleviate stress in a severely medically compromised patient
  • d. to accomplish certain procedures that a practitioner would not normally be able to do on an anxious patient

Question 62

Question
Which of the following is classified as an antianxiety drug?
Answer
  • a. methohexital
  • b. lorazepam
  • c. haloperidol
  • d. pentazocine
  • e. phenylpropanolamine

Question 63

Question
Alcohol abuse occurs when someone
Answer
  • a. drinks more than the legal limit of alcohol
  • b. experiences withdrawal symptoms when not drinking
  • c. gets seriously intoxicated on a regular basis
  • d. drinks enough that it puts their relationship, job, or health in jeopardy

Question 64

Question
For oral sedation in the dental setting, the most ideal group of agents is
Answer
  • a. narcotics
  • b. barbiturates
  • c. antihistamines
  • d. benzodiazepines
  • e. anticholinergics

Question 65

Question
In most cases, which of the following is the accepted dose schedule of penicillin in the treatment of actinomycosis of the jaw?
Answer
  • a. 250 mg. oral tablets q.i.d., 7 days
  • b. 500 mg. oral tablets q.i.d., 7 days
  • c. 600,000 units intramuscularly twice daily for two weeks followed by oral medication
  • d. 10 million units intravenously per day for 10-14 days followed by long-term oral medication
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