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Ch. 12 cancer bio

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patho 1 Quiz on Ch. 12 cancer bio, created by Esmeralda Espitia on 01/02/2022.
Esmeralda Espitia
Quiz by Esmeralda Espitia, updated more than 1 year ago
Esmeralda Espitia
Created by Esmeralda Espitia almost 3 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
1. Which cancer originates from connective tissue?
Answer
  • a. Osteogenic sarcoma
  • b. Basal cell carcinoma
  • c. Multiple myeloma
  • d. Adenocarcinoma

Question 2

Question
2. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
Answer
  • a. Blood vessels
  • b. Epithelial cells
  • c. Connective tissue
  • Glandular

Question 3

Question
3. Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Answer
  • a. Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
  • b. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
  • c. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
  • d. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

Question 4

Question
4. Which term is used to describe a cell showing a loss of cellular differentiation?
Answer
  • a. Dysplasia
  • b. Hyperplasia
  • c. Metaplasia
  • d. Anaplasia

Question 5

Question
5. What are tumor cell markers?
Answer
  • a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells
  • b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
  • c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells
  • d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy

Question 6

Question
6. What is one function of the tumor cell marker?
Answer
  • a. To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer
  • b. To treat certain types of cancer
  • c. To predict where cancers will develop
  • d. To screen individuals at high risk for cancer

Question 7

Question
7. Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in the development of colon cancer?
Answer
  • a. Cancer cells accumulate slower than noncancer cells.
  • b. An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required to develop cancer.
  • c. Tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
  • d. Apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli, including excessive growth.

Question 8

Question
8. Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to do what?
Answer
  • a. Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply
  • b. Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors
  • c. Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
  • d. Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use

Question 9

Question
9. What is apoptosis?
Answer
  • a. Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
  • b. Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
  • c. Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
  • d. Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia

Question 10

Question
10. A student studying biology asks the professor to describe how the ras gene is involved in cancer proliferation. What explanation by the professor is best?
Answer
  • a. It suppresses the action of the tumor-suppressor genes.
  • b. It changes the way the growth promotion genes work.
  • c. A mutation in this gene allows continuous cell growth.
  • d. It activates a cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus.

Question 11

Question
11. The professor explains to students that oncogenes are genes that are capable of what?
Answer
  • a. Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
  • b. Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
  • c. Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
  • d. Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis

Question 12

Question
12. Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
Answer
  • a. Point mutation
  • b. Chromosome translocation
  • c. Gene amplification
  • d. Chromosome fusion

Question 13

Question
13. In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of normal gene to oncogene?
Answer
  • a. Point mutation
  • b. Chromosome fusion
  • c. Gene amplification
  • d. Chromosome translocation

Question 14

Question
14. What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?
Answer
  • a. Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
  • b. The tumor-suppressor gene is turned off.
  • c. Genetic amplification causes the growth.
  • d. Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

Question 15

Question
15. Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes?
Answer
  • a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
  • b. The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
  • c. Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to affect carcinogenesis.
  • d. The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.

Question 16

Question
16. How does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?
Answer
  • a. Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
  • b. Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies
  • c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs
  • d. Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes

Question 17

Question
17. How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?
Answer
  • a. To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth
  • b. As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division
  • c. To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
  • d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely

Question 18

Question
18. What are characteristics of benign tumors?
Answer
  • a. Benign tumors invade local tissues.
  • b. Benign tumors spread through the lymph nodes.
  • c. Benign tumors cause systemic symptoms.
  • d. Benign tumors include the suffix -oma.

Question 19

Question
19. What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
Answer
  • a. Herpes simplex virus type 6
  • b. Herpes simplex virus type 2
  • c. Human papillomavirus
  • d. Human immunodeficiency virus

Question 20

Question
20. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
Answer
  • a. Ovarian
  • b. Uterine
  • c. Cervical
  • d. Vaginal

Question 21

Question
21. A healthcare professional is caring for a patient undergoing chemotherapy. What is the skin- related health risk the professional should assess the patient for and be prepared to treat?
Answer
  • a. Infection
  • b. Ultraviolet damage
  • c. Pain
  • d. Erythema

Question 22

Question
22. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
Answer
  • a. Proto-oncogenes
  • b. Oncogenes
  • c. Tumor-suppressor genes
  • d. Growth-promoting genes

Question 23

Question
23. What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation?
Answer
  • a. Cells undergo apoptosis.
  • b. Cells escape apoptosis.
  • c. Cells receive less oxygen.
  • d. Cells adhere more readily.

Question 24

Question
24. Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and radiation therapy?
Answer
  • a. Increased cell turnover
  • b. Constipation
  • c. Stomatitis
  • d. Bloody stool

Question 25

Question
25. What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?
Answer
  • a. To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
  • b. To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
  • c. To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
  • d. To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels

Question 26

Question
26. It has been determined that a patient’s tumor is in stage 2. How does the healthcare professional describe this finding to the patient
Answer
  • a. Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.
  • b. Cancer has spread to regional structures.
  • c. Cancer is locally invasive.
  • d. Cancer has spread to distant sites.

Question 27

Question
27. A cancer patient has pain at the tumor site and is worried the tumor has metastasized. What does the healthcare provider understand about this patient’s complaint?
Answer
  • a. Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
  • b. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
  • c. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
  • d. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.

Question 28

Question
28. A healthcare professional is caring for four patients with cancer. Which patient does the professional educate about brachytherapy?
Answer
  • a. Lung
  • b. Colon
  • c. Cervical
  • d. Brain

Question 29

Question
29. A child has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). What does the healthcare professional tell the parents about the survival rate at 5 years for this disease
Answer
  • a. 90%
  • b. 70%
  • c. 40%
  • d. 20%

Question 30

Question
30. By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?
Answer
  • a. Proto-oncogene
  • b. Autocrine stimulation
  • c. Reliance on caretaker genes
  • d. Pleomorphology

Question 31

Question
31. What is the role of caretaker genes?
Answer
  • a. Maintenance of genomic integrity
  • b. Proliferation of cancer cells
  • c. Secretion of growth factors
  • d. Restoration of normal tissue structure

Question 32

Question
32. In a normal, nonmutant state, what is an oncogene referred to as?
Answer
  • a. Basal cell
  • b. Target cell
  • c. Caretaker gene
  • d. Proto-oncogene

Question 33

Question
33. What does the student learn about pleomorphic cells?
Answer
  • a. Pleomorphic cells are similar in size.
  • b. They have different sizes and shapes.
  • c. They are a result of anaplasia.
  • d. Pleomorphic cells differentiate uniformly.

Question 34

Question
34. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
Answer
  • a. Nausea
  • b. Fatigue
  • c. Hair loss
  • d. Weight loss

Question 35

Question
35. What does the health professions student learn about benign tumors?
Answer
  • a. The resulting pain is severe.
  • b. Benign tumors are not encapsulated.
  • c. Benign tumors are fast growing.
  • d. The cells are well-differentiated.

Question 36

Question
1. Normally, which cells are considered immortal? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • a. Germ
  • b. Stem
  • c. Blood
  • d. Epithelial
  • e. Muscle

Question 37

Question
2. What is the most common route for distant metastasis? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • a. Seeding
  • b. Blood
  • c. Lymphatic vessels
  • d. Invasion
  • e. Proliferation

Question 38

Question
3. What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • a. Size
  • b. Ability to differentiate
  • c. Life expectancy
  • d. Tissue structure
  • e. Shape

Question 39

Question
4. What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections among patients with cancer? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • a. Indwelling medical devices
  • b. Suppressed immune system
  • c. Visitor-introduced microorganisms
  • d. Poor appetite
  • e. Inadequate wound care

Question 40

Question
5. Which statements concerning aging and the occurrence of cancer are true? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • a. Decline in immunologic functions
  • b. Predisposition to nutritional inadequacies
  • c. Unwillingness to access healthcare services
  • d. Reluctance to engage in cancer screenings
  • e. Effects of immobility on the immune system

Question 41

Question
6. Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • a. Brain
  • b. Colon
  • Bone
  • d. Thyroid gland
  • e. Urinary bladder

Question 42

Question
7. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who has cancer and a hemoglobin of 8.8 mg/dL. What factors should the professional assess the patient for?
Answer
  • a. Chronic bleeding
  • b. Malabsorption of iron
  • c. Malnutrition
  • d. Recent blood transfusion
  • e. Current infection
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