Question 1
Question
Identify this breed of sheep noted for their fine wool production?
Answer
-
Southdown
-
Texel
-
Merino
-
Friesian
-
Suffolk
Question 2
Question
Icterus is a commonly observed clinical signs in cattle with:
Question 3
Question
Which type of fly is associated with the condition shown here in North America?
Answer
-
Horn fly
-
Stable fly
-
Face fly
-
Warble fly
-
Deer fly
Question 4
Question
Identify the breed shown in the picture.
Answer
-
Barbados black belly
-
Oberhasli
-
Dorper
-
Boer
-
Toggenburg
Question 5
Question
Which one of hte following is correct regarding vegetative valvular endocarditis in cattle?
Answer
-
The prognosis is usually good following appropriate therapy
-
the tricuspid valve is usually affected
-
An irregular heart rhythm is usually present
-
Neutropenia is a common finding in the blood count
-
The mitral valve is usually affected
Question 6
Question
Which one of the following statements concerning caseous lymphadenitis is true?
Answer
-
Treatment of caseous lymphadenitis with large doses of antibiotics usually results in resolution of disease within 2 months
-
There two forms of CLA internal and external.
-
Culling of infected animals with Caseous Lymphadenitis is not necessary due to the fact that the disease is not communicable
-
It is possible to include both vaccinated and non-vaccinated animals in an ELISA screening program and get accurate results
-
Proper vaccination for CLA will usually eliminate the risk of most new infections and sometimes cures infected animals.
Question 7
Question
This heifer was observed at a sale barn. You recognized her condition as being:
Answer
-
Papillomatosis
-
Zinc deficiency
-
Photosensitization
-
Ringworm
-
Dermatophilosis
Question 8
Question
Concerning infectious pinkeye in goats, which one of the following statements is true?
Answer
-
Treated animals recover more quickly than non-treated ones
-
Carrier animals exist
-
Therapy of choice is procaine penicillin G.
-
The disease is not zoonotic
-
The disease has little clinical significance
Question 9
Question
Which of the following breeds is most susceptible to footrot?
Answer
-
Merino
-
Hampshire
-
Southdown
-
Dorper
-
Suffolk
Question 10
Question
What is the age of the sheep that has the dentition pattern as shown in this picture?
Question 11
Question
Identify the skin condition seen on this Jersey heifer.
Answer
-
Photosensitization
-
Dermatophytosis
-
Mange
-
Lice infection
-
Dermatophilosis
Question 12
Question
This cow recently calved and is now showing the clinical signs observed in this picture. What would be your most likely presumptive diagnosis?
Answer
-
Atrial fibrillation
-
Valvular endocarditis
-
Lymphosarcoma
-
Congestive heart failure
-
Summer slump
Question 13
Question
Which one of the following is the therapy of choice for polioencephalomalacia in sheep?
Answer
-
Calcium versenate
-
Procaine penicillin G
-
Thiamine hydrochloride
-
Mannitol
-
Vitamin E and Selenium
Question 14
Question
Pericardiostomy was performed on this cow. Which one of the following is most likely a cause of pericardial effusion in a cow?
Question 15
Question
This breed has been used as a genetic model for study of which one of the following human diseases?
Answer
-
Parkinson's disease
-
Fucosidosis
-
Crohn's disease
-
Tay-sachs disease
-
Chondrodysplasia
Question 16
Question
Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for parapox virus in sheep?
Answer
-
Bacterin
-
Modified live virus
-
Live virus
-
Killed virus
-
Toxoid
Question 17
Question
A producer wants to minimize the occurrence of pregnancy toxemia in a flock of crossbred ewes. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendations?
Answer
-
Add chlortetracycline to the ration that is fed to the ewes in late gestation.
-
Reduce feeding concentrates and limit exercise during the last trimester.
-
Target genetic selection from the ewe flock and the breeding ram to produce single lambs rather than multiples
-
Target the plane of nutrition to avoid extremes in body condition in the pregnant ewe
-
Vaccinate the pregnant ewe with C. perfringens types C and D approximately 4 weeks before they are due to lamb
Question 18
Question
What is the primary clinical sign in small ruminants with advanced paratuberculosis infections?
Question 19
Question
What are the most common early clinical manifestations of ovine progressive pneumonia virus infection in older ewes?
Answer
-
Chronic hyperplastic synovitis and lymph node hyperplasia
-
Lymph node hyperplasia and mononuclear infiltration of the mammary gland
-
Mononuclear infiltration of the mammary gland and weight loss
-
Leukoencephalomyelitis and/or chronic interstitial pneumonia
-
Exercise intolerance and progressive weight loss despite normal appetite.
Question 20
Question
What is the main route for transmission of bovine lymphosarcoma virus?
Question 21
Question
Which of the following statements would represent LEGAL usage of Naxcel (ceftiofur)?
Answer
-
The use of Nacel administered IV in a dairy cow that has just had a displaced abomasum surgery
-
The use of Naxcel administrated subcutaneously in a lactating dairy cow with a neck wound
-
The use of Naxcel at double the dose for a beef calf with pneumonia
-
The use of Naxcel twice a day for 3 days for a beef calf with septic arthritis
Question 22
Question
Identify the primary cause of neonatal lamb mortality in most flocks
Answer
-
White muscle disease
-
Eperythrozoonosis
-
Starvation
-
Colibacillosis
-
Enterotoxemia
Question 23
Question
Which one of the following diseases would be considered most contagious in dairy goats?
Answer
-
Polioencephalomalacia
-
Caseous lymphadenitis
-
Enterotoxemia
-
Tetanus
-
Listeriosis
Question 24
Question
A cow was presented for examination of a respiratory system problem. On examination you have found a purulent discharge from the ear canal. Which one of the following goes to the top of your differential diagnosis list?
Question 25
Question
Which one of the following statements regarding skin disease of cattle is most correct?
Answer
-
Lice infestation is common in cooler weather
-
Papillomatosis is contagious
-
Bovine ringworm is zoonotic
-
Warbles are lesions found along the dorsum
-
All of the above are correct
Question 26
Question
Which one of the following breeds is considered to be double-muscled?
Answer
-
Piedmontese
-
Hereford
-
Beefmaster
-
Angus
-
Watusi
Question 27
Question
A herd of goats with pruritic, crusty lesions on the pastern areas would most likely be affected with:
Answer
-
Demodectic mange
-
Ringworm
-
Chorioptic manage
-
Lice infestion
-
Sheep ked infestation
Question 28
Question
A useful and practical therapy for hypoglycemic lambs, kids, or piglets is:
Answer
-
50% glucose intraperitoneally
-
20% glucose intraperitoneally
-
50% glucose orally
-
20% glucose orally
-
20% glucose intravenously
Question 29
Question
A castrated male goat is called a:
Answer
-
Stag
-
Buck
-
Billy
-
Wether
-
Gelding
Question 30
Question
Although there are many stressors that can predispose cattle to shipping fever, the highest stressor is which one of the following?
Question 31
Question
Which one of the following is claimed to be a significant benefit of using either Draxxin or Excede for therapy of bovine respiratory disease despite the cost?
Answer
-
Full course of therapy in a single dose
-
No withdrawal time for slaughter
-
Use in dairy as well as beef animals
-
Efficacy against Histophilus somni
-
Availability as an over-the-counter (OTC) remedy
Question 32
Question
In the face of an outbreak of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus in a dairy herd, which one of the following vaccines would you select for vaccination of the herd, if any?
Answer
-
Intranasal vaccine
-
Replicating modified live virus vaccine
-
Non-replicating modified live virus vaccine
-
Killed vaccine
-
None. Vaccination should not be done in the face of an outbreak
Question 33
Question
Which one of the following statements is true?
Answer
-
Younger animals are more likely to show clinical signs of anaplasmosis than are older ones
-
Biting flies are biological vectors of anaplasmosis
-
Effectiveness of oxytetracycline therapy for anaplasmosis is reduced if more than 15% of the red blood cells are infected
-
Anaplasmosis vaccine is marketed commercially in the United States
-
Incubation period for anaplasmosis in cattle is short, usually 5-15days
Question 34
Question
What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count within a normal range?
Answer
-
Probably indicative of chronic infection
-
Probably indicative of parasitism
-
Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
-
Probably indicative of an acute overwhelming infection
-
Possibly could be a normal hemogram
Question 35
Question
Which of these microorganisms may be part of the normal microflora of the upper bovine respiratory tract?
Question 36
Question
"Summer slump" in cattle is related to ingestion of:
Answer
-
Pithomyces
-
Ergot
-
Mucor
-
Aspergillus
-
Acremonium
Question 37
Question
The antibiotic that has no milk withdrawal time is:
Answer
-
Excenel
-
Oxytetracycline
-
Procaine penicillin G
-
Sulfadimethoxine
Question 38
Question
Which one of the following statements is most correct?
Answer
-
Hemoglobinuria is a commonly observed clinical sign with babesiosis
-
Copper deficiency is the most commonly diagnosed mineral deficiency worldwide in cattle
-
The AGID test is the most sensitive test for detection of bovine lymphosarcoma
-
Persistent right aortic arch is the most common congenital cardiovascular anomaly observed in cattle
-
Post-partum hemoglobinuria is associated with magnesium deficiency
Question 39
Question
According to label, flunixin meglumine (Banamine) must be administered to cattle by what route?
Answer
-
Intramuscular
-
Intravenous
-
Oral
-
Subcutaneous
Question 40
Question
Which one of the following statements is true concerning tuberculosis in cattle?
Answer
-
The primary route of infection is transplacental
-
The test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
-
The disease has been eradicated in the continental United States
-
Coughing and chronic nasal discharge are the most obvious clinical signs in early cases
-
Infection usually occurs after two years of age
Question 41
Question
Why would a red coated cattle breed be better adapted to the tropics than a black one?
Answer
-
More resistant to intestinal parasitism
-
More tolerant of heat
-
More able to utilize native roughage
-
More efficient in water metabolism
-
More efficient in reproduction
Question 42
Question
Which one of the following plants is associated with primary photosensitization in cattle?
Answer
-
Milkweed
-
Panicum
-
Pigweed
-
Coffeeweed
-
Buckwheat
Question 43
Question
What unique method of vaccination of cattle against Mannheimia haemolytica is being investigated?
Answer
-
Oral vaccination using transgenic clover
-
Topical vaccination using
-
Intramuscular vaccination
-
Subcutaneous vaccination
-
Intranasal vaccination
Question 44
Question
If one were to mate a homozygous polled bull with a horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?
Question 45
Question
Which of the following cattle antibiotics is illegal to use in an extralabel manner?
Answer
-
Baytril
-
Draxxin
-
Micotil
-
Nuflor
Question 46
Question
the age of the female bovine when several food animal antibiotics become extralabel (possibly illegal) is:
Answer
-
Day 1 (at birth)
-
12 months of age
-
18 months of age
-
20 months of age
Question 47
Question
Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?
Answer
-
Interstitial pneumonia is characterized by inspiratory dyspnea
-
The principal clinical signs are expiratory dyspnea and high fever
-
Expiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen
-
Preferred therapy is oxytetracycline
-
Prognosis for recovery is poor
Question 48
Question
Which one of the following breeds of cattle is affected with "fawn calf syndrome"?
Answer
-
Jersey
-
Galloway
-
Shorthorn
-
Angus
-
Hereford
Question 49
Question
Which of the following antibiotics, when administered by label, has the longest period of therapeutic levels?
Answer
-
Micotil
-
Naxcel
-
Nuflor
-
Zuprevo
Question 50
Question
Why are Mannheimia induced pneumonias only observed in goats, sheep and cattle?
Answer
-
Ruminant specific leukotoxin
-
Stress
-
Associated parasitic migration through lungs
-
Lack of protective mucin in the airway of these species
-
Tracheal antimicrobial peptide deficiency
Question 51
Question
Sudden death with high morbidity in a group of vaccinated beef calves on pasture after a new dirt pond was dug would be suggestive of:
Answer
-
Polioencephalomalacia
-
Clostridial disease
-
Anthrax
-
Selenium toxicosis
-
Dermatophilosis
Question 52
Question
Milk protein allergy in cattle is manifested as:
Answer
-
Urticaria (hives)
-
Pruritus
-
Diarrhea
-
Polyuria
-
Pulmonary edema
Question 53
Question
A thin ewe in advanced stages of pregnancy toxemia. The ewe could not get up and was alert and not anemic. What therapy would you recommended to the owner?
Question 54
Question
Which one of the following breed is most resistant to tick borne disease?
Answer
-
Santa Gertrudis
-
Angus
-
Hereford
-
Shorthorn
-
Limousine
Question 55
Question
Which breed of dairy cattle is noted for having a hard, darkly colored foot and fewer lameness problems?
Answer
-
Black and White Holstein
-
Ayrshire
-
Red and White Holstein
-
Jersey
-
Guernsey
Question 56
Question
Identify this breed of sheep noted for their fine wool production
Answer
-
Hampshire
-
Charolais
-
Merino
-
Friesian
-
Suffolk
Question 57
Question
Icterus is a commonly observed clinical sign in cattle with:
Answer
-
Babesiosis
-
Fescue toxicosis
-
Anthrax
-
Brisket disease
-
Anaplasmosis
Question 58
Answer
-
Alpine
-
Finn
-
Oberhasli
-
Jacob
-
Barbados Black belly
Question 59
Question
What is the age of the sheep that has the dentition pattern as shown in this picture?
Question 60
Question
Identify the breed
Answer
-
Charolais
-
Shorthorn
-
Hereford
-
Angus
-
Santa Gertrudis
Question 61
Question
Several goats in a flock were affected with severe panophthalmitis and conjunctivitis. What would be your recommendation for this flock?
Answer
-
Send all to slaughter immediately
-
Quarantine and treat with procaine penicillin G
-
Quarantine and refer to the state veterinary officer
-
Quarantine and vaccinated the herd
-
Quarantine and treat with tetracycline
Question 62
Question
Identify the breed
Answer
-
Ayrshire
-
Guernsey
-
Jersey
-
Holstein
-
Brown swiss
Question 63
Question
The front end and the back end of this goat kid are visible in the pictures. What gene is involved with the condition observed in this kid? answer hornless
Answer
-
Chondrodysplasia
-
Hornless
-
Double muscling
-
Glycogen storage
-
Rat tail
Question 64
Question
This is a picture of the lungs of a calf at necropsy. You can recognize this as being which one of the following problems?
Question 65
Question
The classification for both frostbite and thermal burns is based upon degree. Which degree is show in these two pictures?
2nd
Question 66
Question
Post-calving this cow was affected with submandibular, ventral and brisket edema. At necropsy the heart had lesions as shown here. What is your Dx?
Answer
-
Amyloidosis
-
Valvular endocarditis
-
Pericarditis
-
Cardiomyopathy
-
Lymphosarcoma
Question 67
Question
This heifer was seen at a sale barn You recognized her condition as being:
Answer
-
Papillomatosis
-
Zinc deficiency
-
Photosensitization
-
Ringworm
-
Dermatophilosis
Question 68
Question
What is your presumptive diagnosis for the condition observed on this goat?
Answer
-
Salivary cyst
-
Neoplasia
-
Caseous lymphadenitis
-
Edema
-
Hematoma
Question 69
Question
Which one of the following statements about the parasite of deer and cattle shown in this picture is true?
Answer
-
Paresis and/or paralysis in camelids is associated with this parasite
-
Coughing and poor body condition are often prominent clinical signs
-
The parasite is resistant to most commonly used dewormers
-
Clinical cases are most often seen in late spring
-
Vaccination against this parasite is available in the United States.
Question 70
Question
A 4-H member handled some lambs about a week ago at the county fair. Now he has developed lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
-
Dermatophilosis
-
Warts
-
Ecthyma
-
Fungal infection
-
Pustular dermatitis
Question 71
Question
Why are Mannheimia induced pneumonias only observed in goats, sheep and cattle?
Answer
-
Ruminant specific leukotoxin
-
Stress
-
Associated parasitic migration through the lungs
-
Lack of protective mucin in the airway of these species
-
Tracheal antimicrobial peptide deficiency
Question 72
Question
Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?
Answer
-
Interstitial pneumonia is accompanied by high fever
-
The principal clinical signs are expiratory dyspnea and mild fever
-
Inspiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen
-
Preferred therapy is oxytetracycline
-
Prognosis for recovery is poor
Question 73
Question
If one were to mate a homozygous polled bull with a homozygous horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?
Question 74
Question
Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for parapox virus in sheep?
Answer
-
Bacterin
-
Modified live virus
-
live virus
-
Killed virus
-
Toxoid
Question 75
Question
Which one of the following diseases would be considered most contagious in dairy goats?
Answer
-
Polioencephalomalacia
-
Caseous lymphadenitis
-
Enterotoxemia
-
Tetanus
-
Listeriosis
Question 76
Question
Which one of the following breeds is considered to be double-muscled?
Answer
-
Charolais
-
Hereford
-
Beefmaster
-
Angus
-
Watusi
Question 77
Question
A useful and practical therapy for hypoglycemic lambs, kids or piglets is:
Answer
-
50% glucose intraperitoneally
-
20% glucose intraperitoneally
-
50% glucose orally
-
20% glucose orally
-
20% glucose intravenously
Question 78
Question
Which one of the following plants is associated with primary photosensitization in cattle?
Answer
-
Milkweed
-
Panicum
-
Pigweed
-
Coffeeweed
-
Buckwheat
Question 79
Question
A flock of sheep was showing clinical signs of lethargy and anemia. A couple of lambs had died. Other sheep were grinding their teeth and showing extreme thirst. Which one of these elements would be at the top of your differential diagnosis of toxicity?
Answer
-
Iodine
-
Selenium
-
Copper
-
Fluorine
-
Sodium
Question 80
Question
Fly predators are:
Answer
-
effective only against face flies
-
Not affected by chemicals sprayed on flies
-
Harmful to humans as well as animals
-
Are active only in daylight hours
-
Tiny wasps that prey on fly larvae and pupae
Question 81
Question
If not properly prepared before marketing, commingled feeder calves have the potential of "wreaking out" when they arrive at a feedlot. What is responsible for this wreck?
Answer
-
A fall in resistance due to weather changes
-
A simultaneous fall in resistance and a rise in disease challenge
-
A rise in disease challenge from commingling
-
Vaccination more than thirty days before marketing
-
A fall in resistance due to stresses of weaning, shipping and diet change
Question 82
Question
Which type of sound is consistent with atrial fibrillation on thoracic auscultation of a cow with dyspnea, distended jugular veins, and brisket edema?
Answer
-
Splashing sounds
-
Normal heart sounds of high amplitude projected over the entire thorax
-
Systolic murmur of high intensity
-
Diastolic murmur radiating from the base of the heart
-
Irregular heart sounds with tachycardia
Question 83
Question
If a lamb was found down this morning unable to move or rise with a history of tail docking and castration two weeks ago with rubber bands what is your primary tentative diagnosis?
Answer
-
Blunt trauma
-
Clostridial disease
-
Anthrax
-
Brisket edema
-
Acute parasitic disease
Question 84
Question
What is the main route of transmission of bovine lymphosarcoma virus?
Question 85
Question
Primarily, which of the following breeds is affected by bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency? (BLAD)
Answer
-
Jersey
-
Holstein
-
Shorthorn
-
Dutch belted
-
Brown swiss
Question 86
Question
Three very common sites of lymphosarcoma lesions in cattle, other than lymph nodes, are:
Question 87
Question
Milk protein allergy in cattle is manifested as:
Answer
-
Urticaria
-
Pruritus
-
Diarrhea
-
Polyuria
-
Pulmonary edema
Question 88
Question
Pleuritis in cattle manifested by pain. The clinical expression of this is:
Answer
-
Aggression and dysuria
-
Inspiratory dyspnea and coughing
-
Stiffness, reluctance to move and abduction of the elbows
-
Drooling of saliva and inappetance
-
Adduction of the elbows along with inspiratory grunt
Question 89
Question
Which one of these breeds of dairy cattle is noted for having a hard, darkly colored foot and fewer lameness problems?
Answer
-
Black and white holstein
-
Ayrshire
-
Red and white holstein
-
Jersey
-
Guernsey
Question 90
Question
What would be the significance of a high neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count within a normal range
Answer
-
Probably indicative of chronic infection
-
Probably indicative of parasitism
-
Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
-
Probably indicative of an acute infection
-
Possibly could be a normal hemogram
Question 91
Question
Pulmonary arterial pressure is a used as a screening test for which one of the following cattle diseases?
Question 92
Question
Why would the red angus be better adapted to the tropics than the black angus?
Answer
-
More resistant to intestinal parasitism
-
More tolerant of heat
-
More able to utilize native roughage
-
More efficient in water metabolism
-
More efficient in reproduction
Question 93
Question
The owner of a black angus calf was accustomed to horses, but not angus, and thought the calf was changing colors and turning grey-like a black foal turning grey. The calf is now black again after treatment. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
-
Zinc deficiency
-
Copper deficiency
-
Cobalt deficiency
-
Anaplasmosis
-
Porphyria
Question 94
Question
Which one of the following breeds is more resistant to tick borne disease?
Answer
-
Brahma
-
angus
-
Hereford
-
Shorthorn
-
Limousine
Question 95
Question
A thin ewe was in advanced stages of pregnancy toxemia. The ewe could not get up and was alert and not anemic. What therapy would you recommend to the owner?
Question 96
Question
Chronic weight loss in goats:
Answer
-
Is usually an individual animal problem
-
Is best evaluated within the context of the animal's environment and herdmates
-
Is a rare herd problem
-
Often carries a good prognosis
-
Rarely involves management factors
Question 97
Question
If a cow began showing symptoms of hives immediately after being treated with procaine penicillin, what would be the drug of choice for treating this cow?
Answer
-
Antihistamine
-
Corticosteroid
-
Epinephrine
-
Ephedrine
-
Flunixin meglumine
Question 98
Question
Entropion in neonatal lambs is often related to:
Answer
-
Dehydration
-
Hypothermia
-
Ocular infection
-
Birth trauma
-
Selenium deficiency
Question 99
Question
Which of the following diseases of sheep is important because of the zoonotic implications?
Question 100
Question
Identify this sheep breed known for the fine quality of its fleece.
Answer
-
Awassi
-
Merino
-
Katahdin
-
Southdown
-
Friesian
Question 101
Question
This is a blood smear from an anemic beef cow. What is your presumptive diagnosis?
Answer
-
Anaplasmosis
-
Iron deficiency
-
Anthrax
-
Bracken fern toxicosis
-
Babesiosis
Question 102
Question
Identify this breed of sheep
Answer
-
Southdown
-
Suffolk
-
Dorper
-
Merino
-
Rambouillet
Question 103
Question
This cow was presented with submandibular and brisket edema as well as jugular vein distention. Upon auscultation of the heart you hear splashing sounds. What is your presumptive diagnosis?
Question 104
Question
Identify this breed of dairy goat:
Answer
-
Nubian
-
Alpine
-
La Mancha
-
Saanen
-
Toggenburg
Question 105
Question
What is the most commonly identified cause of bacterial pneumonia in cattle?
Answer
-
Mannheimia spp.
-
Bordetella spp.
-
Histophilus somnus
-
Streptococcus spp.
-
Mycoplasma spp.
Question 106
Question
Identify this breed of goat:
Answer
-
Cashmere
-
Fainting
-
Pygmy
-
Oberhasli
-
Boer
Question 107
Question
Identify this breed of goat
Answer
-
Cashmere
-
Fainting
-
Pygmy
-
Oberhasli
-
Boer
Question 108
Answer
-
Cashmere
-
Fainting
-
Pygmy
-
Oberhasli
-
Boer
Question 109
Question
ID the goat breed:
Answer
-
Cashmere
-
Fainting
-
Pygmy
-
Oberhasli
-
Boer
Question 110
Question
ID the goat breed:
Answer
-
Cashmere
-
Fainting
-
Pygmy
-
Oberhasli
-
Boer
Question 111
Question
Several bulls being performanced test at a Nebraska feedlot 3500 feet above sea level developed edema of the head and brisket and a few died. What is your tentative diagnosis?
Answer
-
Pericarditis
-
Lymphosarcoma
-
Pulmonary hypertension
-
Chronic enteritis
-
Parasitism
Question 112
Question
ID the cattle breed:
Answer
-
Chianina
-
Charolais
-
Shorthorn
-
Angus
-
Hereford
Question 113
Question
ID cattle breed:
Answer
-
Chianina
-
Charolais
-
Shorthorn
-
Angus
-
Hereford
Question 114
Question
ID cattle breed:
Answer
-
Chianina
-
Charolais
-
Shorthorn
-
Angus
-
Hereford
Question 115
Answer
-
Chianina
-
Charolais
-
Shorthorn
-
Angus
-
Hereford
Question 116
Question
ID cattle breed:
Answer
-
Chianina
-
Charolais
-
Shorthorn
-
Angus
-
Hereford
Question 117
Question
ID the breed of dairy cattle that originated in Scotland.
Answer
-
Montbeliarde
-
Guernsey
-
Ayrshire
-
Friesian
-
Dairy shorthorn
Question 118
Question
ID this cattle breed that produces alpha 2 casein milk from France
Answer
-
Guernsey
-
Montbeliarde
-
Ayrshire
-
Friesian
-
Dairy shorthorn
Question 119
Question
Identify this double muscled Italian breed of cattle selected for the myostatin gene
Answer
-
Belgian Blue
-
Charolais
-
Piedmontese
-
Romagnola
-
Chianina
Question 120
Question
The clinical signs shown by the animal in this picture is most often seen with which one of the following diseases?
Question 121
Question
A calculus is lodged in the vermiform appendage of this animal. Which of the following is more likely to be involved in the pathogenesis of this condition?
Answer
-
Imbalanced calcium:phosphorus ratio of the ration
-
High levels of magnesium in the ration
-
Inadequate water intake
-
Only A and C are correct
-
All other answers are correct
Question 122
Question
Shown is the eye of a lamb presented for examination. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
Answer
-
Entropion
-
Cataract
-
Corneal ulceration
-
Pink eye
-
Photosensitivity
Question 123
Question
Shown here is the fatty liver of a ewe that died and was presented for necropsy. She was pregnant with triplets at the time. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
Answer
-
Listeriosis
-
Polioencephalomalacia
-
Anaplasmosis
-
Copper toxicosis
-
Pregnancy toxemia
Question 124
Question
Some rodeo bulls were penned next to a well-landscaped coliseum for their show. The next morning two of the seven bulls were found dead. What is the name of the plant which is cardio-toxic to ruminants, often killing them so suddenly that the plant may be found in the oral cavity?
Answer
-
Rhododendron
-
Oleander
-
Poinsettia
-
Croton
-
Japanese Yew
Question 125
Question
Entropion in neonatal lambs is often related to:
Answer
-
Dehydration
-
Hypothermia
-
Ocular infection
-
Birth trauma
-
Selenium deficiency
Question 126
Question
"Steely wool" is a clinical sign associated with:
Answer
-
Iron deficiency
-
Copper deficiency
-
Cobalt deficiency
-
Iodine deficiency
-
Magnesium deficiency
Question 127
Question
The normal white blood count of cattle usually ranges between:
Question 128
Question
Calf diphtheria is characterized clinically by:
Answer
-
Expiratory dyspnea
-
Fever, depression, coughing, mucopurulent nasal exudatin
-
Inspiratory dyspnea
-
Lacrimation, photophobia, coughing, reddened nose
-
Swelling under the jaw and in the neck area
Question 129
Question
Which one of the following ewes would be most at risk for getting pregnancy toxemia in your flock, everything being equal except as given?
Answer
-
Suffolk ewe, 3.5 BCS, late gestation, twins
-
Texel ewe, 4.0 BCS, non-pregnant
-
Hampshire ewe, 3.0 BCS, late gestation, single fetus
-
Shropshire ewe, 5.0 BCS, late gestation, twins
-
Romney ewe, 3.5 BCS, early gestation, triplets
Question 130
Question
Which one of the following small ruminant disease is a zoonotic disease?
Answer
-
Red gut
-
Blue tongue
-
Black disease
-
Sore mouth
-
CAE virus
Question 131
Question
Eosinophilia in the peripheral blood may be important in the diagnosis of which one of the following diseases of sheep?
Answer
-
Paralaphestrongylosis
-
Paratuberculosis
-
Polioencephalomalacia
-
Tuberculosis
-
Aflatoxicosis
Question 132
Question
Rumen acidosis occurs as a result of:
Answer
-
Too much rapidly digestible grain in the diet
-
Slug feeding of grain (e.g. feeding grain in the milking parlor
-
Inadequate effective fiber
-
Heat stress (panting cows have less bicarb available for buffering the rumen)
Question 133
Question
A defining characteristic of production medicine as applied to food animal practice is its focus on:
Answer
-
Individual animal curative medicine
-
Vaccination programs
-
Reproduction
-
Health programs for the control of specific diseases
-
The herd management system
Question 134
Question
Which one of the following statements concerning camelid restraint and handling is most correct?
Answer
-
The rule of restraint with llamas is "the more, the better"
-
Restraint for collection of blood sample from a llama requires two people
-
Llamas are not group animals. You must handle them by themselves
-
Minimal restraint is preferred for all llama-handling procedures
-
Diversionary restraint is preferred for all injections
Question 135
Question
What vaccine has been developed by the University of Alaska for use in the reindeer population?
Answer
-
Paratuberculosis
-
Scrapie
-
Western encephalitis
-
Tuberculosis
-
Brucellosis
Question 136
Question
What is the estimated cost of a case of milk fever?
Question 137
Question
You open the abdomen of a sheep for an exploratory laparotomy and find small white lesions on the cecum and large intestine. What is your diagnosis?
Answer
-
Fat necrosis
-
Tapeworm cyst
-
Edema
-
Oesophagostomum lesion
-
Abscess
Question 138
Question
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Answer
-
Antibiotics may be added to the cattle feed if prescribed by a veterinarian under his extra label privilege
-
Subclinical mastitis is equal to clinical mastitis in its effect on reproductive performance in the lactating dairy cow
-
Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with brachyspira infections
-
Tail docking of cattle is associated with a positive impact on milk quality
-
Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows
Question 139
Question
The most common consequence of sows having MMA syndrome is? (Mastitis, Metritis, Agalactia)
Answer
-
Iron deficiency anemia in piglets
-
Porcine stress syndrome in piglets
-
Hypoglycemia in piglets
-
Cannibalism of the piglets
-
Hypothermia of the piglets
Question 140
Question
What is the ideal calving interval for a beef-cow operation in the Midwest of the USA?
Question 141
Question
What disease symptom is associated with Mycoplasma haemolamae in alpacas
Answer
-
Blindness
-
Diarrhea
-
Deafness
-
Pacreatic stones
-
Anemia
Question 142
Question
Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a large commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is?
Question 143
Question
Air quality is often an issue in livestock confinement operations. Which one of the following gases is most likely involved with animal or human deaths in a confinement operation?
Answer
-
Mercaptans
-
Methane
-
Hydrogen sulfide
-
Carbon dioxide
-
Ammonia
Question 144
Question
Excessive use of water to clean the udder is a risk factor for which type of mastitis?
Answer
-
Streptococcus agalactiae
-
Coliform
-
Mycoplasma
-
Staphylococcus aureus
-
Yeast
Question 145
Question
Preconditioning is...?
Answer
-
Increasing grain ration in close-up dairy cows before calving
-
Dipping teats before milking
-
Mowing pastures that have gone to seed to reduce eye irritation in pastured cattle
-
Feeding anionic salts, such as ammonium chloride, to reduce the incidence of hypocalcemia in dairy cows.
-
Processing beef calves in such a way as to reduce stress before moving them to a feedlot
Question 146
Question
Shown here is a sample of corn silage.
Which type of corn silage is most likely be associated with chronic rumen acidosis in a dairy herd?
Answer
-
Long cut/large particle
-
Smaller particle
Question 147
Answer
-
Yorkshire
-
Landrace
-
Duroc
-
Kune Kune
-
Hampshire
Question 148
Question
You are presented a Holstein dairy cow with chronic watery diarrhea. No other cows in the herd are affected. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
-
Tuberculosis
-
Rumen acidosis
-
Paratuberculosis
-
Ostertagiasis
-
Paramphistomiasis
Question 149
Question
Which European beef breed is shown in this picture?
Answer
-
Charolais
-
Limousine
-
Hereford
-
Shorthorn
-
Belgian Blue
Question 150
Question
What condition would you suspect if you palpate a cow rectally and found the rumen enlarged as shown in this picture?
Question 151
Answer
-
Yorkshire
-
Hampshire
-
Duroc
-
Landrace
-
Pietrain
Question 152
Question
This cow is being treated for hypocalcemia. What is wrong with this picture?
Answer
-
Improper head restraint
-
Improper placement of intravenous administration
-
Inadequate cardiac monitoring
-
Improper drug administration (calcium borogluconate)
-
Improper biosecurity measures
Question 153
Question
ID this English breed of dairy cattle
Answer
-
Shorthorn
-
Ayrshire
-
Guernsey
-
Gloucester
-
Devon
Question 154
Question
The most common infectious cause of neonatal calf diarrhea is?
Answer
-
Cryptosporidium
-
Escherichia
-
Pseudomonas
-
Staphylococcus
-
Streptococcus