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LAM II FINAL

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LAM II final exam practice questions
curfman.melissa
Quiz by curfman.melissa, updated more than 1 year ago
curfman.melissa
Created by curfman.melissa about 9 years ago
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Question 1

Question
You are presented a Holstein dairy cow with chronic watery diarrhea. No other cows in the herd are affected. What would be the most likely Dx?
Answer
  • Tuberculosis
  • Rumen acidosis
  • Paratuberculosis
  • Ostertagiasis
  • Paramphistomiasis

Question 2

Question
Which European beef breed is shown in this picture?
Image:
bc5366ce-826a-4f9f-8946-d9115ca7d26b (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Charolais
  • Limousine
  • Hereford
  • Shorthorn
  • Belgian Blue

Question 3

Question
What condition would you suspect if you palpated a cow rectally and found the rumen enlarged as shown in the picture?
Image:
dd31b860-7d8f-4112-92be-5bc61b66273d (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Left abomasal displacement
  • Vagal indigestion
  • Abomasal volvulus
  • Lymphosarcoma
  • Traumatic reticuloperitonitis

Question 4

Question
The most common infectious cause of neonatal calf diarrhea is
Answer
  • Cryptosporidia
  • Escherichia
  • Streptococcus
  • Pseudomonas
  • Staphylococcus

Question 5

Question
Which one of the following statements is true concerning Johne's disease eradication from a cattle herd?
Answer
  • Current diagnostic methods allow identification of infected animals early in life.
  • A test and removal program for infected cows is the most profitable method.
  • Fecal-oral transmission is less important then transmission through milk.
  • Isolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
  • Culling clinical cases reduces herd prevalence of infection.

Question 6

Question
Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle
Answer
  • Copper.
  • Phosphorus
  • Molybdenum
  • Zinc
  • Selenium

Question 7

Question
Magnets given as a preventive for traumatic reticulitis in cattle should be given
Answer
  • To yearling cattle
  • At time of first breeding
  • at time of first parturition
  • When total mixed rations are fed
  • When chopped feeds are included in the deit

Question 8

Question
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the "scootch test"?
Answer
  • This is a test used to determine the amount of rumen fill in a cow
  • Tricep muscle fasiculation is usually elicited by this test
  • Odontoprisis is a consistent sign of a positive reaction
  • The test is also know as a "withers depression"
  • A positive test is a positive response; the cow flinches

Question 9

Question
The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is:
Answer
  • 2.5-5.5
  • 5.5-7.0
  • 2.5-7.0
  • 7.0-8.5
  • 3.5-8.5

Question 10

Question
Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy pf choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on legume pasture?
Answer
  • Magnesium carbnate
  • Sodium acid phosphate
  • Calcium boroglucoate
  • Poloxalene
  • Turpentine

Question 11

Question
Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?
Answer
  • Purchased calves from a sale barn
  • Purchased feed from a neighbor
  • Contaminated water due to a broken sewer pipe
  • Purchased cows from an auction
  • A stray dog

Question 12

Question
Which one of the following vaccines is more likely to cause an adverse reaction when given as directed to a small ruminant?
Answer
  • Tetanus toxoid
  • Rabies
  • Clostridium perfringens C and D
  • Leptospirosis
  • Pasteurella

Question 13

Question
With respect to bovine lymphosarcoma, which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • Hypercalcemia is a common feature of naturally occurring cases
  • Cutaneous lymphocytosis is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
  • Lymphosarcoma is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
  • Presistent lymphocytosis is a common sign in herds with the enzootic form
  • Horn flies commonly spread the disease

Question 14

Question
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • Foot rot vaccination is commercially available for use in sheep and goats in the USA
  • Rabies vaccine is labeled for use in goats in the United States
  • The most common organism associated with subclinical mastitis in goats is streptococcus
  • The somatic cell count limit for goat milk is 750,000 cells/cmm
  • Goats have a more reactive immune response then sheep

Question 15

Question
What is the most likely diagnosis of a recently calved dairy cow with extreme depression and head pressing?
Answer
  • Meningitis
  • Tetanus
  • Lead toxicosis
  • Botulism
  • Listeriosis

Question 16

Question
Maningitis in neonatal food animals may often resemble:
Answer
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Zinc deficiency
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Niacin deficiency
  • Hypokalemia

Question 17

Question
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding Clostridial myositis?
Answer
  • A stained impression smear will demonstrate Gram-positive cocci
  • Because treatment is largely ineffective, affected cattle should be taken to the sale barn
  • Once a case is seen, one of the most important things to do is make sure the herd gets vaccinated
  • Primarily affects young poor-doing cattle

Question 18

Question
Horizontal grooves observed on the digits of a cow would be indicative of:
Answer
  • Previous change in the management, nutrition, or disease
  • Age, similar to ring growth on trees
  • Mineral deficiency disease
  • Biotin deficiency
  • Rickets

Question 19

Question
Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of North America. Which one of the following statement is true?
Answer
  • Calculi do not develop in the mature cows bulls
  • Calculi develop in a castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
  • Calculi develop in cattle raised on rangelands because of the relatively high concentration of selenium in the diet
  • Calculi formation cannot be prevented by the consumption of sodium chloride at a level of 4% by weight of the total ration
  • When the urinary bladder ruptures in a steer with obstructive urolithiasis, uremia may not develop quickly because the ruminant can metabolize the urea in the rumen

Question 20

Question
Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications. Exudative bronchopneumonia and polarthritis are most commonly seen in herbs infected with both Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae and which other organism?
Answer
  • Actinomyces pyogenes
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Hemophilus parasuis

Question 21

Question
Which of these drugs are both contraindicated as injectable antibiotics in pigs and goats?
Answer
  • Lincomycin, Procaine Penicillin G.
  • Tilmicosin, Chloramphenicol
  • Chloramphenicol, Oxytetracycline
  • Lincomycin, Oxytetracycline
  • Tilmicosin, Lincomycin

Question 22

Question
Which one of the following is true concerning PRRS infections in swine?
Answer
  • Respiratory disease reduces growth rate up to 20%
  • More than $4.00 per pig is the estimated loss associated with respiratory disease from reduced growth and feed efficiency alone
  • Veterinarians prefer to treat respiratory disease in swine with tilmicosin
  • PRRS virus attacks and kills immune system cells in the lungs
  • all of the above are correct

Question 23

Question
When does sheep foot rot spread more favorably?
Answer
  • During cold winter months inside a barn
  • During summer when conditions are moist
  • During dry autumn months
  • During cool spring months
  • During cold winter months on pasture

Question 24

Question
Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:
Answer
  • Bovine virus diarrhea mucosal disease complex
  • Infections bovine rhinotracheitis
  • Consumption of lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
  • Malignant catarrhal fever
  • Foot and mouth disease

Question 25

Question
A feeder pig operation has a problem with sudden onset of diarrhea followed by collapse and death in piglets 1-3 days old. Necropsy examination shows necro-hemorrhagic enteritis. Which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
  • Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
  • Clostridium perfringens Type C
  • Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome.
  • Brachyspira (Serpulina) hyodysenteriae
  • Lawsonia intracellularis

Question 26

Question
Which of the following is true regarding White Muscle disease in young calves?
Answer
  • Providing selenium supplementation in a salt/mineral mix year round to all stocks is a good method to control/prevent white muscle problems in calves
  • A selenium injection at birth will effectively prevent white muscle disease and will provide adequate selenium levels until the calf is around 1-year-old
  • The cardiac form tends to be more amendable to treatment than the skeletal form

Question 27

Question
Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis on feedlot steers?
Answer
  • Inadequate water consumption
  • High salt intake
  • High calcium intake
  • Inadequate exercise
  • Excessive vitamin A intake

Question 28

Question
Which one of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • Around 50% of all bovine lameness is in the foot
  • It is difficult to justify antibiotic treatment of foot rot because most cases self-cure within 1-2 days
  • To stop a horizontal hoof crack, you should create a vertical groove at the ends of the crack
  • A cow with a septic coffin joint will usually be 3-legged lame

Question 29

Question
Which one of the following downer cow position would probably have the most favorable prognosis for return to normal function?
Answer
  • Resting in right lateral recumbency and returning to that position after being turned to the other side
  • Hind legs partially flexed and displaced posteriorly
  • Hind legs extended behind with no attempt to change position
  • Sternal recumbency with the hind legs extended along side the body
  • Frequent attempts to rise, lifting the hindlegs off the ground a few inches

Question 30

Question
Regarding swine respiratory disease, which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • Cold temperature reduces the pig's ability to clear bacteria from the respiratory tract
  • Pneumonia reduces average daily gain in swine
  • Crowding, mixing, and castration all may increase risk of respiratory disease in swine
  • All of the above are correct
  • Only B. and C. are correct

Question 31

Question
Which one of the following disease is associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage and blood clots in cattle?
Answer
  • Copper toxicosis
  • Rota virus
  • Fat necrosis
  • Arsenic toxicosis
  • Clostridium novyi

Question 32

Question
What is a "presistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?
Answer
  • An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
  • An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
  • An animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
  • An animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
  • Always an animal affected with mucosal disease

Question 33

Question
If a cow began showing symptoms of hives immediately after being treated with procaine penicillin, what would be the drug of choice for treating the cow?
Answer
  • Antihistamine
  • Corticosteroid
  • Epinephrine
  • Ephedrine
  • Flunixin meglumine

Question 34

Question
Your client's Holstein milking cows have been experiencing an increased number of LDA's, variable dry matter intakes, low butterfat (3.3%), and increased lameness. Your analysis of the TMR shows (on a dry matter basis): CP 16.5%, ADF 20.2%, NDF 29.9%, NFC 43.6%, dietary fat 3.5%. Which ration formulation fault is most likely?
Answer
  • Too much protein
  • Insufficient fiber
  • Too much grain
  • Too much fat
  • Too much protein and too much fat

Question 35

Question
The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 36

Question
The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 130 mg\ dl
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 37

Question
The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 38

Question
When cows are housed on concrete natural wear maintains the correct shape of the bovine hoof
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 39

Question
The lower critical temperature is defined as the temperature at which the pig starts not paining well because energy is the used to maintain adequate body temperature
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 40

Question
Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 41

Question
Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with corona virus infection
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
The most common cause for inactivity of rumen microflora is anorexia secondary to some other problem
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
Bovine pyelonephritis is most commonly diangnosed in steers on a heavy grain feeding program
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
Botulism is a disease that is characterized by progressive, spastic paralysis in all species of animals
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 45

Question
The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 47

Question
Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 120 mg/ dl
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
An "iceberg" disease is one in which the clinically affected animal represents a larger number of subclinical case in the herd
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
In most cases, it is justified to treat streptococcal mastitis with antibiotics
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagions and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactiae
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 52

Question
When presented with a young calf with obvious Blackleg, the most important thing that you can do for the producer is to make sure the rest of the herd is immunologically protected
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
Selenium deficiency can result in sudden death in young (< 1 year of age) rapidly growing calves
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Over the counter drugs (OTC drugs) fall under AMDUCA regulations
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 55

Question
Two months after culling four of your six goats for Jone's disease you have bought new does each with a nursing kid. Choose the best management strategy for these new herd additions
Answer
  • Place them in the pen with your original goats right away to get them used to each other while the kids are young
  • Build a separate pen to the house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off
  • Introduce the new goats after shoveling out all visible pellets, fencing off any standing water, and installing feeders that pervent fecal contamination
  • Build a separate pen to house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off, continue to test and monitor the body condition of the remaining two goats to make sure they are not infected.

Question 56

Question
Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle
Answer
  • Copper
  • Phosphorus
  • Molybdenum
  • Zinc
  • Selenium

Question 57

Question
What are the two most common organisms isolated from a septic calf with failure of passive transfer?
Answer
  • E. coli and Actinomyces
  • salmonella and Mycoplasma
  • Staphylococcus and E. coli
  • Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
  • Proteus and Enterococcus

Question 58

Question
The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is
Answer
  • 2.5-5.5
  • 5.5-7.0
  • 2.5-7.0
  • 7.0-8.5
  • 3.5-8.5

Question 59

Question
Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy of choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on a legume pasture?
Answer
  • Magnesium carbonate
  • Sodium acid phosphate
  • Calcium borogluconate
  • Poloxalene
  • Turpentine

Question 60

Question
Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?
Answer
  • Purchased calves from a sale barn
  • Purchased feed from a neighbor
  • Contaminated water due to a broken sewer pipe
  • Purchased cows from an auction
  • A stray gog

Question 61

Question
Acute enterotoxigenic colibacillosis usually occurs in calves of what age?
Answer
  • Under 5 days
  • 14 to 21 days
  • 21 to 28 days
  • 5 to 10 days
  • 10 to 15 days

Question 62

Question
What is your diagnosis for a dairy cow with the following clinical signs that calved normally yesterday? She was found down in lateral recumbency with opisthotonus, was groaning, and had slightly dilated responsive pupils and cool extremities.
Answer
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Nervous ketosis
  • Fatty liver syndrome
  • Hypocalcemia

Question 63

Question
The CMT test is used to:
Answer
  • confirm clinical mastitis
  • confirm rupture of the gastrocnemius
  • determine the type of bacteria in an intramammary infection
  • identify cows with high somatic cell counts

Question 64

Question
Which one of the following problems would most likely be accompanied by a neutrophilic leukocytosis and left shift?
Answer
  • Left abomasal displacement
  • Simple indigestion
  • Preforated abomasal ulcer
  • Rumen tympany
  • Abdominal fat necrosis

Question 65

Question
The most important "other" of FANO when treating mastitis is:
Answer
  • calcium
  • dextrose
  • probiotics
  • vitamins

Question 66

Question
A dairy herd has serveral cows with Corynebacterium bovis intramammary infection. this is most suggestive of what?
Answer
  • That post dipping with an effective germicide is not being done or is not being done correctly
  • That the milkers use multi-use cloth or paper towels and are spreading the bacteria from cow to cow
  • That the cows' environment is unsanitary
  • That waster is being used excessively during pre-milking udder preparation

Question 67

Question
Which of the following is the BEST means of controlling heel wart on the dairy farm?
Answer
  • Cull affected cattle
  • Heel wart vaccines
  • Properly maintained and scheduled footbaths

Question 68

Question
Which of the following is TRUE in regards to fescue foot?
Answer
  • Dry gangrene is more common in summer than winter
  • the cheapest control measure is to replace the current infected fescue pasture with endophyte free fescue
  • A presferred means of control is to vaccinate with an endophyte vaccine prior to grazing
  • The preferred treatment is to remove affected stock from fescue pasture

Question 69

Question
Which one of the following is true regarding calcium homeostasis in dairy cows?
Answer
  • Feeding high calcium in pre-partum diets will stimulate the parathyroid glands
  • Feeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild alkalosis, thus stimulating the parathyroid gland
  • The feed levels of phosphorus and potassium have little, if any, effect upon calcium metabolism is dry cows
  • Feeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild acidosis which will promote calcium absorption from the gut as well as mobilization from bone.
  • Feeding alfalfa hay free choice to close-up dry cows will stimulate calcium mobilization by the parathyroid glands

Question 70

Question
A dairy herd several cows with Prototheca intramammary infection. What is the primary reservoir for Prototheca?
Answer
  • contaminated teat dip
  • infected mammary gland
  • straw
  • water

Question 71

Question
The success rate when treating footrot early in the couse of the disease is nearly ____________
Answer
  • 10%
  • 35%
  • 50%
  • 90%
  • 100%

Question 72

Question
Leptospirosis and salmonellosis in all types of livestock is often associated with:
Answer
  • Periodic ophthalmia
  • Intravasular coagulopthy
  • Vomition
  • Diarrhea
  • Rodent contamination of feedstuffs

Question 73

Question
A twelve year old Brahma cow from Texas has been brought to you for diagnosis of brisket edema, diarrhea, weight loss, and proteinuria. Your differential diagnosis will include:
Answer
  • Paratuberculosis and mucosal disease
  • Renal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis
  • Abomasal parasitism and tick fever
  • Hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia
  • Caudal venal caval thrombosis

Question 74

Question
With respect to ruminant digestion, which one of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • Saliva neutralizes the acids produced during fermentation
  • Dietary calcium has little effects on rumen metabolism
  • The fiber mat is on the bottom of the rumen
  • Rumen microbial protein is an insignificant source of nutrients for cattle
  • Dairy cows can usually eat enough to meet their nutrient requirements, even when ration digestibility is low

Question 75

Question
Which one of the following bovine disease would be most characterized by this group of clinical signs-sudden death, ataxia, flaccid paresis, inability to control tongue movements?
Answer
  • Listeriosis
  • Bovine spongiform encephalopthy
  • Grass tetany
  • Lead poisoning
  • Botulism

Question 76

Question
Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis in feedlot steers?
Answer
  • High phosphorus intake
  • Low salt intake
  • Low calcium intake
  • Inadequate water intake
  • All of the above may contribute as risk factors

Question 77

Question
A clinical finding in the cerbrospinal fluid that tends to confirm listeriosis is:
Answer
  • Increased numbers of eosinophils
  • Increased protein and mononuclear cells
  • Increased red blood cells
  • Increased alkaline phosphatase levels
  • Increased trubidity

Question 78

Question
Which one of the following practices has been associated with tetans outbreaks in cattle and sheep?
Answer
  • Ear tagging
  • Footrot vaccination
  • Clostridium vaccination
  • Elastration of tails
  • Hoof trimming

Question 79

Question
Which one of the following statements is true regarding salmonellosis?
Answer
  • The majority of salmonella infections are clinical
  • Salmonella organisms only survive a short time in the enviroment
  • Septicemic animal shed the organism in oral and nasal secretions and urine as well ass feces
  • Infection is unrelated to innate resistance of the host animal; dose and strain of the organism are much more important
  • The primary route of infection in most cases is by aerosol

Question 80

Question
Dairy cows are particularly susceptible to infections during the first two weeks of lactation because:
Answer
  • Of transient immunousuppression following calving
  • Dry matter intake cannot keep pace with nutrient requirements until after about 80 days after lactation commences
  • Of adjustment to the change in diet between the dry period and heavy lactational period
  • Of increased requirements for biological antioxidants during the first 60 days of lactation
  • Of increased physical activity associated with estrus

Question 81

Question
Serum chloride value of less than 60 mEq/I in cattle usually represents:
Answer
  • Normal value
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Good prognosis
  • Rapid rumen outflow

Question 82

Question
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the "scootch test"?
Answer
  • This is a test used to determine the amount of rumen fill in a cow
  • Tricep muscle fasiculation is usually elicited by this test
  • Odontoprisis is a consistent sign of a positive reaction
  • The test is also known as "withers depressing"
  • A positive test is a positive response; the cow flinches

Question 83

Question
A cow was persented for examination of a respiratory problem. On examination you have found a purulent discharge from the ear canal. Which one of the following goes to the top of your differential dianonsis list?
Answer
  • IBR (infectious bovine rhinotracheitis)
  • Histophilus
  • Mycoplasma
  • BRSV (bovine respiratory syncytial virus
  • Mannheimia

Question 84

Question
Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of the North America. Which one of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • Calculi do not develop in mature cows and bulls
  • Calculi develop on castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
  • Calculi develop in cattle raised on rangelands because of the relatively high concentration of selenium in the diet
  • Calculi formation cannot be prevented by the consumption of sodium chloride at a level of 4% by weight of the total ration
  • When the urinary bladder ruptures in a steer with obstructive urolithiasis, uremia may not develop quickly because the ruminant can metabolize the urea in the rumen

Question 85

Question
Regarding colostrum management for calves, which one of the following statements is most correct?
Answer
  • Colostrum quality is not related to a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
  • Holsteins tend to have lower immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
  • The ability of the calf to absorb IgG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
  • Johne's disease cannot be transmitted through the feeding of colostrum from an infected cow
  • Pasteurization destroys most of the antibodies in colostrum

Question 86

Question
Rumen acidosis occurs as a result of:
Answer
  • Too much rapidly digestible grain in the diet
  • Not enough effective fiber
  • Slug feeding of grain (e.g. feeding grain in the milking parlor)
  • Heat stress (panting cows have less bicarbonate available for buffering the rumen)
  • All of the above

Question 87

Question
Which one of the following dairy cows would be more likely to get fatty liver syndrome after calving?
Answer
  • Fat cow-BCS 4.5
  • Normal cow-BCS 3.5
  • Thin cow-BCS 2.0

Question 88

Question
Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection spread to the dairy herd?
Answer
  • By the owner who did not disinfect his boots
  • By a stray cat
  • By direct contact with the calves and their feces
  • By a stray dog
  • With the front end loader used to feed the cows

Question 89

Question
When rolling a cow to correct left abomasal displacement, the cow should be put down on to the left side first
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 90

Question
The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 91

Question
Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 92

Question
Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 93

Question
Elk, mule deer, moose bison and white tailed deer are naturally susceptible to Johne's disease.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 94

Question
Cows with bilateral obturator nerve paralysis may till be able to stand whereas cows with bilateral sciatic nerve paralysis cannot.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 95

Question
Vaccination of feedlot cattle against foot rot will also aid in the control of liver abscesses.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 96

Question
When you need withdrawal information for an antibiotic that you are using in an extralabel manner, the government agency to contact is:
Answer
  • AMDUCA
  • FARAD
  • RUDAB
  • USDA

Question 97

Question
Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?
Answer
  • Interstitial pneumonia is accompanied by high fever
  • The principal clinical signs are inspiratory dyspnea and mild fever
  • Expiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen.
  • Preferred therapy is oxytetracycline.
  • Prognosis for recovery is poor

Question 98

Question
Milk protein allergy in cattle would best be treated by or with:
Answer
  • Milking out the cow's udder.
  • Non-steroidal drugs.
  • Corticosteroids.
  • Antihistamine
  • Broad spectrum antibacterials.

Question 99

Question
Several goats in a flock were affected with severe panophthalmitis and conjunctivitis. Your presumptive diagnosis is "pink-eye." What would be your recommendation for this flock?
Answer
  • Send all to slaughter immediately.
  • Quarantine and treat with procaine penicillin G.
  • Quarantine and refer to the state veterinary officer.
  • Quarantine and vaccinate the herd with pink-eye vaccine.
  • Quarantine and treat with tetracy cline.

Question 100

Question
If not properly prepared before marketing, commingled feeder claves have the potential of "wrecking out" when they arrive at a feedlot. What is responsible for this wreck?
Answer
  • A fall in resistance due to weather changes.
  • A simultaneous fall in resistance and a rise in disease challenge.
  • A rise in disease challenge from commingling.
  • Vaccination more than thirty days before marketing.
  • A fall in resistance due to stresses of weaning, shipping, and diet change.

Question 101

Question
A common respiratory disease which may lead to pneumonic pasteurellosis in dairy calves in the United States is:
Answer
  • Mycoplasma mycoides.
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • Brisket disease
  • BRSV.
  • Fog fever.

Question 102

Question
Which one of the following test is the preferred first test for use in the diagnosis of tuberculosis in cattle?
Answer
  • ELISA test
  • Single intradermal test
  • Comparative cervical test
  • PCR test
  • Gamma interferon test

Question 103

Question
What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count below normal?
Answer
  • Probably indicative of chronic infection
  • Probably indicative of parasitism
  • Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
  • Probably indicative of an acute infection
  • Possibly could be a normal hemogram

Question 104

Question
Of the following sheep breeds, which one has the characteristic of being able to lamb at any time of year?
Answer
  • Suffolk
  • Southdown
  • Dorset
  • Merino
  • Hampshire

Question 105

Question
The antibiotic that has a Gram-positive spectrum, requires daily dosing, has a medium withdrawal time of around 10 days. is cheap, can be purchased over the counter and is a good choice for footrot, presurgical use, Listeria and Clostridial infections is:
Answer
  • ceftiofur
  • Nuflor
  • penicillin
  • oxytetracycline

Question 106

Question
Which of the following statements is true concerning copper metabolism in sheep?
Answer
  • Sheep accumulate copper in the liver more readily than other species
  • Copper is required for an effective immune response
  • "Steely wool" and "swayback" are commonly reported signs of copper deficiency in sheep
  • Copper is required for normal iron metabolism
  • All of the above statements are true

Question 107

Question
Which cattle breed produces beef with a fatty acid composition that is significantly lower in saturated fat and cholesterol and higher in monounsaturated fat, and conjugated linoleic acid (CLA)?
Answer
  • Charolais
  • Akaushi
  • Beedmaster
  • Santa Gertrudis
  • Belgian Blue

Question 108

Question
What is a "persistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?
Answer
  • An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
  • An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
  • An animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
  • An animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
  • Always an animal affected with mucosal disease

Question 109

Question
Which one of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • Younger animals are more likely to show clinical signs of anaplasmosis than are older ones
  • Biting flies are biological vectors of anaplasmosis
  • Effectiveness of oxytetracycline therapy for anaplasmosis is reduced if more than 15% of the red blood cells are infected
  • Anaplasmosis vaccine is marketed commercially in the United States
  • Incubation period for anaplasmosis in cattle is short, usually 5-15 days

Question 110

Question
Which of the following antimicrobials has a formulation with a 7 day treatment interval?
Answer
  • Albon
  • enrofloxacin (Baytril)
  • Nuflor
  • oxytetracycline

Question 111

Question
If one were to mate a heterozygous polled bull with a homozygous horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?
Answer
  • 0%
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Question 112

Question
What is the most prevalent major contagious pathogen in the U.S. and worldwide?
Answer
  • E. coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
  • Mycoplasma bovis
  • Staphylococcus aureus

Question 113

Question
Mastitis can be eradicated from a dairy herd
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 114

Question
Streptococcus agalactiae can be eradicated from a dairy herd
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 115

Question
All of the following are dairy breeds EXCEPT
Answer
  • Brown Swiss
  • Guernsey
  • Holstein
  • Jersey
  • Belted Galloway

Question 116

Question
Most gram-positive mastitis pathogens are susceptible in vitro to the intramammary (IMM) antibiotics available
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 117

Question
E. coli is is usually susceptible to approved IMM antibitoics
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 118

Question
Most gram-negative mastitis pathogens are susceptible in VIVO to the IMM antibiotics available
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 119

Question
Cows with contagious mastitis should be milked______?
Answer
  • First
  • Before fresh heifers
  • Last
  • Should be dried up and not milked

Question 120

Question
What is considered the first line of defense of the mammary gland?
Answer
  • Teat orifice/duct
  • Pick the other one

Question 121

Question
What control procedure do we use to aid the first line of defense in the mammary gland?
Answer
  • Teat dipping with an effective germicide
  • pick the other one

Question 122

Question
Chronic mastitis is primarily due to ____________ pathogens?
Answer
  • Contagious
  • Environmental

Question 123

Question
To control Staphylococcus aureus, you should focus your efforts on decreasing social contact among cows
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 124

Question
What major pathogen can be eliminated by antibiotic therapy?
Answer
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • E. coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Mycoplasma bovis

Question 125

Question
Milking time hygiene is ALWAYS needed in every dairy
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 126

Question
Clinical mastitis is more costly than subclinical mastitis
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 127

Question
The teat canal remains open after milking up to ____________ hours
Answer
  • 2
  • 24
  • 12
  • 1
  • 0.5

Question 128

Question
Streptococcus agalactiae
Answer
  • Contagious
  • Environmental

Question 129

Question
Klebsiella
Answer
  • Contagious
  • Environmental

Question 130

Question
The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagious and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactaie
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 131

Question
Dry cow therapy means one is treating a dry cow for clinical mastitis
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 132

Question
In a freestall barn, you see several cows standing or lying on concrete alleyways and loafing yards. This usually means what?
Answer
  • Free stalls are not comfortable
  • Happy cows

Question 133

Question
What major pathogen does not grow on blood agar?
Answer
  • Mycoplasma
  • pick the other one

Question 134

Question
What 3 words sum up coliform control?
Answer
  • clean, dry, and comfortable
  • Pick other one

Question 135

Question
You should only use dry cow IMM therapy on KNOWN infected cows.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 136

Question
Culling the cow is probably the only sure way to eliminate Mycoplasma bovis IMM
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 137

Question
Buying dairy cows from other herds is a good dairy practice
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 138

Question
Which of the following is NOT a good milking time hygiene?
Answer
  • Spraying water on udders of all cows
  • Single use damp cloth towels
  • Predipping and only leaving the predip on for 30 seconds
  • Drying the udder completely before attaching the milking unit

Question 139

Question
Which of the following teat dips are acceptable
Answer
  • LDBSA
  • Chlorhexidine
  • 0.5% Iodine
  • Clorox

Question 140

Question
Which two microorganisms are involved in the development of the condition shown in this picture?
Image:
6572c527-8a86-4484-8d9d-555734dd6554 (image/png)
Answer
  • Pasteurella and swine influenza virus
  • Hemophilus and Bordetella
  • Actinobacillus and Pasteurella
  • PRRS virus and Bordetella
  • Bordetella and Pasteurella

Question 141

Question
Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
Image:
2046d4a8-492f-497e-b769-3a0a540473f2 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • The squeeze
  • The ear twitch
  • The midline catch
  • The bracelet
  • The body wrap

Question 142

Question
These weaned pigs are affected with porcine dermatopathy and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS). Which one of the following pathogens is associated with this condition?
Image:
a7000f7b-a7a2-4279-a371-0300f4060199 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Erysipelothrix
  • Staphylococcus
  • Porcine Circovirus type 2
  • Swine influenza virus
  • Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome virus

Question 143

Question
Identify this breed used mainly for milk and cheese production
Image:
27eb2818-8424-4c76-a458-0572ff2a1304 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Oberhasli
  • Southdown
  • Nubian
  • Friesian
  • Saanen

Question 144

Question
These pigs have swine dysentery. Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning this disease?
Image:
ca9b0417-87b7-4659-ac7a-3b8eae25de1c (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • The causative organism will survive outside the pig for up to seven weeks in cold moist conditions but it dies out in two days in dry warm environments
  • The high cost of disease is associated with high mortality
  • Clinical disease in sows is common
  • Pigs become infected through the ingestion of saliva from feeders
  • Swine dysentery is caused by a virus

Question 145

Question
Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
Image:
95ccaaf6-e9c1-4fcf-b260-40a1252ce574 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • The squeeze
  • The ear twitch
  • The midline catch
  • The bracelet
  • The body wrap

Question 146

Question
Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in this weaned pig?
Image:
74c4fe1e-1f2e-40e6-bdce-1fa21f7e6fd2 (image/png)
Answer
  • Circovirus
  • Hemophilus
  • Streptococcus
  • Staphylococcus
  • Erysipelothrix

Question 147

Question
Shown here is a cross-sectional view of a cow's abdomen showing distention of the ventral sac of the rumen. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely associated with this condition?
Image:
d6f1ea6b-c688-4798-b814-fd682c07bdd0 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Abomasal ulcers
  • Acute traumatic reticulitis
  • Persistent non patent urachus
  • Vagus indigestion
  • Left abomasal displacement

Question 148

Question
Identify the condition shown in this photograph
Image:
b1b259ea-97d4-4e7a-b0c1-cbbde351eeae (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Spastic paresis
  • Upward fixation of the patella
  • Spastic syndrome
  • Sciatic neuropathy
  • Nutritional myopathy

Question 149

Question
What would be your diagnosis for this pruritic skin condition observed in these animals?
Image:
87618edc-daa6-4733-b590-4afd42cdfdc5 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Lice
  • Greasy Pig disease
  • Demodectic mange
  • Ringworm
  • Sarcoptic mange

Question 150

Question
The disease affecting the tongue of this deer and causing the photosensitization in the bull are one and the same. Identify the disease.
Image:
a62caf9f-cd7d-4f9a-aceb-9f6997a301c2 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
  • Chronic wasting disease
  • Bluetongue
  • Actinobacillosis
  • Fescue toxicosis

Question 151

Question
These stocker calves being fed pasture are being?
Image:
bace029e-cb99-48e6-a568-bab1335a6bea (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Finished
  • Bred
  • Backgrounded
  • Marbled
  • Suckled

Question 152

Question
This cow is most likely suffering from?
Image:
1ff29b1d-650e-4481-b361-9afbe0131ee3 (image/png)
Answer
  • Interdigital fibroma
  • Rusterholz ulcer
  • Digital dermatitis
  • Infectious pododermatitis
  • Sand crack

Question 153

Question
On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by whic increased frequency of milking increases milk production?
Image:
2302161f-802e-4375-824c-75c92001a999 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Frequent milking reduces back pressure in the udder
  • Increased prolactin secretion recruits more secretory cells
  • More frequent oxytocin release leads to increased production
  • Milking removes a locally acting lactation inhibition factor
  • Cows get more used to being milked and produce less adrenalin to interfere with milk letdown

Question 154

Question
Which one of the following is considered to be part of tan ideal milking system?
Answer
  • 75:25 milking to massage ratio on the pulsators
  • Small bowl claw
  • 20" Hg milking vacuum level
  • Post-dip applied by sprayer
  • Low line pipeline

Question 155

Question
What is the lowest lameness score this cow could have?
Image:
78b21e94-4aa6-4ecc-9879-47a2262eb131 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Score 1
  • Score 2
  • Score 3
  • Score 4
  • Score 5

Question 156

Question
Which of the following choices is most reasonable for grade M2 mastitis (clots and flakes, swollen quarter, but no systemic involvement) in a herd in which most clinical mastitis is caused by Strep. uberis?
Image:
1d02c56d-5205-4924-9ee2-a5b1979d02db (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Proprietary intramammary mastitis infusion (e.g. Cef-Lak)
  • Intramammary mastitis tube + adjunct antibiotic therapy
  • Systemic ceftiofur (Naxcel/Excenel)
  • Custom compounded antibiotic udder infusion
  • No treatment until dry-off

Question 157

Question
What are we attempting to accomplish with this device?
Image:
f4fb8894-ee05-4ed6-b8f0-c5c64197ac6a (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Provide antibiotic to treat disease
  • Provide potable water
  • Harvest velvet from the antlers
  • Rid deer of ticks carrying lyme disease
  • Offer deer trace minerals and salts

Question 158

Question
This alpaca is presented for examination of a chronic pruritic skin disease of the head and face. Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Image:
80c9868e-7a5f-423a-b3f8-b73c611f6d32 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Zinc deficiency
  • Copper toxicosis
  • Sarcoptic mange
  • Vitamin A deficiency
  • Demodectic mange

Question 159

Question
What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?
Image:
2ad5deb4-38b4-4817-86b2-cd37bcd28a98 (image/png)
Answer
  • Goats
  • Snails and slugs
  • Elk
  • White-tailed deer
  • All deer

Question 160

Question
Here is pictured a beef liver with abscessation. One of the more likely causative organisms associated with this condition is also associated with which one of the following?
Image:
1e91764d-f8aa-42a5-ad10-10dd2d14dee5 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Wooden tongue in cattle
  • Calf diphteria
  • Big head in horses
  • Big head in sheep
  • Blackleg in cattle

Question 161

Question
ID this breed of dairy cattle known for the production of alpha-2 beta-casein milk
Image:
d4e7b6f5-d1b4-4bfa-b383-777a1fc1a3eb (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Ayrshire
  • Jersey
  • Guernsey
  • Hereford
  • Montbeliarde

Question 162

Question
ID this beef breed which comes from Italy
Image:
adde9d2a-4750-4c81-b195-ebb9ca64d854 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Chianina
  • Charolais
  • Limousine
  • Romagnola
  • Belgian blue and white

Question 163

Question
Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a dairy cow. What is represented by the highlighted line?
Image:
df526381-0341-487f-8dec-d56a569c5865 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Body condition score
  • Normal lactation curve
  • Dry matter intake
  • Serum ionize calcium levels
  • Risk for developing lameness

Question 164

Question
These weaned pigs are affected with porcine dermatopathy and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS). Which one of the following pathogens is associated with this condition?
Image:
89e8f2bc-5d98-4123-b393-95e7801a3228 (image/png)
Answer
  • Erysipelothrix
  • Staphylococcus
  • Porcine circovirus type 2
  • Swine influenza virus
  • Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome virus

Question 165

Question
Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a diary cow. What is represented by the orange line?
Image:
8746b545-fe1e-4dde-8b86-883bf2499c76 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Body condition score
  • Normal lactation curve
  • Dry matter intake
  • Serum ionized calcium levels
  • Risk for developing lameness

Question 166

Question
Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
Image:
f0e5881c-265f-4e9e-b211-066cfee45549 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • The squeeze
  • The ear twitch
  • The midline catch
  • The bracelet
  • The body wrap

Question 167

Question
Identify this lesion found during abdominal surgery on a sheep
Image:
985313ba-381f-485c-93e3-78f22acc7acc (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Fat necrosis
  • Tapeworm cyst
  • Edema
  • Oesophagostomum lesion
  • Abscess

Question 168

Question
The dairy cow in this picture had a selective appetite for roughage but not grain shortly after a normal calving. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely?
Image:
eb76dbc5-6b84-4d63-a15e-dfd4aefa4bbe (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Traumatic gastritis
  • Ketosis
  • Abomasal volvulus
  • Abomasal displacement
  • Bloat

Question 169

Question
Chondrodysplasia is a genetically induced disease of which one of the following breeds of sheep?
Image:
e18b5711-f134-44ad-b15b-91d6bef29e56 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Suffolk
  • Romanov
  • Southdown
  • Hampshire
  • Dorset

Question 170

Question
Identify the animal in this picture
Image:
e51789d7-2b07-4b3f-8784-50d886853df7 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Takin
  • Guanaco
  • Vicuna
  • Llama
  • Alpaca

Question 171

Question
this goat has a large swelling on the right side of the head below the ear. Which one of the following is a more likely diagnosis?
Image:
2dea1336-9725-4693-a767-9d29f8292f71 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Sialadenitis
  • Strangles
  • Bottle jaw
  • Cheesy gland
  • Lymphosarcoma

Question 172

Question
Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and skin lesions observed in this weaned pig?
Image:
4cab5dd1-fd6d-441c-88ad-93c26e9d8b1a (image/png)
Answer
  • Circovirus
  • Hemophilus
  • Streptococcus
  • Staphylococcus
  • Erysipelothrix

Question 173

Question
On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by which increased frequency of milking increases milk production?
Image:
5211d830-60cd-4d37-ae3c-6a7221b936ab (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Frequent milking reduces back pressure in the udder
  • Increased prolactin secretion recruits more secretory cells
  • More frequent oxytocin release leads to increased production
  • Milking removes a locally acting lactation inhibition factor
  • Cows get more used to being milked and produce less adrenalin to interfere with milk letdown

Question 174

Question
Which one of the following organisms is associated with exudative epidermitis in swine?
Image:
e3d9032a-5a88-4cdb-a49b-54a05b4c519e (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Actinobacillus
  • Hemophilus
  • Staphylococcus
  • E. coli
  • Streptococcus

Question 175

Question
This picture shows?
Image:
8869c725-dcde-4182-9f7d-b15284f26f4c (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Proper placement of intramuscular injection
  • Proper placement of subcutaneous injection
  • Improper needle size selection
  • Inadequate restraint of the patient
  • Improper selection of site for administration of medication

Question 176

Question
Which one of the following problems would more likely be diagnosed in post-weaned pigs six to eight weeks of age?
Image:
ed6f4592-34ae-478c-8ce4-ec1ca2182482 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Colibacillosis
  • Ascariasis
  • Swine dysentery
  • Whipworms
  • Proliferative enteropathy

Question 177

Question
Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
Image:
60796f4a-3ecd-4f7c-804a-8777afec8d50 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • The squeeze
  • The ear twitch
  • The midline catch
  • The bracelet
  • The body wrap

Question 178

Question
ID the breed
Image:
453942bb-8a61-4bd5-b6e2-fda5370d823f (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Watusi
  • Highland
  • Texas Longhorn
  • Belgian Blue
  • English Longhorn

Question 179

Question
A 4-H member handled some lambs about a week ago at the county fair. Now he has developed lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Image:
52249f59-d0ff-4dbf-beba-2ac8464badf5 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Dermatophilosis
  • Warts
  • Ecthyma
  • Fungal infection
  • Pustular dermatitis

Question 180

Question
This bull was presented with a large swelling in the penile and scrotal areas. What are the two most likely differential diagnoses?
Image:
47d4a036-990e-45f6-a26b-5e97b1f90b88 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Amyloidosis or hypoproteinemia
  • Lymphosarcoma or preputial abscess
  • Ruptured urethra or preputial abscess
  • Cardiac failure or hypoproteinemia
  • Parasitism or preputial abscess

Question 181

Question
You have been called to examine this recumbent neonatal calf which is unable to rise. In addition the calf is showing opisthotonus and has a fever of 107 degrees F. The calf does not have tetanus. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Image:
87e5abc3-6a9b-437d-9c56-c1f9c4ba1f98 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Meningitis
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • BVD infection
  • Lupin toxicosis

Question 182

Question
What would be the most likely cause of the otitis media diagnosed in this calf?
Image:
f01685d1-9c82-4a83-8825-ac1054eadb49 (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Trauma
  • Lead poisoning
  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Mycoplasma
  • Septicemic colibacillosis

Question 183

Question
What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?
Answer
  • Goats
  • Snails or slugs
  • White tailed deer
  • Elk
  • All deer

Question 184

Question
These pigs have swine dysentery. Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning this disease?
Image:
ce96de2f-50c9-49b1-9f22-000cc009167c (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • The causative organism will survive outside the pig for up to seven weeks in cold moist conditions but it dies out in two days in dry warm environments
  • The high cost of disease is associated with high mortality
  • Clinical disease in sows is common
  • Pigs become infected through the ingestion of saliva from feeders
  • Swine dysentery is caused by a virus

Question 185

Question
What is the lameness score of this cow?
Image:
c8fa12ef-eb05-4fab-94fa-b8d2f3665cdb (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • 5
  • 4
  • 3
  • 2
  • 1

Question 186

Question
chronic wasting disease of cervids is an example of what type of disease?
Image:
6dd43734-c1df-4365-b495-633c668c29ec (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Prion
  • Toxic
  • Parasitic
  • Viral
  • Bacterial

Question 187

Question
Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in these weaned pigs?
Image:
75b5417f-a0fc-49ca-94ac-531af368781b (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Circovirus
  • Hemophilus
  • Streptococcus
  • Staphylococcus
  • Erysipelothrix

Question 188

Question
Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:
Answer
  • Bovine virus diarrhea-mucosal disease complex
  • Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
  • Consumption of Lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
  • Malignant catarrhal fever
  • Foot-and-mouth disease

Question 189

Question
Regarding colostrum management for calves, which one of the following statements is most correct?
Answer
  • Colostrum quality does not depend upon a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
  • Holsteins tend to have higher immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
  • The ability of the calf to absorb 1gG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
  • Johne's disease cannot be transmitted through the feeding of colostrum from an infected cow
  • Pasteurization does not destroy most of the antibodies in colostrum

Question 190

Question
What is usually the first step to be recommended in therapy for berserk male syndrome in llamas?
Answer
  • Zinc therapy
  • Antidepressant therapy
  • Castration
  • Removal of the canine teeth
  • Tranquilization

Question 191

Question
The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between
Answer
  • 30-60 mg/dl
  • 80-120 mg/dl
  • 40-80 mg/dl
  • 40-120 mg/dl
  • 60-120 mg/dl

Question 192

Question
Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is........
Answer
  • Streptococcus suis
  • Brachysira hyodysenteriae
  • Clostridium septicum
  • Escherichia coli
  • Lawsonia intracellularis

Question 193

Question
Why do we keep an animal in sternal recumbency while administering treatment for milk fever?
Answer
  • Prevent muscle damage
  • Improve respiratory function
  • Improve cardiac function
  • Prevent regurgitation and aspiration
  • Encourage eructation

Question 194

Question
Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for contagious ecthyma in sheep?
Answer
  • Bacterin
  • Modified live virus
  • Live virus
  • Killed virus
  • Toxoid

Question 195

Question
Air quality is often an issue in livestock confinement operation. Which one of most likely involved with animal or human deaths in a confinement operation?
Answer
  • Mercaptans
  • Methane
  • Hydrogen sulfide
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Ammonia

Question 196

Question
Which one of the following statements is true concerning tuberculosis in cattle?
Answer
  • The primary route of infection is transplacental
  • The test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
  • The disease has been eradicated in the continental United States
  • Coughing and chronic nasal discharge are the most obvious clinical signs in early cases
  • Infection usually occurs after two years of age

Question 197

Question
Which vaccine virus is not present in the standard 4-way modified live cattle respiratory vaccine?
Answer
  • BRSV
  • BVD
  • PI3
  • IBR
  • BLV

Question 198

Question
Excessive use of water to clean the udder is a risk factor for which type of mastitis?
Answer
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
  • Coliform
  • Mycoplasma
  • Staph. Aureus
  • Yeast

Question 199

Question
Pre-conditioning is:
Answer
  • Increasing grain ration in close-up dairy cows before calving
  • Dipping teats before milking
  • Mowing pastures that have gone to seed to reduce eye irritation in pastured cattle
  • feeding anionic salts, such as ammonium chloride, to reduce the incidence of hypocalcemia in dairy cows
  • Processing beef calves in such a way as to reduce stress before moving them to a feedlot

Question 200

Question
Which of the following is true of contagious mastitis bacteria?
Answer
  • They are mostly gram negative
  • They rarely cause chronic infections
  • They don't respond to most intramammary mastitis preparations
  • transmission is between quarters is controlled by pre-dipping
  • They are obligate parasites of the mammary tissue or teat skin
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