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355 Exam Lecture Questions

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Practice Questions for KNPE 355
Siena HB
Quiz by Siena HB, updated more than 1 year ago
Siena HB
Created by Siena HB almost 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which one of the following is not a mode of Cardiometabolic Risk assessment?
Answer
  • Lab Test
  • Physical Exam
  • PISQ
  • Clinical Test
  • PAR-Q

Question 2

Question
The average resting heart rate of an individual is between
Answer
  • 65-85 bpm
  • 70-90 bpm
  • 50-70 bpm
  • 60-80 bpm
  • None of the Above

Question 3

Question
Pulse provides information on which of the following:
Answer
  • Speed and irregularities of heart rate
  • Level of arousal
  • Sleeping or Awake
  • How healthy an individual is
  • Whether or not there are blockages in the blood

Question 4

Question
Prior to taking BP via auscultation it is important to
Answer
  • Ask patient how much alcohol they have consumed in the past 12 hours
  • Let patient relax for at least 5 minutes in a comfortable environment
  • Sedate the patient so that they are in a relaxed state

Question 5

Question
Which of the following does correlate with the correct blood pressure category
Answer
  • Normal <120mmHg/<80mmHg
  • Prehypertension 120-135mmHg/80-89mmHg
  • Hypertension 136-159mmHg/90-100mmHg
  • Stage 2 Hypertension >160 mmHg/>101mmHg
  • Stage 3 Hypertension >180mmHg/>120mmHg

Question 6

Question
Cardiorespiratory Fitness is:
Answer
  • The ability of the cardiometabolic system to produce strong work by consuming oxygen
  • The ability of the cardiovascular system to deliver oxygen around the body and keep muscles healthy
  • The ability of the cardiometabolic system to deliver oxygen to working muscles and those muscles ability to use that oxygen to do work
  • The ability of the cardiovascular system to deliver oxygen to working muscles and do work using that oxygen

Question 7

Question
Active Recovery entails:
Answer
  • Continuing light intensity exercise for approximately 3 minutes
  • Recording HR at each minute
  • Additional two minutes if not below 100bpm
  • All of the above
  • A and B

Question 8

Question
Which of the following is a correct response if a patient feels uncomfortable or exhibits signs of distress during a test?
Answer
  • Reduce cadence and continue test
  • Pause test and give them a second before continuing test
  • Take steps to terminate test
  • Encourage them to keep going

Question 9

Question
These two tests are examples of Submaximal Tests
Answer
  • Constant duration Cycle & Constant Duration Treadmill
  • YMCA Cycle Ergometer & Ebling Treadmill Walking
  • YMCA Cycle Ergometer & Constant Duration Treadmill
  • Constant Duration cycle & Ebling Treadmill Test

Question 10

Question
All of the following are examples of Exercise Tolerance Tests except:
Answer
  • Constant Work (CWT) Participant completes set amount of work or a given distance as
  • Constant Duration (CDT) Participant completes as much work or covers as much distances as possible in a set time
  • Constant Power (CPT) Participant maintains a constant power until exhaustion
  • Constant Speed (CST) Participant maintains a constant speed until exhaustion

Question 11

Question
Which of the following best describes the advantages of Sub-maximal testing
Answer
  • Sub-maximal testing is relatively simple and thus can be performed by untrained individuals in a short period of time
  • This type of testing can be completed quickly due to its simple nature thus making it easier to apply to clinical populations
  • Sub-maximal testing is relatively simple and inexpensive making it easy to apply to clinical populations
  • Sub-maximal testing is easier to apply to non-clinical populations due to its timeliness and simplicity

Question 12

Question
The YMCA Cycle Ergometer test is:
Answer
  • Contains 3 or 4, 3 minute workloads
  • A constant cadence at 50 rpm
  • Aimed to raise heart rate between 110 bpm and 85% of age predicted HRmax
  • Work loads are determined by the heart rate during the last minute of the first workload
  • All of the Above

Question 13

Question
If a 25 year old male’s heart rate is 89 bpm during the first work load his subsequent 2nd, 3rd and 4th workloads would be which of the following respectively:
Answer
  • 450kpm/min, 600kpm/min, 700kpm/min
  • 600kpm/min, 750kpm/min, 900kpm/min
  • 600kpm/min, 700kpm/min, 800kpm/min
  • 450kpm/min, 600kpm/min, 750kpm/min

Question 14

Question
Exercise tolerance test determines _________ performance, whereas VO2 max determines max. oxygen consumption during exercise
Answer
  • Anaerobic
  • Aerobic
  • Athletic
  • Cardiometabolic

Question 15

Question
All of the following are aspects of the treadmill test except:
Answer
  • CDT
  • 3 minute warm up
  • Treadmill at 0%
  • 10 minutes at highest work-rate
  • A and B
  • B and D

Question 16

Question
The resistance for the Cycle CDT Exercise Tolerance test is:
Answer
  • 3.5 kp
  • kp as determined by the participants 85% age predicted HR
  • 3 kp
  • 2 kp
  • 5 kp

Question 17

Question
Functional fitness assessment is important because:
Answer
  • The main causes of injuries especially in aging populations are sedentary lifestyle and disease
  • The components testing in FFA impact an individuals ability to perform activities of daily living
  • Testing can help reduce the prominence of injuries like hip fractures which represent a high percentage of health care costs
  • All of the above are reasons as to why FFA is important

Question 18

Question
Which of the following test is matched with the correct area of assessment
Answer
  • 30 second arm curl/upper arm strength
  • 30 second chair stand /lower body and core strength
  • 8 foot up and go/Static balance
  • 2 minute step test/cardiorespiratory endurance

Question 19

Question
One of the following lists all possible ways to measure musculoskeletal fitness
Answer
  • Muscular, strength, muscular endurance, speed, flexibility
  • Muscular strength, muscular endurance, muscular power
  • Muscular strength, muscular endurance, muscular power and flexibility

Question 20

Question
Steps of the grip strength test include:
Answer
  • Held between fingers, palm of hand and base of thumb
  • Take two measures on one hand and then two on the other
  • Exhale while squeezing
  • Hold hand away from body and stare at focal point
  • A, C and D
  • All of the above

Question 21

Question
Sit and Reach:
Answer
  • Tests the lower back and hamstring flexibility of an individual
  • Uses a flexometer
  • Uses a dynamometer
  • Repeated twice for accuracy
  • A, C and D

Question 22

Question
Subjective Measures of Physical Activity include:
Answer
  • Questionnaires
  • Interviews
  • Written tests
  • All of the above

Question 23

Question
Typically subjective measures lack reliability and validity because:
Answer
  • The reference table may not be an accurate reflection of specific population
  • Seasonal variation
  • Human memory
  • Difficulty to objectively judge self
  • All of the above

Question 24

Question
The accelerometer is a good example of an:
Answer
  • Subjective measure of cardiovascular endurance
  • Objective measure of physical activity
  • Objective measure of cardiovascular endurance
  • Subjective measure of physical activity

Question 25

Question
The accelerometer units of measurement are:
Answer
  • BPM
  • m/min
  • CPM
  • DPM

Question 26

Question
The gold standards of body composition assessment include:
Answer
  • MRI
  • CT
  • DEXA
  • X-Ray
  • Hydrostatic Weighing
  • All of the above
  • A, B, and D

Question 27

Question
The gold standards of body composition assessment include:
Answer
  • Weight (kg)/Height (cm2)
  • Weight (Kg)/Height (m2)
  • Height (m2)/Weight (kg)
  • Weight (lbs)/Height (m2)

Question 28

Question
An individual would be considered obese II if their BMI was between the following range:
Answer
  • 30-34.9
  • 31.-39.9
  • 35-39.9
  • 35-44.9

Question 29

Question
The two measurements of waist circumference are:
Answer
  • NHANE – Inguinal Crest, WHO – midpoint
  • NHANE – Iliac Crest, WHO – Midpoint
  • NHANE – Midpoint, WHO – Iliac Crest
  • None of the above

Question 30

Question
Prior to taking a BIA measurement you should advise the participant to
Answer
  • Avoid alcohol consumption for 24 hours prior to test
  • Exercise lightly for 30 minutes in 8 hours prior to test
  • Avoid showering for 8 hours prior to test
  • Increase water consumption 12 hours prior to test
  • None of the above

Question 31

Question
Which of the following is the correct thumb and index finger placement for obtaining consistent and accurate skin folds:
Answer
  • 12 cm apart and perpendicular to the long axis of the skin fold
  • 8 cm apart and parallel to the long axis of the skin fold
  • 10 cm apart and parallel to the long axis of the skin fold
  • 8 cm apart and perpendicular to the long axis of the skin fold

Question 32

Question
When acquiring a skin fold the head of the callipers should be placed at?
Answer
  • The crest of the skin fold
  • Halfway between the crest and base of the skin fold
  • The base of the skin fold
  • Beside the skin fold

Question 33

Question
Which of the following is not an accepted skin fold site
Answer
  • Biceps
  • Iliac Crest
  • Deltoid
  • Calf

Question 34

Question
Jaws of the caliber are placed 1cm below the the point where the skin fold is: True or False?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
The tricep skin fold measurement requires marking the midpoint between:
Answer
  • Distal clavicle and acromion process
  • Distal clavicle and olecranon process
  • Acromion process and olecranon process
  • Inferior deltoid and proximal radius

Question 36

Question
Which of the following is correct regarding the order of skin fold measurement ?
Answer
  • Complete one full round of measurements at each site, then repeat cycle
  • Complete one measurement at all sites in order except sub scapular which requires two consecutive measurements for reliable values
  • The order in which measurements are taken is not important as long as 3 measures are obtained at each site
  • None of the above

Question 37

Question
All skin fold measurements should be taken before how long after pressure is released?
Answer
  • 1 second
  • 2-3 seconds
  • 4 seconds
  • 6 seconds

Question 38

Question
A third measure at a site is only taken under which circumstances?
Answer
  • It is felt that another measure would yield a more accurate reading
  • The client requests it
  • The mean of the first 2 is greater than the corresponding intra-measure error
  • All of the above

Question 39

Question
Which of the following is a limitation of taking skin folds
Answer
  • People may have sensitive skin
  • Intra- and inter- individual error
  • You need a lot of training to be competent
  • All of the above

Question 40

Question
In which of the following situations would taking skin folds not be recommended?
Answer
  • Determining the effect of a weight loss intervention in individuals with a BMI >30kg/m2
  • Determining the effect of training in some elite level athletes (rowing or wrestling)
  • Determining the effects of a weight loss intervention in individuals who would be classified as overweight
  • Skin fold should never be recommended

Question 41

Question
The following is necessary to measure waist circumference correctly except:
Answer
  • The arms should be cross over the chest
  • The examiner should be positioned on one knee on the clients right side
  • The measurement should be taken at the inferior edge of the iliac crest
  • The measurement should be taken at the midline of the body

Question 42

Question
Which of the following is/are not true of proper technique for taking circumference measurements:
Answer
  • All measurements should be taken on the left side of the body
  • Take a minimum of two measurements at each site in rotational order
  • Apply tension to the tape so it fits snugly around the body without causing indentation to the skin
  • For waist, align the tape in a horizontal plane to the floor

Question 43

Question
Proper hip circumference measurement should be taken:
Answer
  • At the narrowest part of the torso
  • Distal to the gluteal fold
  • Around the buttocks at the furthest posterior protrusion
  • At the superior edge of the iliac crest

Question 44

Question
Of the following which is/are true about BMI?
Answer
  • It is a good measure of abdominal adiposity
  • It is an indirect measure of body fatness
  • It provides important information on the distribution of body fat
  • All of the above

Question 45

Question
What are the current cut offs for abdominal obesity in men and women?
Answer
  • Women=88cm, Men=102cm
  • Women=88cm, Men=88cm
  • Women=102cm, Men=88cm
  • Women=102cm, Men=102cm

Question 46

Question
According to the Arden et al. reading which of the following is not an issue with the current abdominal obesity cut-offs for men and women?
Answer
  • The wait circumference thresholds were developed to be used in place of BMI rather than in addition to BMI
  • The thresholds were developed in a predominantly caucasian population
  • The waist circumference thresholds do not predict increased health risk within normal weight, over weight, and obese BMI categories
  • The thresholds were not developed based on the relationship between wait circumference and health risk

Question 47

Question
Based on Reading 1 which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • The addition of BMI specific waist circumference cut off does not improve the classifications of risk
  • Women have a higher WC threshold than men
  • The thresholds were developed to measure absolute risk rather than relative risk
  • Waist circumference thresholds provide additional information on health risk versus using BMI alone to determine health risk

Question 48

Question
Which of the following is false regarding the importance of measuring waist circumference ****
Answer
  • Abdominal fatness is a more important determinant of health outcomes than overall body fatness
  • Individuals with increased waist circumference are more likely to have the metabolic syndrome
  • a high waist circumference even within obesity class II and III denotes a higher risk for coronary events
  • Individuals who have a BMI within the normal range are at increased risk if they have a higher waist circumference

Question 49

Question
What would the health risk of a female with a BMI of 28kg/m2 and a waist circumference of 97 cm be?
Answer
  • Low
  • Moderate
  • Very High
  • Extremely High

Question 50

Question
A participant has just completed the one-mile walk test and their active recovery. They have been sitting for 3 minutes. Under which of the following scenarios would you end the passive recovery?
Answer
  • The participant's HR reaches 110 bpm
  • The participant's blood pressure drops to 135 mmhg/90 mmhg
  • The participant informal you they feel recovered
  • All of the above

Question 51

Question
Bob is an older adult who has been recommended by his physician to determine his aerobic fitness. He does not have any balance or coordination issues. Which of the sub maximal tests from the CSEP-PATH manual would be the most appropriate to assess his VO2 max?
Answer
  • The mCAFT
  • YMCA Cycle Ergometer
  • Treadmill walking test
  • One-Mile walk test

Question 52

Question
If doing a cycle ergometer exercise test and cycling at 50 rpm with 1kg of resistance (distance per revolution 6m) what is the equation you would use to calculate to the work rate (watts) at which the individual is cycling? 1 watt=6kgm/min
Answer
  • 1kg*(6m/50rpm)*6
  • 1kg*(6m/50rpm)/6
  • (1kg*6m*50rpm)*6
  • (1kg*6m*50rpm)/6

Question 53

Question
For relative VO2 peak what is the appropriate unit of measurement?
Answer
  • L/min
  • L/kgFFM/min
  • ml/kg/min
  • L/kg/min

Question 54

Question
Once a participant is seated during the recover process, at what time points do you measure HR and BP? a) Minute 2 b) Minute 1 c) Minute 4 d) Minute 3
Answer
  • A and B
  • A, B, and D
  • B and D
  • All of the above

Question 55

Question
What assumptions are made in considering sub maximal exercise tests?
Answer
  • HR will continue to rise consistently throughout each test
  • There is variability in HRmax for clients of a similar age
  • The mechanical efficiency during cycling or treadmill exercise is consistent for all individuals
  • An exponential relationship exists between Vo2 and HR within the range of 110-150 ppm
  • All of the above

Question 56

Question
During the belying Treadmill Walking Test a steady state HR is achieved when the HR does not vary by more than:
Answer
  • 1 bpm
  • 10 bpm
  • 3 bpm
  • 5 bpm

Question 57

Question
In the Ebbing Single Stage Treadmill Walking Test, at which HR range should the client be exercising in within the first of walking?
Answer
  • 40-60%
  • 55-75%
  • 65-85%
  • 50-70%

Question 58

Question
Which of the following is not an advantage of sub maximal aerobic exercise testing?
Answer
  • More accurate
  • Less Costly
  • Quicker to carry out
  • All of the Above

Question 59

Question
When is the HR recorded during the YMCA test?
Answer
  • During the first 15 seconds of each minute
  • During the final 15 seconds of each minute
  • During the first 15 seconds of minute 1 and 3 of each workload
  • During the final 15 seconds of minute 1 and 3 of each workload

Question 60

Question
Tracy is cycling at 50 rpm with 2.5kp of resistance. At what power is she cycling?
Answer
  • 75 W
  • 125 W
  • 175 W
  • 750 W

Question 61

Question
The next workload of the YMCA Cycle test requires that the individual cycles at a power of 200 W. How much total weight must be on the weight basket to increase the resistance to this power?
Answer
  • 3 kg
  • 3.5 kg
  • 4 kg
  • 4.5 kg

Question 62

Question
A 65 kg female is using the treadmill walking test to estimate VO2 max. She is 52 years old. Her speed is initially 3.2 mph but adjusted to 3.5 mph after her first minute of warm up. She reaches steady state HR of 104 bpm. What is her estimated VO2 max?
Answer
  • 36.8 ml/kg/min
  • 3.2 L/min
  • 42.7 ml/kg/min
  • 34.3 ml/kg/min

Question 63

Question
You are performing the Ebbing Treadmill Test on a 48-year old male. After the first minute of warmup, the following HR should be maintained:
Answer
  • 85
  • 104
  • 125
  • None of the Above

Question 64

Question
What is the HR cut-off for sufficient recover after the Ebbing Treadmill?
Answer
  • 121
  • 120
  • 99
  • 100

Question 65

Question
Technically speaking, what is the most accurate determinant of max. oxygen consumption?
Answer
  • A non exercise model for prediction of VO2 max
  • A graded submaximal test
  • A graded maximal test with collected expired gases
  • None of the above

Question 66

Question
During the Cycle Exercise Tolerance Test, which of the following is the only variable the participant can change at their will?
Answer
  • Cadence
  • Resistance
  • Duration
  • All are predetermined and constant

Question 67

Question
Badr has just completed the 10 minute cycle exercise tolerance test, he was able to maintain a cadence of 90 rpm throughout the test. What was his total power in kpm/min?
Answer
  • 270 kpm/min
  • 1620
  • 2700
  • 16200

Question 68

Question
What do Vollard et al. report happens when inactive participants undergo a period of aerobic training?
Answer
  • There is an equal increase in VO2 max and aerobic performance
  • Improvements of VO2 max and aerobic performance occur independent of one another
  • The improvement in VO2 max far outweighs the improvements in aerobic performance
  • There is not change in either

Question 69

Question
What did Vollard et al. Conclude?
Answer
  • Vo2 max is a good determinant of improvements in aerobic performance
  • Improvements in Vo2 max and metabolic control combine to explain enhanced aerobic performance
  • Individuals who are low responders to Vo2 max following aerobic exercise are also low responders to aerobic performance following aerobic exercise
  • None of the above

Question 70

Question
In which of the following scenarios would you use an aerobic performance test in place of VO2 max?
Answer
  • To determine max. O2 consumption
  • To predict performance of 20km cycling time trial
  • To assess cardiovascular disease risk
  • None of the above

Question 71

Question
Which of the following is not part of the protocol for exercise tolerance treadmill test?
Answer
  • Participants walk at 0% grade for warm up, then increase to 5% for duration of test
  • Participants self select speed throughout duration of test
  • Test measures total distance covered in 12 minutes
  • Speed is recorded every 20 seconds throughout test

Question 72

Question
Which of the following is part of the protocol for the exercise tolerance cycle test?
Answer
  • It is defined as a constant work test
  • Resistance is set at 5kp
  • Participant cycles at desired cadence
  • HR is recorded every 20 seconds throughout duration of test

Question 73

Question
What is the main reason for measuring exercise tolerance in addition to VO2 max in KNPE 355?
Answer
  • Athletes rely more on exercise tolerance as an indicator of performance
  • There are fewer technical errors associated with measuring exercise tolerance vs. VO2 max
  • Individuals can improve exercise tolerance without improving VO2 max
  • There is no point in measuring exercise tolerance

Question 74

Question
Which of the following is the best predictor of initial onset disability?
Answer
  • Upper body strength
  • Lower body strength
  • Balance/coordination
  • A and B

Question 75

Question
Enhanced musculoskeletal fitness is positively associated with all of the following except:
Answer
  • Bone health
  • Glucose Homeostasis
  • Mobility
  • Aerobic Capacity

Question 76

Question
The push-up test is important for assessing which component of musculoskeletal fitness?
Answer
  • Flexibility
  • Endurance
  • Power
  • Strength

Question 77

Question
The sit and reach test assess the flexibility of what part of the body?
Answer
  • Upper Back
  • Hamstring
  • Hip
  • Calf Muscles

Question 78

Question
Termination for the push-up test includes all of the following except:
Answer
  • If the client feels pain and discomfort
  • When the client performs a maximum of 25 push ups in 1 minute
  • When client is unable to maintain proper push-up technique over 2 reps
  • All of the above are indications to terminate

Question 79

Question
The vertical jump test is used to assess which component of musculoskeletal fitness?
Answer
  • Flexibility
  • Endurance
  • Power
  • Strength

Question 80

Question
Termination criteria for the back extension test include all of the following except:
Answer
  • Client experiences pain or discomfort
  • Maintained the test for 3 minutes (180 seconds)
  • Torso drops below the horizontal on one occasion
  • The client is fatigued and wants to stop

Question 81

Question
The one-leg stance is terminated after completing a maximum of
Answer
  • 1 minute
  • 30 seconds
  • 45 seconds
  • 2 minutes

Question 82

Question
Balancing on one leg requires all of the following except:
Answer
  • Static Balance
  • Dynamic Balance
  • Leg Strength
  • Integration of visual and inner ear signals and receptors in the muscles and joints

Question 83

Question
The back extension test measures what component of musculoskeletal fitness
Answer
  • Back endurance
  • Core Endurance
  • Leg Endurance
  • All of the above

Question 84

Question
In subjective physical activity questionnaires, an example of the floor effect is:
Answer
  • When activities that are less intense than brisk walking cannot be accounted for
  • When light PA is self-reported as a higher intensity
  • When resistance exercises cannot be accounted for
  • When sedentary behaviour is not self-recorded properly

Question 85

Question
In self-reported PA questionnaires what aspect of PA is the least reliably reported?
Answer
  • Frequency
  • Duration
  • Intensity
  • No aspect is less reliable than another

Question 86

Question
What type of validity is most ideal to measure on a PA questionnaire
Answer
  • Concurrent Validity
  • Predictive Validity
  • Criterion Validity
  • Construct Validity
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