Router and Routing Basics Final Exam

Description

Router and Routing Basics Final Exam
Anthony Schulmeister
Quiz by Anthony Schulmeister, updated more than 1 year ago
Anthony Schulmeister
Created by Anthony Schulmeister almost 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of entering the command that is shown in the exhibit on R2 as part of the dynamic NAT configuration?
Answer
  • It will define a pool of addresses for translation.
  • It will identify an inside NAT interface.
  • It will bind NAT-POOL1 with ACL 1.
  • It will define the source ACL for the external interface.

Question 2

Question
A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?
Answer
  • The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.
  • The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.
  • The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.
  • The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.

Question 3

Question
What is the purpose of port forwarding?
Answer
  • Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.
  • Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.
  • Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.
  • Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.

Question 4

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?
Answer
  • dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
  • PAT using an external interface
  • static NAT with one entry
  • static NAT with a NAT pool

Question 5

Question
Using NAT terminology, what is the address of the source host on a private network as seen from inside the network?
Answer
  • inside local
  • inside global
  • outside global
  • outside local

Question 6

Question
What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?
Answer
  • makes internal network access easy for outside hosts using UDP
  • provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme
  • increases the performance of packet transmission to the Internet
  • enables the easy deployment of applications that require end-to-end traceability

Question 7

Question
What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.
  • Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated.
  • Define the range of source ports to be used.
  • Identify the inside interface
  • Define the hello and interval timers to match the adjacent neighbor router.

Question 8

Question
Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?
Answer
  • unicast DHCPACK
  • broadcast DHCPACK
  • unicast DHCPREQUEST
  • broadcast DHCPREQUEST

Question 9

Question
Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?
Answer
  • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254 ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1
  • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254 ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 default-router 192.168.100.1
  • dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254 network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 default-router 192.168.101.1
  • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254 ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

Question 10

Question
Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway
  • The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.
  • The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.
  • This is an ISP requirement.
  • The router has a fixed IP address

Question 11

Question
A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?
Answer
  • It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.
  • It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.
  • It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.
  • It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.

Question 12

Question
An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?
Answer
  • SLAAC
  • stateless DHCPv6
  • stateful DHCPv6
  • RA and EUI-64

Question 13

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?
Answer
  • SLAAC
  • stateful DHCPv6
  • stateless DHCPv6
  • static link-local

Question 14

Question
Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on protocol type.
  • Both can permit or deny specific services by port number.
  • Both include an implicit deny as a final entry.
  • Both filter packets for a specific destination host IP address.
  • Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.

Question 15

Question
A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23
  • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
  • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255
  • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0
  • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

Question 16

Question
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is rebooted before any other commands are implemented?
Answer
  • The ACEs of access list 10 will be deleted.
  • The ACEs of access list 10 will not be affected.
  • The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.
  • The ACEs of access list 10 wildcard masks will be converted to subnet masks

Question 17

Question
An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?
Answer
  • R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in
  • R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out
  • R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
  • R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

Question 18

Question
What is a limitation when utilizing both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs on a router?
Answer
  • A device can run only IPv4 ACLs or IPv6 ACLs.
  • Both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs can be configured on a single device, but cannot share the same name.
  • IPv4 ACLs can be numbered or named whereas IPv6 ACLs must be numbered
  • IPv6 ACLs perform the same functions as standard IPv4 ACLs.

Question 19

Question
What method is used to apply an IPv6 ACL to a router interface?
Answer
  • the use of the access-class command
  • the use of the ip access-group command
  • the use of the ipv6 traffic-filter command
  • the use of the ipv6 access-list command

Question 20

Question
Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • deny ip any any
  • deny ipv6 any any
  • permit ipv6 any any
  • deny icmp any any
  • permit icmp any any nd-ns
  • permit icmp any any nd-na

Question 21

Question
Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three)
Answer
  • They both are link-state protocols.
  • They both use the global address as the source address when sending OSPF messages.
  • They both share the concept of multiple areas.
  • They both support IPsec for authentication.
  • They both use the same DR/BDR election process.
  • They both have unicast routing enabled by default.

Question 22

Question
What is a function of OSPF hello packets?
Answer
  • to send specifically requested link-state records
  • to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them
  • to ensure database synchronization between routers
  • to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

Question 23

Question
What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
  • to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain
  • to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full
  • to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router
  • to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote networks

Question 24

Question
Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?
Answer
  • 0.0.0.32
  • 0.0.0.31
  • 255.255.255.224
  • 255.255.255.223

Question 25

Question
Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • FE80::1
  • FF02::5
  • FF02::6
  • FF02::A
  • FF02::1:2
  • 2001:db8:cafe::1

Question 26

Question
What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?
Answer
  • the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-48 process
  • the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process
  • the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process
  • an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process

Question 27

Question
A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?
Answer
  • The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.
  • The router will be assigned a router ID of 64
  • The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.
  • The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.

Question 28

Question
Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?
Answer
  • show ip route ospf
  • show ip route
  • show ipv6 route
  • show ipv6 route ospf

Question 29

Question
What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?
Answer
  • They are only suitable for simple topologies.
  • Their configuration complexity increases as the size of the network grows.
  • They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default.
  • They require administrator intervention when the pathway of traffic changes.

Question 30

Question
Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • sends subnet mask information in routing updates
  • sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
  • is supported by RIP version 1
  • allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
  • reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

Question 31

Question
While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode.
Answer
  • The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending version 1 and version 2 update
  • The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is receiving version 1 and version 2 updates
  • The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.
  • The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending RIP hello messages.

Question 32

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the exhibited commands in an attempt to activate RIPng on interface gig0/0. What is causing the console message that is shown after RIP is enabled?
Answer
  • Interface gig0/0 is shutdown
  • Interface gig0/0 does not have a valid IPv6 address.
  • IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled on this router.
  • IPv6 is not supported on this IOS.

Question 33

Question
When does a link-state router send LSPs to its neighbors?
Answer
  • every 30 seconds
  • immediately after receiving an LSP from neighbors with updates
  • only when one of its neighbors requests an update
  • only when one of its interfaces goes up or down

Question 34

Question
Which routing protocol uses link-state information to build a map of the topology for computing the best path to each destination network?
Answer
  • OSPF
  • EIGRP
  • RIP
  • RIPng

Question 35

Question
Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup?
Answer
  • an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not using CEF
  • a level 2 child route that is using an exit interface on a router that is not using CEF
  • a level 1 network route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is using CEF
  • a parent route on a router that is using CEF

Question 36

Question
A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?
Answer
  • a 192.168.14.0 /26 route that is learned via RIP
  • a 192.168.14.0 /24 route that is learned via EIGRP
  • a 192.168.14.0 /25 route that is learned via OSPF
  • a 192.168.14.0 /25 route that is learned via RIP

Question 37

Question
What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?
Answer
  • IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not
  • By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes
  • The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.
  • IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.

Question 38

Question
Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?
Answer
  • ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252 ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
  • ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252 ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

Question 39

Question
What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
  • Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
  • Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation
  • Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing
  • Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks

Question 40

Question
What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
Answer
  • ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0
  • ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0
  • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1

Question 41

Question
Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?
Answer
  • recursive static route
  • directly connected static route
  • fully specified static route
  • default static route

Question 42

Question
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?
Answer
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

Question 43

Question
What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • the interface ID exit interface
  • the interface ID of the next-hop neighbor
  • the IP address of the next-hop neighbor
  • the administrative distance for the destination network
  • the IP address of the exit interface

Question 44

Question
What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
Answer
  • utilize one subnet mask throughout a hierarchical network
  • utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system
  • utilize one dynamic routing protocol throughout the entire network
  • utilize multiple different subnet masks in the same IP address space
  • utilize one public IP address to translate multiple private addresses

Question 45

Question
What is a valid summary route for IPv6 networks 2001:0DB8:ACAD:4::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:5::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:6::/64, and 2001:0DB8:ACAD:7::/64?
Answer
  • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/63
  • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/64
  • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/62
  • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/63

Question 46

Question
Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 How would an administrator test this configuration?
Answer
  • Delete the default gateway route on the router
  • Ping any valid address on the 192.168.10.0/24 network
  • Manually shut down the router interface used as a primary route
  • Ping from the 192.168.10.0 network to the 10.10.10.2 address

Question 47

Question
Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?
Answer
  • R2 needs a static route to the R1 LANs
  • R1 and R2 must use a dynamic routing protocol
  • R1 needs a default route to R2
  • R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN.
  • R2 needs a static route to the Internet

Question 48

Question
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?
Answer
  • The static route is removed from the routing table.
  • The router polls neighbors for a replacement route
  • The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static
  • The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface

Question 49

Question
What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?
Answer
  • does not support VLAN-tagged packets
  • requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing
  • does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs
  • requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

Question 50

Question
How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?
Answer
  • Traffic is routed via physical interfaces
  • Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces
  • Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces
  • Traffic is routed via subinterfaces

Question 51

Question
Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?
Answer
  • access
  • trunk
  • native
  • auto

Question 52

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Communication between the VLANs is not occurring. What could be the issue?
Answer
  • The wrong port on the router has been used.
  • The Gi1/1 switch port is not in trunking mode
  • A duplex issue exists between the switch and the router
  • Default gateways have not been configured for each VLAN

Question 53

Question
Inter-VLAN communication is not occurring in a particular building of a school. Which two commands could the network administrator use to verify that inter-VLAN communication was working properly between a router and a Layer 2 switch when the router-on-a-stick design method is implemented? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • From the router, issue the show ip route command.
  • From the router, issue the show interfaces trunk command
  • From the router, issue the show interfaces interface command
  • From the switch, issue the show interfaces trunk command.
  • From the switch, issue the show interfaces interface command

Question 54

Question
What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?
Answer
  • It supports trunking.
  • It is not assigned to a VLAN
  • It is commonly used as a WAN link
  • It cannot have an IP address assigned to it.

Question 55

Question
Which statement describes a disadvantage of using router subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing?
Answer
  • It is more expensive than using individual router interfaces.
  • Routed traffic must contend for bandwidth on a single router interface.
  • Trunking cannot be used to connect the router to the switch
  • All untagged traffic is dropped

Question 56

Question
Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?
Answer
  • Dot1q does not support subinterfaces
  • There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway
  • RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
  • The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30

Question 57

Question
What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?
Answer
  • The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled
  • All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers
  • All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN
  • Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.

Question 58

Question
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route
  • A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
  • The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator
  • Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path
  • The metric is always determined based on hop count.
  • The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.

Question 59

Question
Which software is used for a network administrator to make the initial router configuration securely?
Answer
  • SSH client software
  • Telnet client software
  • HTTPS client software
  • terminal emulation client software

Question 60

Question
Refer to the exhibit. PC A sends a request to Server B. What IPv4 address is used in the destination field in the packet as the packet leaves PC A?
Answer
  • 192.168.10.10
  • 192.168.11.1
  • 192.168.101.1
  • 192.168.12.16

Question 61

Question
What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?
Answer
  • The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state
  • It is a logical interface internal to the router
  • Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router
  • It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices

Question 62

Question
Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • destination IP address
  • destination MAC address
  • source MAC address
  • subnet mask
  • network number

Question 63

Question
Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • hop count
  • bandwidth
  • jitter
  • resiliency
  • delay
  • confidentiality

Question 64

Question
Consider the following routing table entry for R1: D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0 What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0?
Answer
  • It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24
  • It is the R1 interface through which the EIGRP update was learned
  • It is the interface on the final destination router that is directly connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
  • It is the interface on the next-hop router when the destination IP address is on the 10.1.1.0/24 network

Question 65

Question
A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?
Answer
  • to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
  • to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
  • to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
  • to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table

Question 66

Question
What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?
Answer
  • the ipv6 route ::/0 command
  • a static route
  • the ip routing command
  • the ipv6 unicast-routing command

Question 67

Question
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
Answer
  • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols
  • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
  • It has an administrative distance of 1.
  • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table

Question 68

Question
Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?
Answer
  • data
  • default
  • native
  • management

Question 69

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?
Answer
  • A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.
  • A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch
  • A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B
  • No VLAN tag is added to the frame.

Question 70

Question
What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Answer
  • Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode
  • Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
  • Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode
  • Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

Question 71

Question
Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.
  • VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.
  • They are saved in the running-config file by default.
  • VLANs are initialized from flash memory
  • They are commonly used in small networks

Question 72

Question
A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?
Answer
  • It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5

Question 73

Question
Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?
Answer
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
  • S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
  • S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

Question 74

Question
What is the default DTP mode on Cisco 2960 and 3560 switches?
Answer
  • dynamic desirable
  • dynamic auto
  • trunk
  • access

Question 75

Question
Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?
Answer
  • switchport nonegotiate
  • switchport mode dynamic auto
  • switchport trunk native vlan 66
  • switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99

Question 76

Question
Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.
  • Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.
  • Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode
  • Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports
  • Use SSH for all remote management access.

Question 77

Question
Which two modes does Cisco recommend when configuring a particular switch port? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • access
  • trunk
  • FastEthernet
  • Gigabit Ethernet
  • ISL
  • IEEE 802.1Q

Question 78

Question
In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?
Answer
  • to determine if remote access is enabled
  • when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host
  • when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices
  • to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface

Question 79

Question
Which two features on a Cisco Catalyst switch can be used to mitigate DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • port security
  • extended ACL
  • DHCP snooping
  • DHCP server failover
  • strong password on DHCP servers

Question 80

Question
Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic
  • educating employees about social engineering attacks
  • simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing vulnerabilities
  • writing a security policy document for protecting networks
  • controlling physical access to user devices
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