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RCIS Practice

Description

Quiz on RCIS Practice, created by C W on 29/04/2016.
C W
Quiz by C W, updated more than 1 year ago
C W
Created by C W about 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?
Answer
  • CO = PA - 1SVC
  • CO = AO x PA
  • CO = HR x SV

Question 2

Question
Stroke volume is...
Answer
  • Related to preload
  • Related to afterload
  • The same as ejection fraction

Question 3

Question
Preload is most impacted by
Answer
  • Mean arterial pressure
  • Increased filling volumes
  • Ejection fraction

Question 4

Question
A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate...
Answer
  • Increased afterload
  • Decreased afterload
  • Decreased preload

Question 5

Question
Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by...
Answer
  • Radius of the vessel
  • Blood viscosity
  • Length of the vessel
  • BMI

Question 6

Question
The formula for BP is...
Answer
  • BP = SV x SVR
  • BP = CO x SVR
  • BP = HR x SVR

Question 7

Question
What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral insufficiency?
Answer
  • A wave
  • C wave
  • P wave
  • V wave

Question 8

Question
An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?
Answer
  • LV infarct
  • Aortic stenosis
  • RV infarct
  • Mitral Regurgitation

Question 9

Question
If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?
Answer
  • Decreased exercise tolerance
  • Decreased O2 sat
  • Increased O2 sat
  • JVD

Question 10

Question
What is the most common cause of Pulmonic stenosis?
Answer
  • Aging
  • Congenital
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Mitral regurgitation

Question 11

Question
The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?
Answer
  • 15 cm
  • 30 cm
  • 45 cm
  • 5 cm

Question 12

Question
When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10 cc of saline into the ____________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____________
Answer
  • LA, AO
  • RV, PCWP
  • RA, PA
  • RA, LA

Question 13

Question
Based on these oxygen saturation so, what type of shunt is present? SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA sat = 85% RV sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA sat = 98% LV sat 98% AO sat = 98%
Answer
  • R to L ASD
  • L to R ASD
  • L to R VSD
  • It is all normal, there is no shunt

Question 14

Question
The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called?
Answer
  • Ostium Primium
  • Sinus Venosus
  • Ostium Secundum

Question 15

Question
What is the Flamm's equation?
Answer
  • 3 (SVC) +1 (IVC) / 4
  • 6 (SVC) + 2 (IVC) / 2
  • 3 (PA) + 2 (AO) / 4

Question 16

Question
The formula used to calculate MAP is...
Answer
  • HR x SV / SVR
  • Mean AO - mean RA
  • 1 (systolic) + (diastolic) / 3

Question 17

Question
Equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP are found in...
Answer
  • Tamponade
  • Restrictive Pericarditis
  • Acute MI
  • LV MI

Question 18

Question
Signs of right sided heart failure include...
Answer
  • Decreased O2 sat
  • SOB
  • JVD
  • Pulmonary embolism

Question 19

Question
What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
Answer
  • ASD, VSD, LVH, RVH
  • VVH, PS, Over riding aorta, RVH
  • Over riding aorta, RVH, LVH, ASD
  • Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD

Question 20

Question
Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises?
Answer
  • Transposition of the Great Vessels
  • Tricuspid Atresia
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Truncas Arteriosus

Question 21

Question
Pulsus Pardoxus is a sign of...
Answer
  • Constrictive Pericarditis
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Cardiac Tamponade
  • COPD

Question 22

Question
What does RAD stand for?
Answer
  • Radiation absorbed dose
  • Radiation attenuated date
  • Radiation attributable distance

Question 23

Question
Which component of the X-Ray system converts light rays into images?
Answer
  • Image intensifier
  • X-Ray tube
  • Photon tube
  • Anode

Question 24

Question
What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?
Answer
  • 5 RAD
  • 5 Currie
  • 0.5 REM
  • 5 REM

Question 25

Question
Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?
Answer
  • 1.0
  • 0.25
  • 0.5

Question 26

Question
What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the X-Ray source?
Answer
  • 3 feet
  • 6 feet
  • 10 feet
  • 15 feet

Question 27

Question
In an X-Ray tube the...
Answer
  • Cathode is positive and the anode is negative
  • Cathode is negative and the anode is positive
  • The charges alternate depending on the heat generated

Question 28

Question
Which view exposes the operator to the GREATEST amount of radiation?
Answer
  • AP
  • LAO Cranial
  • Lateral
  • RAO with cranial 30

Question 29

Question
What converts X-rays into an image?
Answer
  • Filament
  • Image intensifier
  • X-Ray tube
  • Kvp

Question 30

Question
The contrast that is best for a patient is...
Answer
  • Low osmolality
  • High osmolality
  • Renografin

Question 31

Question
Radiolucent means...
Answer
  • X-Rays are not permitted to pass through
  • X-rays are randomly deflected
  • X-rays are permitted to pass through

Question 32

Question
Radiopaque means...
Answer
  • X-rays are permitted to pass through
  • X-rays are not permitted to pass through
  • X-rays are randomly deflected

Question 33

Question
ReoPro works on...
Answer
  • Fibrin
  • Prothrombin
  • Antithrombin
  • IIb/IIIa receptors

Question 34

Question
Heparin potentiates (increases) the action of...
Answer
  • Antithrombin
  • Factor III
  • Factor IX
  • Factor VIII

Question 35

Question
Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by the action of...
Answer
  • Pro thrombin
  • Tissue factor
  • Platelates
  • Thrombin

Question 36

Question
There are ___ known pathways to imitate the clotting cascade.
Answer
  • 2
  • 1
  • 3
  • 4

Question 37

Question
Aspirin inhibits the action of...
Answer
  • Von Willebrand Factor
  • Factor VIII
  • Thrombin
  • Arachidonic Acid

Question 38

Question
Which agent is not an antiplatelet?
Answer
  • ASA (aspirin)
  • Heparin
  • Plavix
  • Reopro

Question 39

Question
If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0, what would you give?
Answer
  • Lasix
  • Fluids to hydrate
  • Ionic contrast

Question 40

Question
If a patient is taking NPH (injectable) insulin, which medication should not be given?
Answer
  • Protamine
  • Lasix
  • Heparin

Question 41

Question
Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with Supravetricular Tachycardia (SVT)
Answer
  • NTG
  • Lidocaine
  • Dopamine
  • Adenosine

Question 42

Question
If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4, contrast volume should be minimized.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
Lidocaine converts from 2gm in 500cc to...
Answer
  • 8gm in 1cc
  • 400mg in 250cc
  • 4mg in 1cc

Question 44

Question
Dopamine concentration 1600 mcg/ml in 250 cc yields a concentration of...
Answer
  • 200 mg in 250 cc
  • 400 mg in 250 cc
  • 100 mg in 250 cc

Question 45

Question
The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is...
Answer
  • Fentanyl
  • Valium
  • Versed/Midazilam

Question 46

Question
The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is...
Answer
  • Verapamil
  • NTG
  • Amiodarone

Question 47

Question
Amiodarone is used to treat...
Answer
  • Atrial arrhythmias only
  • Ventricular arrhythmias only
  • Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias

Question 48

Question
What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?
Answer
  • Dopamine
  • Dobutamine
  • NTG (nitroglycerin)
  • Lidocaine

Question 49

Question
Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing ______________ post contrast administration.
Answer
  • Renal failure
  • Infarct
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Systemic infection

Question 50

Question
Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?
Answer
  • 1st degree block
  • Wenchebach
  • Mobitz 2

Question 51

Question
The Impella catheter most clearly resembles...
Answer
  • JR 4
  • Amplatz
  • Pigtail
  • IMA

Question 52

Question
When performing an LV gram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a "rate of rise"?
Answer
  • It controls the total volume injected
  • It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy
  • It adjusts the PSI for the correct catheter size

Question 53

Question
The EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. Which coronary would you suspect?
Answer
  • Inferior wall
  • Lateral wall
  • Apical wall

Question 54

Question
An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, lead I, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
Answer
  • RCA
  • LAD
  • CX

Question 55

Question
How do you test the defibrillator?
Answer
  • Hold the paddles in the air and discharge
  • Discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load)
  • Never test, call biomed

Question 56

Question
What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?
Answer
  • They are easily cardioverted to a sinus rhythm
  • You could put them into Vfib
  • You could make them hypertensive

Question 57

Question
In 1st degree heart block, where is the conduction delay?
Answer
  • AV node
  • SA node
  • Bundle of His
  • In the RA

Question 58

Question
What is the normal PR interval
Answer
  • .08 - .12
  • > .20
  • .12 - .20

Question 59

Question
If a patient is attached to the monitor, Vtach is the rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do?
Answer
  • Synchronized cardioversion
  • Unsynchronized cardioversion
  • Call the MD before taking action
  • Check a blood pressure

Question 60

Question
If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, systolic BP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and short of breath. What should you do?
Answer
  • Call the MD before taking action
  • Do immediate unsynchronized cardioversion
  • Do immediate synchronized cardioversion
  • Give adenosine 6mg

Question 61

Question
A common complication of placing a pacing electrode/wire is...
Answer
  • MI
  • Perfusion/Pericardial Effusion/Tamponade
  • Cardiac arrest

Question 62

Question
A pacing generator that paces in both chambers, senses in both chambers, and inhibits QRS complexes is a...
Answer
  • DDI
  • DVI
  • AAI

Question 63

Question
A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses in both chambers, and triggers or inhibits pacing is a...
Answer
  • DDI
  • DDD
  • AAI

Question 64

Question
A pacing generator that paces in the atria, senses in the atria, and inhibits pacing is a...
Answer
  • AAI
  • AAO
  • DDD

Question 65

Question
What is the formula for calculating SVR
Answer
  • Mean AO - Mean RA/CO
  • Mean PA - Mean PCWP/CO
  • EDV - ESV / EDV

Question 66

Question
Which cardiac output would be more accurate in a patient with tricuspid regurgitation?
Answer
  • Thermals
  • LVMF
  • Fick

Question 67

Question
Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload?
Answer
  • PA systolic pressure
  • PCWP
  • RA pressure

Question 68

Question
Which balloon is used for valvuloplasty?
Answer
  • ICE balloon
  • Tran-septal balloon
  • Inoue
  • Self-expanding

Question 69

Question
Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle and a pressure that is lower in the ____________.
Answer
  • Left atrium
  • Aortic arch
  • Pulmonary artery
  • RV

Question 70

Question
If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and a bruit is present, what should be suspected?
Answer
  • Hematoma
  • Aortic dissection
  • Thrombus
  • Pseudoaneurysm

Question 71

Question
An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0cm can be a finding for what?
Answer
  • Normal finding
  • Anomalous renal artery
  • Increased BMI
  • Aortic aneurysm

Question 72

Question
Back pain not relieved with nitroglycerin, morphine or oxygen and not associated with EKG changes can indicate...
Answer
  • PVD
  • Renal failure
  • Aortic dissection
  • Occluded LAD

Question 73

Question
Which stent is self expanding?
Answer
  • Cypher
  • Wall stent
  • Vision

Question 74

Question
A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it?
Answer
  • 7FR
  • 6Fr
  • 5Fr
  • 8FR

Question 75

Question
In relation to a coronary lesion where should the wire not be placed?
Answer
  • As distal as possible
  • In the nearest side branch
  • In a distal side branch
  • Proximal to the lesion
  • All of the above

Question 76

Question
Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotoblador?
Answer
  • Calcified
  • Soft thrombus
  • New dissection
  • Very small vessels

Question 77

Question
Which catheter should be used to cannulate an LAD with a high take off?
Answer
  • JL4
  • Multipurpose
  • Amplatz

Question 78

Question
Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include the...
Answer
  • Head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the clavicular head
  • Superior and inferior carotid pulsations
  • 2cm proximal to the xyphoid process

Question 79

Question
When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from?
Answer
  • LV
  • RV
  • LA
  • Left atrial appendage

Question 80

Question
Hypokinetic means...
Answer
  • No movement at all
  • Decreased movement
  • Hyper or increased movement
  • Disorganized movement

Question 81

Question
In the formula BP = HR x SV x SVR, Dobutamine acts as an ____________, to _______________ by increasing ______________.
Answer
  • Chronotrope decrease stroke volume, contractility
  • Chronotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility
  • Inotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility

Question 82

Question
Which of the following are Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS)?
Answer
  • Lisiopril
  • Losartan
  • Metoprolol
  • Valsartan

Question 83

Question
NTG works to decrease preload when given during an MI by dilating?
Answer
  • Peripheral arteries
  • Arterioles
  • Veins
  • Coronary arteries

Question 84

Question
Low dose Dopamine, 1-5mcg/kg/min...
Answer
  • Improves renal function and urine output
  • Increases the heart rate
  • Increases systolic blood pressure
  • Increases stroke volume

Question 85

Question
If the patient complains of pain down the leg when attempting to cannulate the right femoral artery, which way do you move the needle?
Answer
  • Lateral
  • Medial
  • Anterior
  • Medial and superior

Question 86

Question
Coronary arteries perfume best during...
Answer
  • Systole
  • When the systolic blood pressure is less than 140mmHg
  • Diastole
  • Equally well during systole and diastole

Question 87

Question
What is the purpose of the IABP?
Answer
  • Increased coronary perfusion, decreased afterload
  • Increased coronary perfusion, decreased preload
  • Raise systolic blood pressure
  • Increase renal perfusion

Question 88

Question
Inotropic drugs:
Answer
  • Digitalis
  • Dobutamine
  • Dopamine
  • Epinephrine
  • All the above

Question 89

Question
Another name for Versed
Answer
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Diazepam
  • Midazolam
  • None of the above

Question 90

Question
Another name for Valium
Answer
  • Midazolam
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Diazepam
  • None of the above

Question 91

Question
Another name for Benadryl
Answer
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Diazepam
  • Midazolam
  • None of the above

Question 92

Question
Sedatives with NO analgesic properties:
Answer
  • Versed
  • Ibuprofen
  • Benadryl
  • Demeral
  • Acetaminophen
  • Valium

Question 93

Question
Heparin prevents clot formation by preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 94

Question
ReoPro inhibits IIb/IIIa receptors.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 95

Question
INR (international normalized ratio) measures the levels of Coumadin.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 96

Question
PT evaluates the coagulation factors VII, X, V, II and I (fibrinogen).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 97

Question
PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) test evaluates coagulation factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II (prothrombin), and I (fibrinogen)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 98

Question
Medication of choice for Supraventricular Tachycardia is Adenosine.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 99

Question
Normal RA pressure:
Answer
  • 25/10
  • 25/5
  • 120/80
  • 0-4
  • 120/10
  • 7-12

Question 100

Question
Normal PA pressure:
Answer
  • 120/80
  • 120/10
  • 25/10
  • 7-12
  • 25/5
  • 0-4

Question 101

Question
Normal RV pressure:
Answer
  • 0-4
  • 25/5
  • 120/10
  • 25/10
  • 120/80
  • 7-12

Question 102

Question
Normal PCW pressure
Answer
  • 7-12
  • 120/80
  • 25/5
  • 120/10
  • 0-4
  • 25/10

Question 103

Question
Normal LV pressure:
Answer
  • 25/10
  • 120/80
  • 7-12
  • 25/5
  • 0-4
  • 120/10

Question 104

Question
Normal AO pressure:
Answer
  • 120/80
  • 0-4
  • 25/5
  • 120/10
  • 25/10
  • 7-12

Question 105

Question
Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) calculation:
Answer
  • Systolic + Diastolic / 2
  • Systolic + Diastolic / 3
  • Diastolic + 2 x Systolic / 3
  • Systolic + 2 x Diastolic / 3

Question 106

Question
Pulse Pressure calculation:
Answer
  • AO Systole - AO Diastole
  • AO Diastole - AO Systole
  • PA Systole - AO Diastole

Question 107

Question
Stroke Volume (SV) calculation:
Answer
  • HR x CO
  • End Diastolic Volume - End Systolic Volume
  • HR - EDV

Question 108

Question
CO / BSA:
Answer
  • Cardiac Index
  • Regurgitant Fraction
  • Aortic Valve Flow

Question 109

Question
HR x SV / 1000
Answer
  • Cardiac Index
  • CO Angiographic (LVMF)
  • Regurgitant Fraction

Question 110

Question
Gorlin's Constant used for Aortic valve area:
Answer
  • 44.5
  • 37.7
  • 44.7
  • 37.5

Question 111

Question
Gorlin constant for Mitral valve area:
Answer
  • 44.5
  • 37.7
  • 37.5
  • 44.7

Question 112

Question
Mean PA - Mean PCW / CO:
Answer
  • PVR
  • SVR
  • MVA
  • MVF

Question 113

Question
Mean AO - Mean RA / CO:
Answer
  • SVR
  • PVR
  • MVF
  • MVA

Question 114

Question
LV Systole - AO Systole:
Answer
  • PVR
  • SVR
  • Peak to Peak Gradient
  • Aortic Valve Area

Question 115

Question
CO / SEP ( systolic ejection period):
Answer
  • Aortic Valve Area (AVA)
  • Mitral Valve Area (MVA)
  • Aortic Valve Flow (AVF)
  • Mitral Valve Flow (MVF)

Question 116

Question
SV / EDV:
Answer
  • Fick CO
  • Normal O2 consumption
  • Ejection Fraction
  • SV

Question 117

Question
What is the normal range of potassium (K+) in the blood?
Answer
  • 3.0 - 5.5
  • 3.5 - 5.5
  • 3.5 - 5.0
  • 3.0 - 5.0

Question 118

Question
INR measures the levels of which drug?
Answer
  • Plavix
  • Ticlid
  • Aspirin
  • Coumadin

Question 119

Question
Lovenox impacts Antithrombin and Factor Xa.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 120

Question
Ticlid and Plavix turn off receptor sites on platelets.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 121

Question
TPA acts by
Answer
  • Preventing platelet adhesion
  • Dissolving fibrin
  • Activates Plasminogen
  • Activates Troponin

Question 122

Question
Troponin is the most accurate measurement of cardiac muscle fiber damage after a MI.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 123

Question
Which lab value does NOT evaluate the extent of an MI?
Answer
  • SGOT
  • Serum Creatinine
  • CK-MB
  • LDH

Question 124

Question
Check pulse for one minute is the best way to calculate pulse rate.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 125

Question
Metabolic Acidosis has a low level of HCO3 (bicarb)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 126

Question
A pH less than 7.35 or greater than 7.45 is called:
Answer
  • Compensated
  • Uncompensated
  • Metabolic
  • Respiratory

Question 127

Question
What would be the appropriate intervention for a patient with Respiratory Acidosis?
Answer
  • Decreased ventilation
  • Increased ventilation
  • Oxygen
  • Uncompensated acidosis

Question 128

Question
To increase arterial PO2:
Answer
  • Hyperventilation
  • Hold breath
  • Oxygen
  • Give bicarb

Question 129

Question
Interpret the following blood gas: pH = 7.25 CO2 = 60 HCO (bicarb) = 22
Answer
  • Uncompensated Metabolic Acidosis
  • Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
  • Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis
  • Uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis

Question 130

Question
How will a high CO2 level impact pH?
Answer
  • lower
  • raise
  • will not affect
  • Not enough information

Question 131

Question
How will an increase in HCO2 (bicarb) affect pH?
Answer
  • Have no affect
  • lower
  • raise
  • Not enough information

Question 132

Question
The inner most layer of an after is the intima.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 133

Question
When a patient has a DILATED AORTIC ROOT, what diagnostic catheter is best utilized to visualize the LAD?
Answer
  • JR4
  • JL4
  • JL5
  • Multipurpose

Question 134

Question
During a pericardiocentesis, the needle enters the sub-xyphoid process.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 135

Question
Where should assist on the IABP be set when a patient has a heart rate of 150?
Answer
  • 1:1
  • 1:2
  • 2:1
  • 2:2

Question 136

Question
Jugular vein distention can be caused by:
Answer
  • LV infarct
  • TR (tricuspid regurgitation)
  • RV infarct
  • Pulmonary hypertension

Question 137

Question
Ventricular arrhythmias are most common during injection of the right coronary artery.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 138

Question
Osmolality refers to the ability of the contrast to pull fluid into the intravascular space.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 139

Question
Synchronous pacemakers sense the heartbeats intrinsic activity and pace only when needed.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 140

Question
The purpose of an ICD is to:
Answer
  • Monitor bradycardia, tachycardia, VT, and Vfib
  • Monitor bradycardia, tachycardia, VT, and Vfib; and convert if necessary
  • Monitor bradycardia only
  • Monitor tachycardia only

Question 141

Question
The R and the L in RAO and LAO refer to the position of the image intensifier
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 142

Question
What shows a TRUE posterior infarct on an EKG?
Answer
  • V1, V2, V3
  • V1, V2, and V7-V9
  • V7-V9
  • V1, V2

Question 143

Question
Time is the most important factor in decreasing Xray exposure to a patient.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 144

Question
What is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium?
Answer
  • 50cc
  • 100 cc
  • 70 cc
  • 500 cc

Question 145

Question
The most common renal stenosis is located in the ostial.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 146

Question
A dislodged lead will cause a fail to capture pacemaker in the RV.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 147

Question
Monophasic defibrillation protocol is:
Answer
  • 200-300-360
  • 200-300-400
  • 200-300-600
  • 200-300-630

Question 148

Question
What does the "c" wave represent?
Answer
  • Onset of atrial contractions
  • Onset of Systole
  • Onset of ventricular contractions
  • Does not represent anything

Question 149

Question
Inject in the RA and read in the PA measures THERMAL DILUTION cardiac output.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 150

Question
Which would likely increase pulmonary blood flow, possibly pulmonary edema?
Answer
  • VSD
  • PDA
  • ASD
  • Truncus Arteriosis

Question 151

Question
RVEDP and LVEDP are different because there is less space in the LV to do the workload.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 152

Question
When endothelium cells build a chemical to equalize the vessel pressure, it is called INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 153

Question
A MI would increase LVEDP, but NOT LV systolic pressure
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 154

Question
A/V stenosis would increase LV systolic pressure.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 155

Question
Every clotting factor is made in the liver
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 156

Question
What is the complication shown at the arrow?
Image:
Ivus Dissection (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Thrombus formation
  • Coronary perforation
  • Wire fracture
  • Coronary dissection

Question 157

Question
This IVUS cross-section shows:
Image:
Ivus Stent (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Full stent apposition
  • Sub-stent hematoma
  • Incomplete stent apposition
  • Calcium

Question 158

Question
The smaller the stent, the lower re-stenosis rate.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 159

Question
The Rotoblator, 1.25-2.0 mm burrs should operate at approximately:
Answer
  • 180,000 rpm
  • 100,000 rpm
  • 160,000 rpm
  • 80,000 rpm

Question 160

Question
The Rotoblator 2.15 mm and larger burrs should operate at approximately:
Answer
  • 80,000 rpm
  • 180,000 rpm
  • 100,000 rpm
  • 160,000 rpm

Question 161

Question
Identify the venous and ECG waves marked.
Image:
Venous Wave (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • a wave
  • c wave
  • x wave
  • v wave
  • y wave
  • p wave
  • qrs complex
  • t wave

Question 162

Question
Mitral regurgitation is virtually certain when atrial "v" waves:
Answer
  • Are over 40 mmHg
  • Exceed the height of the "a" wave
  • Exceed 3 times the atrial mean pressure
  • Occur throughout systole and extend into diastole

Question 163

Question
High PCWP with normal EDP is:
Answer
  • Mitral Valve Stenosis
  • Mitral Valve Regurgitation
  • Tricuspid Valve Stenosis
  • Tricuspid Valve Regurgitation

Question 164

Question
High "v" wave equals:
Answer
  • Mitral Valve Regurgitation
  • Mitral Valve Stenosis
  • Tricuspid Valve Regurgitation
  • Tricuspid Stenosis

Question 165

Question
What is the normal range of pH in the blood?
Answer
  • 7.45 - 7.55
  • 7.25 - 7.35
  • 7.35 - 7.45
  • None of these

Question 166

Question
What is the normal range of PaCO2 in the blood?
Answer
  • 35 - 45
  • 25 - 35
  • 45 - 55
  • None of these

Question 167

Question
What is the normal range of HC03 in the blood?
Answer
  • 22 - 26
  • 20 - 30
  • 25- 30
  • None of these

Question 168

Question
Identify the ports labeled.
Image:
Swan Ganz Catheter (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • Proximal
  • Guide wire
  • Thermistor connector
  • Balloon
  • Distal

Question 169

Question
What is the best view for visualization of a stent?
Answer
  • LAO 40, Cranial 0
  • RAO 40, Caudal 0
  • LAO 30, Cranial 0
  • LAO 60, Cranial 0

Question 170

Question
Which imaging results in a image with more NOISE?
Answer
  • Cine imaging
  • Fluoro

Question 171

Question
Cine acquisition delivers a lower dose of radiation to the patient than Fluoro imaging.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 172

Question
Which image delivers a HIGHER amount of energy to the patient?
Answer
  • Cine imaging
  • Fluoro imaging
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