Question 1
Question
When you configure port rules for NLB clusters, you will need to configure all of the options listed here, except for one. Which option in this list will you not configure for a port rule?
Answer
-
The node IP address the rule should apply to
-
The TCP or UDP port(s) the rule should apply to
-
The filtering mode
-
The protocols that the rule should apply to
Question 2
Question
• Many components can be configured redundantly within a server system. Of the components listed, which one is typically not available in a redundant arrangement in a single server system?
Question 3
Question
• Which NLB control command would most likely be the best option to use to immediately prepare a node for emergency maintenance?
Answer
-
o Stop
-
o Suspend
-
o Resume
-
o Drainstop
Question 4
Question
• Which of the following statements about Network Load Balancing is incorrect?
Answer
-
o Windows Server 2012 R2 NLB clusters can have between 2 and 32 nodes.
-
o All hosts in the NLB cluster receive the incoming traffic.
-
o NLB detects the failure of a cluster node using a heartbeat.
-
o Network adapters in the NLB cluster can use both multicast and unicast simultaneously.
Question 5
Question
• To configure an NLB cluster after installing NLB on the Windows Server 2012 R2 computer, you must configure three types of parameters. Which of the following is not one of the three you must configure?
Answer
-
o Host parameters
-
o Port rules
-
o Firewall rules
-
o Cluster parameters
Question 6
Question
• Which of the following is a constraint of using NLB clusters in unicast mode that you will need to design for?
Answer
-
o You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes form a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network.
-
o You will need to configure routers to duplicate packets for delivery to all cluster nodes.
-
o You will need to manually add ARP entries to the routers.
-
o You will need to ensure you have at least one node in the NLB cluster configured to handle traffic for each class C subnet in your network.
Question 7
Question
• Why should you clearly express availability requirements?
Answer
-
o To avoid dissatisfaction.
-
o To prevent making poor decisions
-
o To ensure RAID is used
-
o To ensure there are no misunderstandings
Question 8
Question
• Which of the following availability guidelines allows for a maximum downtime per month of 43.8 minutes?
Answer
-
o Three nines (99.9%)
-
o Four nines (99.99%)
-
o Five nines (99.999%)
-
o Six nines (99.9999%)
Question 9
Question
• Which of the following enables you to allow multiple nodes to share a single LUN concurrently?
Question 10
Question
• Which PowerShell cmdlet would you need to use to configure the possible nodes that can own a resource in a failover cluster?
Answer
-
o Set-ResourceOwnerNode
-
o Configure-OwnerNode
-
o Set-ClusterOwnerNode
-
o Update-ResourceOwner
Question 11
Question
• Cluster Shared Volume, in Windows Server 2012 R2, offers faster throughput when integrated with what?
Answer
-
o Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel
-
o Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)
-
o BitLocker volume encryption
-
o Storage Spaces
Question 12
Question
• A production-ready failover cluster requires what minimum number of nodes?
Answer
-
o Two
-
o Three
-
o Four
-
o Five
Question 13
Question
• Clusters running on which of the following operating systems are supported for migration to Windows Server 2012 R2?
Answer
-
o Windows Server 2008
-
o Windows Server 2003
-
o Windows Server 2008 R2
-
o Windows Server 2003 R2
Question 14
Question
• Why is it not recommended to install Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) on cluster nodes?
Answer
-
o AD DS works best on NLB nodes
-
o AD DS does not require clustering for fault tolerance
-
o AD DS does not support fault tolerance
-
o AD DS is not cluster aware
Question 15
Question
• Which quorum type is used by clusters that have special configurations?
Question 16
Question
• How does the Scale-Out File Server provide for multiple nodes to access the same volume at the same time?
Question 17
Question
• The High Availability Wizard allows you to configure several pre-selected high availability roles in a cluster. Which of the following are options that are available to choose from?
Question 18
Question
• If a monitored VM is gracefully restarted on its current Hyper-V host and it subsequently fails again, what will VM Monitoring next attempt?
Answer
-
o Move the VM to another cluster node and restart it again.
-
o Leave the VM in a failed state and send an SNMP alert.
-
o Move the VM to another cluster node and leave it in a failed state.
-
o Restart the VM again, using Last Known Good Boot.
Question 19
Question
• When using VM Monitoring for Hyper-V VMs, into what event log will events be logged when a monitored service is deemed to be unhealthy?
Answer
-
o Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem "VM42" "DHCPClient"
-
o Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem -VirtualMachine "VM42" -Service DHCPClient
-
o Set-MonitoredItem -VirtualMachine "VM42" -Service DHCPClient
-
o Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem -Host "VM42" -Service DHCPClient
Question 20
Question
• Which of the following features are not supported on the Scale-Out File Server?
Question 21
Question
• When configuring a cluster to provide highly available Hyper-V services, which of the hardware requirements must your server hardware meet?
Question 22
Question
• Server Message Block (SMB) 3.0 provides many changes that add functionality and improve performance. Which of the following features encrypts traffic?
Question 23
Question
• Quick Migration occurs within the confines of what?
Answer
-
o Failover cluster
-
o An Active Directory Forest
-
o A Virtual Machine Manager farm
-
o A network load balanced cluster
Question 24
Question
• If you want to use an exported VM a template to create multiple VMs, what should you do on the source VM before performing the export?
Question 25
Question
• What two factors are the primary items impacting the speed of a Quick Migration?
Answer
-
o The speed of the network between the source and the destination servers.
-
o The speed of the disks in the source and destination servers.
-
o The speed of the RAM in the source and destination servers.
-
o The amount of memory that needs to be written to disk.
Question 26
Question
• What minimum version of VMware ESX/ESXi must a source VM be running on to allow it to be migrated to Hyper-V using P2V?
Answer
-
o 3.5
-
o 3.5 update 5
-
o 4.1
-
o 5.1
Question 27
Question
• When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source server specifications would disqualify it from a P2V migration?
Question 28
Question
• In regard to Live Migration, which of the following prerequisites must be met before attempting the Live Migration?
Answer
-
o All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer
-
o All hosts must support hardware virtualization
-
o All hosts must be running on the same server model
-
o All VMs must be configured to use the OVH format disks on SCSI disks
Question 29
Question
• When performing a VM import operation, which option is best selected when you are working from an exported VM template that you will be importing more than once?
Answer
-
o Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)
-
o Restore the virtual machine (use the existing unique ID)
-
o Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)
-
o Register the virtual machine in place (use the existing unique ID)
Question 30
Question
• What is the process by which you take a partially or completely configured VM and create other VMs without having to perform the installation and configuration from scratch?
Answer
-
o Storage Migration
-
o Live Migration
-
o Quick Migration
-
o Exporting
Question 31
Question
• What can you use to configure automatic procedures for defining a desired property on a file based on the conditions specified in a rule?
Answer
-
o File attribution
-
o File classification
-
o File indexing
-
o File archiving
Question 32
Question
• Distributed cache mode is designed for branch offices with what number of clients?
Answer
-
o Fewer than 25
-
o Fewer than 50
-
o Fewer than 75
-
o Fewer than 100
Question 33
Question
• What feature of Windows enables you to integrate Windows users into an existing UNIX or Linux environment?
Question 34
Question
• Which mode of BranchCache configuration uses one or more dedicated servers to provide the cached copy in the branch office?
Answer
-
o Local copy mode
-
o Hosted cache mode
-
o Distributed cache mode
-
o Central cache mode
Question 35
Question
• Which of the following is a distributed file system protocol used to access files over the network that is used with UNIX and Linux file server clients?
Question 36
Question
• Before you can use BranchCache, you must perform several tasks. Which of the following tasks is not required to be performed to use BranchCache?
Answer
-
o Configure clients to use BranchCache
-
o Configure switches to support BranchCache
-
o Configure hash publication for BranchCache
-
o Create BranchCache-enabled file shares
Question 37
Question
• Which of the following terms is best described as giving access to a user?
Answer
-
o Authentication
-
o Authorization
-
o Auditing
-
o Accounting
Question 38
Question
• Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to configure BranchCache in distributed caching mode.
Question 39
Question
• Which of the following would you skip in your planning for deploying Access-Denied Assistance?
Answer
-
o The recipients for the Access Request email messages
-
o The share size where Access-Denied Assistance will be used
-
o The email text that users use to request access
-
o The message that users will see when they are denied when accessing a resource
Question 40
Question
• Which of the following statements are true concerning Kerberos armoring?
Answer
-
o Allows Kerberos to create service tickets to devices
-
o Fully encrypts Kerberos messages
-
o Increases Kerberos processing time
-
o Uses Flexible Authentication Secure Tunneling (FAST)
Question 41
Question
• After you create claim types, what is the next step you must perform to allow the claim to function properly?
Answer
-
o Create a claim replication policy
-
o Configure resource properties
-
o Enable claims enforcement points
-
o Create a claims refresh policy
Question 42
Question
• What Windows Server 2012 feature allows you to define computer-wide auditing of the file system or the registry?
Answer
-
o Discretionary Access Control Lists
-
o System Audit Preferences
-
o Global Object Access Auditing
-
o Universal Group Auditing Control
Question 43
Question
• Which of the listed PowerShell cmdlets would be correctly used to modify a Central Access Policy in Active Directory?
Answer
-
o Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy
-
o Update-ADCentralAccessPolicy
-
o Modify-ADCentralAccessPolicy
-
o Change-ADCentralAccessPolicy
Question 44
Question
• What Windows Server 2012 R2 feature helps users determine why they cannot access a folder or a file?
Question 45
Question
• What is the best way to allow Dynamic Access Control staging for your Active Directory environment?
Answer
-
o Edit the local security policy on all servers to enable Audit Central Access Policy Staging
-
o Modify the registry via a login script to enable central access policy staging
-
o Edit a domain Group Policy object to enable Audit Central Access Policy Staging
-
o Modify the registry via a startup script to enable central access policy staging
Question 46
Question
• Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the process of using a trusted identity provider to provide authentication?
Question 47
Question
• What is the name of the high-availability technology that establishes multiple sessions or connections to the Fibre Channel storage array by using redundant path components such as switches, adapters, and cables?
Question 48
Question
• What role can you install in Windows Server 2012 to provide iSCSI storage to other clients?
Question 49
Question
• How are SAN devices typically accessed over the network?
Answer
-
o Using Fibre Channel
-
o Using SMB
-
o Using iSCSI
-
o Using NFS
Question 50
Question
• What is the name given to the new Windows Server 2012 capability that allows an administrator to completely remove binaries from the disk for an unneeded role or feature?
Question 51
Question
• What protocol is used to automatically discover, manage, and configure iSCSI devices on a TCP/IP network?
Answer
-
o iDNS
-
o iWINS
-
o iSCNS
-
o iSNS
Question 52
Question
• SANs typically use what protocol for communication between servers and storage arrays?
Answer
-
o SMB
-
o iSCSI
-
o Fibre Channel
-
o SCSI
Question 53
Question
• Which of the following Hyper-V disk types is characterized as only allocating the amount of physical disk space that is required at that point in time, while still being able to grow to a fixed limit?
Question 54
Question
• Which term corresponds to unique identifiers in an iSCSI network?
Answer
-
o Logical Unit Number
-
o iSCSI Qualified Name
-
o iSCSI Initiator
-
o iSCSI Target
Question 55
Question
• From where would you add Network Load Balancing to a Windows Server 2012 computer?
Answer
-
o Programs and Features
-
o Server Manager
-
o Add/Remove Programs
-
o Computer Management
Question 56
Question
• Which PowerShell cmdlet here will correctly install NLB and the NLB management console?
Answer
-
o Install-WindowsFeature NLB,NLB-Console
-
o Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB
-
o Add-WindowsFeature NLB,NLB-RSAT
-
o Add-WindowsComponents NLB,NLB-Manager
Question 57
Question
• Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity?
Answer
-
o Stop
-
o Suspend
-
o Resume
-
o Drainstop
Question 58
Question
• What is the function of port rules in an NLB cluster?
Answer
-
o They define which ports are allowed to pass through the cluster
-
o They define which ports the cluster will listen for
-
o They define which ports the cluster will not listen for
-
o They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster
Question 59
Question
• How are storage devices typically assigned to only a single cluster on the network?
Answer
-
o By using the SCSI Primary Commands-3 standard
-
o By using the NTFS file system
-
o By using dynamic disks
-
o By using LUN masking or zoning
Question 60
Question
• Which PowerShell cmdlet would be used to add a new resource group to a failover cluster configuration?
Question 61
Question
• In a failover cluster configured on Windows Server 2012 R2, how are heartbeats transmitted?
Answer
-
o Using TCP port 3343 unicast
-
o Using TCP port 3343 broadcast
-
o Using UDP port 3343 unicast
-
o Using UDP port 3343 broadcast
Question 62
Question
• Which storage technology is a low-cost option that typically requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives?
Question 63
Question
• When configuring the failure threshold on the Failover tab, you can opt to leave the cluster in a failed state by configuring what two options?
Answer
-
o The maximum number of failures that can occur
-
o The minimum number of failures that can occur
-
o The length of time in hours
-
o The length of time in minutes
Question 64
Question
• What new management functionality is introduced with SMB 3.0?
Answer
-
o The SMB Management Console
-
o The SMB node of the Failover Cluster Console
-
o PowerShell cmdlets for SMB
-
o Windows Remote support for SMB
Question 65
Question
• When adding nodes to a cluster, what permission must be granted to the account used to add the nodes to the cluster if that account is not a member of the Domain Administrators security group?
Question 66
Question
• Which of the following statements are true concerning SMB Multichannel in SMB 3.0?
Answer
-
o Uses multiple network interfaces
-
o Introduces bandwidth aggregation and network fault tolerance
-
o SMB 1.0 and SMB 2.x clients will use a single SMB connection
-
o All of the Above
Question 67
Question
• When performing a Live Migration using the "Move the virtual machine's data by selection where to move the items" option, you have three additional, advanced options available to you. Which of the following is not one of those options?
Answer
-
o Move the VM's data automatically
-
o Move the VM's data to different locations
-
o Move the VM's hard disks to different locations
-
o Move the VM's items to different locations
Question 68
Question
• Which of the following VM file formats can be migrated using the V2V method by Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager?
Answer
-
o VHD
-
o OVF
-
o Vmware
-
o Citrix XenServer
Question 69
Question
• Offline P2V migrations are the only available migration method for what types of source servers?
Answer
-
o Servers with FAT32 volumes
-
o Servers with NTFS volumes
-
o Servers with any VSS writers installed
-
o Servers that are domain controllers
Question 70
Question
• When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source server specifications would disqualify it from a P2V migration?
Question 71
Question
• When importing a VM in Windows Server 2012 R2, you have three options available to select from that affect how the import is performed. Which of the following is not one of those options?
Answer
-
o Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)
-
o Restore the virtual machine (use the existing unique ID)
-
o Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)
-
o Register the virtual machine in place (use the existing unique ID)
Question 72
Question
• When performing a Live Migration using the "Move the virtual machine's data by selecting where to move the items" option, which of the following advanced options would be the best to choose from if you need to select a specific location on the destination server for each of the VMs to be moved to?
Answer
-
o Move the VM's data automatically
-
o Move the VM's data and maintain storage hierarchy
-
o Move the VM's hard disks to different locations
-
o Move the VM's items to different locations
Question 73
Question
• What is the process by which you move an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server without a cluster?
Answer
-
o Storage Migration
-
o Live Migration
-
o Quick Migration
-
o Exporting
Question 74
Question
• How is Identity Management for UNIX installed?
Question 75
Question
• When configuring the BranchCache hash publication options in Group Policy, you have three options available. Which of the options listed here is not available to configure?
Answer
-
o Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled
-
o Allow hash publication only for shared folders on which BranchCache is enabled
-
o Allow hash publication for all shared folders
-
o Disallow hash publications on all shared folders
Question 76
Question
• Before you can audit access to files, what must you first do?
Answer
-
o Specify files to be audited
-
o Specify times to be audited
-
o Enable object access auditing
-
o Enable file server auditing
Question 77
Question
• What feature, first available in Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008, enables you to configure object access auditing for every file and folder on the computer's file system?
Answer
-
o Total Object Access Auditing
-
o Server Object Access Auditing
-
o System Object Access Auditing
-
o Global Object Access Auditing
Question 78
Question
• Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to configure BranchCache in local caching mode.
Question 79
Question
• After you have deployed a proposed Dynamic Access Control policy in staging mode, how do you check to see what is happening?
Answer
-
o Look in the Security logs for Event ID 4818
-
o Look in the Application logs for Event ID 4818
-
o Look in the DacStage.log file
-
o Look in the DacResults.xml file
Question 80
Question
• From what locations in Windows Server 2012 can you set classifications on files and folders?
Answer
-
o On the folder Properties dialog box
-
o In the File and Folder Classification Manager console
-
o In the File Server Resource Manager console
-
o At the command line using the dism.exe utility
Question 81
Question
• Before you attempt to implement file classification, which of the following tasks should you not first determine?
Answer
-
o The method you will use to identify documents for classification
-
o The classification you wish to apply
-
o The schedule of the classification to occur
-
o The schedule of disk defragmentation
Question 82
Question
• What Windows Server 2012 R2 feature allows you to define computer-wide auditing of the file system or the registry?
Answer
-
o Discretionary Access Control Lists
-
o System Audit Preferences
-
o Global Object Access Auditing
-
o Universal Group Auditing Control
Question 83
Question
• To use claims-based authorization in a domain, which of the following items must you have?
Answer
-
o Clients running Windows 8
-
o Kerberos
-
o Domain Controllers running Windows Server 2012 R2 in the domain
-
o Domain Controllers running Windows Server 2012 R2 in every domain
Question 84
Question
• Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the process that issues a token to the user?
Question 85
Question
• Which of the following methods can be used to restrict which servers can connect to an iSCSI target?
Answer
-
o IQN
-
o DNS name
-
o MAC address
-
o IP address
Question 86
Question
• Which Hyper-V disk management command would you need to use to reduce the file size of a virtual hard disk?
Answer
-
o Compact
-
o Shrink
-
o Convert
-
o Expand
Question 87
Question
• How are NAS devices typically accessed over the network?
Answer
-
o Using Fibre Channel
-
o Using SMB
-
o Using iSCSI
-
o Using NFS
Question 88
Question
• SANs typically use what protocol for communication between servers and storage arrays?
Answer
-
o SMB
-
o iSCSI
-
o Fibre Channel
-
o SCSI
Question 89
Question
• How are SAN devices typically accessed over the network?
Answer
-
o Using Fibre Channel
-
o Using SMB
-
o Using iSCSI
-
o Using NFS
Question 90
Question
• Fibre Channel of Ethernet (FCoE) is capable of _________ per second or more.
Answer
-
o 100 megabits
-
o 1000 megabits
-
o 1 gigabit
-
o 10 gigabits
Question 91
Question
• Which term corresponds to an entity that sends iSCSI commands to iSCSI devices?
Answer
-
o Logical Unit Number
-
o iSCSI Qualified Name
-
o iSCSI Initiator
-
o iSCSI Target